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patho/pharm > test 2 > Flashcards

test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

chemotherapy

A

-narrow therapeutic index
-combination drugs
-doses carefully calculated

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2
Q

chemotherapy toxicities

A

-adverse effects are major drawbacks
-rapidly dividing cells such as hair, GI cells and bone marrow

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3
Q

emetic potential

A

the likelihood that a drug will produce vomiting

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4
Q

tumor lysis syndrome

A

-chemo destroys good and bad cells
-uric acid in blood following lysis- causes joint pain and neuropathy
-use gout meds like allopurinol

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5
Q

antineoplastic meds

A

cell cycle specific drugs
-treat solid or circulating tumors
-there are different classes

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6
Q

antimetabolites

A

neoplastic med
-CCS analogues antagonize actions of metabolites
-trick cancer cells into using their drug and not what they need
-work in S Phase
-folate, purine and pyrimidine antagonists

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7
Q

folate antagonists

A

inhibits the conversion of folic acid to folate which is needed for DNA synthesis

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8
Q

purine antagonists

A

purine bases inhibits synthesis of DNA and rna

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9
Q

pyrimidine antagonists

A

pyrimidine bases inhibits synthesis of DNA and rna

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10
Q

antimetabolites indications

A

-low dose matinence and palliative cancer therapy
-psoriasis ad RA

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11
Q

mitotic inhibitors

A

antimetabolites
natural products obtained from the periwinkle or mandrake plant
-work in various phases of the cycle
-kaposi sarcome, lung cancers

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12
Q

alkaloid topoisomerase 2 inhibitors

A

antimetabolites drug
-treat small cell lung cancer and testicular
-significant toxicities so not used much
-etoposide

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13
Q

topoisomerase 1 inhibitors

A

-treat ovarian and colorectal cancer
-derived from Chinese shrub

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14
Q

antineoplastic enzymes

A

-synthesized using cultures of bacteria and dna technology
-resulting in enzyme production
-ex: asparaginase
-treat acute lymph leukemia
adverse: pancreatic, dermatologic, hepatic and cardio effects

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15
Q

cell cycle non-specific drugs

A

-alkylating drugs
-cytotoxic antibiotics

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16
Q

alkylating drugs

A

-prevent cancer cells from reproducing
-alter dna
-use combo drugs to treat cancer
side effects: ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy
-ex: cisplatin (solid tumors)

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17
Q

cytotoxic antibodies

A

-produced by streptomyces
-block dna synthesis
-bone marrow suppression
-bleomycin, daunorubicin, doxorubicin
-treats solid tumors

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18
Q

bevacizumab

A

blocks blood supply to the growing tumor
nephrotoxicity

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19
Q

hydroxyurea

A

-action similar to antimetabolites
-treat squamous cell carcinoma and leukemia
-nephrotoxic

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20
Q

hormonal drugs

A

treat variety go neoplasms in men and women
block the boys sex hormone receptors
used as adjuvant and palliative therapy

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20
Q

nursing implementations

A

-assess baseline blood counts before antineoplastic drugs
-monitor for myelosuppression (all blood stuff)

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21
Q

oncologic emergencies

A

-infections
-pulmonary toxicity
-allergic reactions
-stomatitis with severe ulcerations
-bleeding
-metabolic aberrations
-bowel irritability with diarrhea
-renal, liver and cardiac toxicity

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22
Q

hematopoietic drugs

A

decrease the duration of chemotherapy-induced anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia

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23
Q

protooncogenes

A

normal genes that regulate cell processes. carcinogens cause them to function as oncogenes. (good until cancer gets it)

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24
Q

tumor suppressor genes

A

suppress cell growth. carcinogen can make them inactive

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25
Q

initiation stage of cancer

A

first stage
mutation of cells genetic structure
-if damaged cell docent die or repair before entering cycle, it will be replaced with same alteration

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26
Q

promotion stage of cancer

A

reversible proliferation of altered cells
activities that are reversible are- obesity, smoking, drinking, etc.

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27
Q

latent period

A

amount of time on the initiation and promotion stage

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28
Q

main sites of metastasis

A

brain, lung, liver, bones

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29
Q

sentinel lymph node

A

the lymph node that is closest to the tumor that must be cut out for biopsy

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30
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A

kills tumor directly
produce cytokines that stimulate all other cells

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31
Q

natural killer cells and activated macrophages

A

can lyse tumor cells

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32
Q

B cells

A

make antibodies that bind to tumor cells

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33
Q

oncofetal antigens

A

type of TAA that are present when the tumor cell has shifted back to a more immature differentiation, serves as a tumor marker

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34
Q

encapsulated?

A

benign- usually
malignant- rarely

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35
Q

differentiated?

A

benign- normally
malignant- poorly

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36
Q

metastasis?

A

benign- absent
malignant- capable

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37
Q

recurrence?

A

benign- rare
malignant- possible

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38
Q

vascularity?

A

benign- slight
malignant- moderate to marked

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39
Q

mode of growth?

A

benign- expansive
malignant- infiltrative and expansive

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40
Q

cell characteristics?

A

benign- fairly normal, like parent cells
malignant- calls abnormal, become more unlike parent cells

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41
Q

carcinomas

A

originate from skin, glands (ectoderm)

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42
Q

sarcomas

A

originate from connective tissue, muscle, bone and fat (mesoderm)

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43
Q

lymphomas and leukemia

A

originate from hematopoietic system

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44
Q

grade 1 classification

A

cells differ slightly from normal cells (mild dysplasia) and are well differentiated (low grade)

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45
Q

grade 2 classification

A

cells are more abnormal (moderate dysplasia) and moderately differentiated (intermediate grade)

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46
Q

grade 3 classification

A

cells are very abnormal (severe dysplasia) and poorly differentiated (high grade)

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47
Q

grade 4 classification

A

cells are immature, primitive (anaplasia) and undifferentiated, cell of origin is hard to determine (high grade)

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48
Q

TNM classification system

A

-tumor size and invasiveness
-spread of lymph nodes
-metastasis

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49
Q

stage 0 cancer

A

cancer in situ

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50
Q

stage 1 cancer

A

tumor limited to tissue origin, localized tumor growth

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51
Q

stage 2 cancer

A

limited local spread

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52
Q

stage 3 cancer

A

extensive local and regional spread

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53
Q

stage 4 cancer

A

metastasis

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54
Q

cancer diagnostic studies

A

-radiographic studies
-radioisotope scans
-PET scan
-tumor markers
-genetic markers
-cytology studies
-chest x-ray
-CBC
-liver function studies
-endoscopic examination

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55
Q

7 warning signs of cancer

A

C- change in bowel or bladder habits
A- a sore that won’t heal
U- unusual bleeding or discharge
T- thickening or lump
I- indigestion or difficulty swallowing
O- obvious change in wart or mole
N- nagging cough or hoarseness

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56
Q

what is the only way to diagnose cancer?

A

pathologic evaluation of a tissue

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57
Q

oncologic emergencies

A

-super vena cava syndrome
-spinal cord compression
-third space syndrome
-hypercalcemia
-syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone
-tumor lysis syndrome
-cardiac tamponade
-carotid artery rupture

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58
Q

UVA

A

tanning

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59
Q

UVB

A

burning

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60
Q

non melanoma skin cancers

A

-actinic keratosis
-basal cell carcinoma
-squamous cell carcinoma

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61
Q

actinic keratosis

A

-most common precancerous skin lesions
-older whites
-impossible to tell from squamous cell cancer
-rough adherent scale on red base, which returns when removed
-topical fluorouracil

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62
Q

basal cell carcinoma

A

-most common skin cancer
-least deadly
-sun exposed areas
-pearly, ulceration, depressed center, red and elevated
-fluorouracil
-slowest growing cancer

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63
Q

squamous cell carcinoma

A

-aggressive and can metastasize
-sun exposure and immunosuppression after organ transplant
-scaly, plaque, lesion with horn

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64
Q

melanoma

A

-causes most skin cancer deaths
-metastasize to brain and heart
-sentinel lymph node evaluation

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65
Q

malignant melanoma diagnosis

A

-dermoscopy
-excisional biopsy
-tumor thickness

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66
Q

atypical/ dysplastic nevus

A

-larger than usual- irregular boarders, different colors
-increased risk of developing melanoma
-should be looked at immediately

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67
Q

bacterial infections

A

staphylococcus aureus, impetigo, cellulitis, furuncles

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68
Q

viral infections

A

herpes simplex, herpes zoster, warts

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69
Q

infestations and insect bites

A

ticks and scabies

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70
Q

fungal infections

A

candidiasis, tinea

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71
Q

cutaneous drug reactions

A

-SJS
toxic epidermal necrolysis
-occur 4-21 days after use of drug( antibiotics, NSAIDS, seizure and retroviral drugs)

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72
Q

seborrheic keratosis

A

benign, familial tendency
brown moleish things

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73
Q

nevi

A

moles

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74
Q

acrochordons

A

skin tags

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75
Q

inter professional care for derma problems

A

-phototherapy uv light
-radiation therapy
-laser technology
-drug therapy

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76
Q

topical dermatological drugs

A

-antimicrobial
-antiinflammatory
-intineoplastic
-antipruritic
-burn drugs

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77
Q

Candida albicans

A

yeastlike opportunistic fungus present in normal flora of mouth, vagina and intestinal tract

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78
Q

dermatophytes

A

tinea or ringworm infections

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79
Q

topical antipruritic drugs

A

-antihistamines
-corticosteroids
adverse: acne, allergic dermatitis, burn, dry, atrophy skin, swollen face, alopecia, etc.

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80
Q

meds for psoriasis

A

begins with topical corticosteroids
-tar-containing products were first meds to be used

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81
Q

ectoparasites

A

lice

82
Q

what health problems lead to acid base imbalances

A

-diabetes mellitus
-COPD
-kidney disease

83
Q

what is pH

A

the measure of H+ ion concentration in the blood

84
Q

acid base regulatory mechanisms

A

-buffers
-respiratory system
-renal system

85
Q

respiratory system regulation

A

-medulla controls breathing
-increased breathing= increase CO2

86
Q

renal system regulation

A

conserves bicarbonate and excretes acid

87
Q

three mechanisms for acid elimination

A

-secrete free hydrogen
-combine H+ with ammonia
-excrete weak acids

88
Q

what happenes when CO2 rises?

A

the kidneys retain HCO3 to compensate

89
Q

arterial blood gas values provide information about

A

-acid-base status
-underlying cause of imbalance
-bodys ability to regulate pH
-overall oxygen status

90
Q

what happens when HCO3 falls?

A

CO2 falls to compensate

91
Q

interpretation of AB

A

-look at each of the values
-evaluate pH
-analyze PaCO2
-analyze HCO3
-determine if patient is compensating
-assess the PaO2 and O2 saturation

92
Q

saO2 and paO2

A

both on a blood gas
saO2- bound to hemoglobin
paO2- unbound in bloodstream, avaliable to tissues

93
Q

carbonic acid excess caused by?

A

-hypoventilation
-respiratory failure

94
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

-hypoventilation, hyperkalemia
carbonic acid excess

95
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

carbonic acid deficit by hyperventilation
-hypokalemia, tingling of extremities

96
Q

metabolic acidosis

A

excess carbonic acid or base bicarbonate deficit
-ketoacidosis, lactic acid, diarrhea and kidney disease
-kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid)
cool clammy skin

97
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

base bicarbonate excess by vomiting or gastric suction
-tremors, confusion, restlessness, hypokalemia

98
Q

maintenance of homeostasis

A

-fluids constantly moving:oxygen, CO2, nutrients
-electrolytes control movement of muscles
-disease processes can alter fluid and electrolyte balance

99
Q

intracellular fluid

A

2/3 body water is in the cell

100
Q

extracellular fluid

A

interstitial fluid- in spaces between cells
intravascular- liquid part of blood
lymph- fluid in lymph
transcellular- cif, gi tract, joints, etc

101
Q

ICF electrolyte composition

A

cation is K+
anion is PO4 3-

102
Q

ECF electrolyte composition

A

cation is Na+
anion is Cl-

103
Q

diffusion

A

-movement from high to low concentration
-no energy

104
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

uses carrier to move molecules from high to low
-no energy

105
Q

active transport

A

-molecules move agains concentration gradient
-atp is required

106
Q

osmosis

A

movement of water down
-low to high
semipermeable membrane

107
Q

osmotic pressure

A

amount of pressure required to stop osmotic flow of water- the higher, the stronger

108
Q

osmolarity

A

measures the total milliosmoles/L of solution

109
Q

osmolality

A

measures the number of milliosmoles/kg of water

110
Q

isotonic

A

fluids with the same osmolality as the surrounding cells

111
Q

hypotonic

A

solutions that are less concentrated than in the cells

112
Q

hypertonic

A

fluids that are more concentrated than in the cells

113
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

the force of a fluid in a compartment pushing against a cell membrane or vessel wall

114
Q

oncotic pressure

A

osmotic pressure caused by plasma proteins. plasma proteins attract water and keep it in the vascular space

115
Q

first fluid spacing

A

normal distribution

116
Q

second fluid spacing

A

abnormal accumulation of fluid within the interstitial compartments that can be exchanged between compartments

117
Q

third fluid spacing

A

fluid is trapped where it is difficult or impossible for it to move back into cells or blood vessels

118
Q

hypothalamic-pituitary regulation of water balance

A

-osmoreceptors in hypothalamus sense fluid deficit or increase
-deficit stimulates thirst and antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary
-decreased plasma osmolality suppresses ADH release

119
Q

renal regulation of water balance

A

-primary organs for regulating fluid and electrolyte balance
-average person absorbs 99% of kidney filtrate

120
Q

adrenal cortical regulation of water balance

A

-releases hormones to regulate water and electrolytes
-glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

121
Q

cardiac regulation of water balance

A

-peptides are antagonists
-produced by cardiomyocytes in response to increased arterial pressure

122
Q

GI regulation of water balance

A

-oral intake for most water
-small amount of water eliminated from feces
-vomiting and diarrhea are big water loss

123
Q

gerontologic considerations

A

kidney structure changes decrease ability to conserve water
hormonal changes and loss of sub q tissue

124
Q

fluid and electrolyte imbalances

A

-directly caused by illness or disease
-result of therapeutic measures (colonoscopy, diuretics)
-more than one imbalance at a time

125
Q

sodium imbalances

A

-parallel changes in osmolality
-plays a role in ECF volume, nerve impulses, muscles, and acid base balance

126
Q

hypernatremia

A

-inadequate water intake or excess water loss or sodium gain
-causes hyperosmololity
-causes thirst
-effecrs brain and mental status

127
Q

hypernatremia management

A

water deficit- replace fluids
excess sodium- dilute and promote excretion with diuretics

128
Q

hyponatremia

A

-sodium loss or water excess
-CNS symptoms, confusion, vomiting, NVD, come, seizures

129
Q

hyponatremia management

A

-fluid restrictions
-loop diuretics
-give IV hypertonic saline solution 3%
-block vasosuppression
-sodium containing solution

130
Q

potassium imbalances

A

-major ICF cation: 98%
-conduction of nerve impulses
-cell growth
-maintenance of cardiac rhythms
-acidbase balance
when K is high, urine potassium increases

131
Q

hyperkalemia

A

-impaired renal excretion and ICF-ECF shift
-beta blockers can impair K entry into cells, heparin and others can reduce ability to excrete K
-common in renal failure!!!

132
Q

hyperkalemia manifestations

A

-cardiac dysrhythmias
-peak T waves, v fib ,death, more wave stuff
-cramp in leg

133
Q

hyperkalemia management

A

-sodium polystyrene sulfate
-insulin and glucose, b-adrenergic agonist or sodium bicarbonate
-calcium gluconate

134
Q

hypokalemia

A

-increased loss of K in kidney or GI
-ecf-icf shift increase
-lethargy, cardiac serious, flat wave, muscle weakness, rest. arrest

135
Q

hypokalemia management

A

-NEVER give KCl by iv push
-shouldnt exceed 10 mEq/hr
-use pump
-digoxin toxicity

136
Q

calcium

A

-form teeth and bones
-blood clotting
-nerve impulses
-myocardial and muscle contractions
-need vitamin D to absorb
-free, ionized and protein bound forms
-balance controlled by: parathyroid hormone, calcitonin

137
Q

hypercalcemia

A

-caused by hyperparathyroidism and malignancy!!
-fatigueness, nephtolothiasis (kidney stones)

138
Q

hypercalcemia management

A

-loop diuretic
-mobilization
-bisphosphonates for hyper as result of malignancy
-IM or SC calcitonin
-dialysis

139
Q

hypocalcemia

A

-decreased PTH, blood transfusions, alkalosis
-positive trousseaus or chovsteks sign!!!!!
-breathe into bag, treat hyperventilation alkalosis

140
Q

phosphate

A

-primary anion in ICF (calcium phosphate
-serum levels controlled by parathyroid hormone
-low calcium level= high h=phos level and vise versa
-if kidneys dont work- phos increases

141
Q

hyperphosphatemia

A

-kidney injury, chemo, hypoparathyroidism
-neuromuscular irritability and tetany (hypocalcemia), calcified deposition
-no dairy, bind and secrete, correct hypocalcemia and hemodialysis

142
Q

hypophosphatemia

A

-malnourishment/malabsorption
-CNS depression, muscle weakness, resp and heart fail
-use IV administration

143
Q

magnesium

A

-coenzyme in metabolism of carbs, DNA and protein synthesis, glucose and BP, ATP production
-acts on myoneural junction- affect neuromuscular excitability and contractibility
-50-60% in bone
-excrete by kidneys

144
Q

hypermagnesemia

A

-excess IV magnesium administration
-causes lethargy, kidney failure, impaired reflexes
-IV CaCl or calcium gluconate
-furosemide

145
Q

hypomagnesemia

A

-prolonged fasting or starvation
-chronic alcoholism
-fluid loss
-prolonged parenteral nutrition
-diruetics
-cases corresponding hypocalcemia and hypokalemia
-increase dietary and IV-IM go mag.

146
Q

crystalloids

A

-better for dehydration- distributes faster
-compensate for fluid loss, replace electrolyte loss, promote urinary flow
-clear iv fluids

147
Q

colloids

A

-stay in vascular space and increase pressure
-albumin, FFP, blood, semisynthetic
-treat plasma volume expansion

148
Q

hypotonic crystalloids

A

-more water than electro- pure water lyses RBC’s
-ECF to ICF
-fluid out of vein into tissue and cells
-treat hypernatremia to maintain fluid but not replace
-monitor changes in mentation
ex- half normal saline, quarter saline, dextrose in water

149
Q

hypotonic crystalloids contraindications

A

-pts who are risk for cerebral edema
- dont use if liver disease, trauma, burns
-monitor for changes in mentation

150
Q

isotonic crystalloids

A

similar concentration of water and electrolytes to plasma
-expants ecf, ideal to replace ecf volume deficit
D5W

151
Q

D5W

A

-isotonic
-free water without electrolytes
-170 cal/L
-replace water loss, hypernatremis and prevent ketosis

152
Q

normal saline

A

-isotonic
-0.9%
-more NaCl than ecf
-compatable with meds
-only solution used with blood

153
Q

lactated ringer

A

-isotonic
-similar to plasma nut no mag.
0has Na, Cl, K, Ca, and lactate
-treats burns, hypovolemia
-contra with hyperkalemia

154
Q

hypertonic crystalloids

A

-raises osmolality of ECF
-monitor lung sounds and sodium levels
-3% NaCl, D10W

155
Q

D5 1/2 NS

A

-hypertonic
-common maintenance fluid
-replaces fluid loss
-KCl added for maintenance

156
Q

D10W

A

-hypertonic
-340 cal/L
-free water but no electrolytes
-limit of dextrose may be infused peripherally

157
Q

colloids

A

-stay in vascular space and increase osmotic pressure
-treat shocks and burns

158
Q

albumin

A

-naturally produces by liver
-generated 70% of COP
-pasteurized to destroy any contaminants

159
Q

cryoprecipitate and plasma protein factors uses

A

management of acute bleeding

160
Q

fresh frozen plasma uses

A

increase clotting factor levels

161
Q

packed red blood cell uses

A

increase oxygen-carrying capacities in pt with anemia or substantial; hemoglobin deficits or lots of blood loss

162
Q

whole blood uses

A

same as PRBC’s but whole blood us beneficial in extreme blood loss bc of plasma

163
Q

TRALI

A

transfusion related acute lung injury

164
Q

TACO

A

transfusion associated circulatory overload

165
Q

supplies for blood transfusion

A

-0.9% NS
-no other fluids
-Y type blood with filter
-IV pump

166
Q

signs and symptoms of adverse reactions to blood transfusion

A

-temp rise 1C above
-urticaria
-chills
-pruritus

167
Q

what do the kidneys do?

A

regulate volume and composition of ECF, excrete waste, control BP, make erythropoietin, activate vitamin D, and regular acid-base balance

168
Q

causes of UTI’s

A

E. coli, Cath, fungal

169
Q

classification of UTI

A

location- upper and lower
severity- uncomplicated and complicated

170
Q

defense mechanisms to maintain sterility

A

-complete emptying with void
-peristalsis propels urine towards bladder
-acidic pH
-high urea concentration

171
Q

risk factors for UTI

A

obstruction, retention, renal impairment, foreign bodies, anatomic factors, compromised immune response, functional disorders, other factors

172
Q

causes of UTI

A

-organisms from perineum ascend urethera
-hematogenous transmission
-health care infections

173
Q

lower urinary tract symptoms

A

-emptying symptoms
-storage symptoms
-hematuria and cloudy appearance

174
Q

upper urinary tract symptoms

A

-flank pain, chills, fever
-fatigue, anorexia
-older: abdominal pain, cognitive impairment

175
Q

diagnostic studies for UTI’s

A

-dipstick urinalysis
-urine culture and sensitivity (clean catch)

176
Q

bladder irritants

A

caffeine, alc, fruits, spicy food, tomatoes, carbonated drinks, chocolate

177
Q

acute pyelonephritis

A

inflammation of renal parenchyma and collecting system
-urosepsis

178
Q

pyelonephritis

A

initial colonization and infection of lower urinary tract from urethrea
causes: preexisting factors, cauti, pregnancy

179
Q

clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis

A

fever,chilld, N/V/D, flank pain, dysuria, CVA, scarring and impaired kidney function

180
Q

pyelonephritis diagnostic studies

A

urinalysis, urine cultures and sensitivities
-blood cultures
decreased kidney function tests
ultrasound
CT scan

181
Q

urethritis

A

-inflammation of the urethra due to bacterial or viral infection
males- sexually transmitted
woman- no symptoms

182
Q

glomerulonephritis

A

inflammation of the glomeruli
-vascular scarring and hardening, affects both kidneys
-ERSD
-nephrotoxic drugs, immune and systemic diseases
acute: sudden
chronic: slow, irreversible

183
Q

chronic glomerulonephritis

A

-syndrome of permanent and progressive renal fibrosis can progress to ESRD
-symptoms develop slowly

184
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

low albumin, peripheral edema, massive proteinuria, foamy urine, hypercoaguability

185
Q

most common type of stones

A

calcium oxalate and phosphate

186
Q

lithotripsy

A

-procedure to eliminate stones from urinary tract
-high energy and disintegrate the stones

187
Q

uretheral strictures

A

prolonged fibrosis or inflammation of uretheral lumen leads to narrowing and compromised opening and closing with bladder filling and voiding from trauma, etc

188
Q

renal artery stenosis

A

partial occlusion of one or both renal arteries and major branches
-control the BP and restore perfusion
treat with renal angioplasty

189
Q

indications for indwelling catheter

A

-releif of urinary retention
-bladder decomposition prep or postop
-facilitate surgery
-facilitate healing
-accurate I and o
-stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer
-terminal illness

190
Q

acute kidney injury

A

rapid loss of kidney function with rise in creatinine, elevated BUN, azotemia
its potentially reversible

191
Q

dialysis

A

-movement of fluid/ molecules across membrane to correct imbalances and remove waste in kidneys
15mL/min.1.73m2

192
Q

safety for AV fistulas and grafts

A

-never preform BP measures on same arm
-distal ischemia
-aneurysms
-prevent infection and clotting

193
Q

hemodialysis complications

A

hypotension
muscle cramps
loss of blood
hepatitis

194
Q

kidney transplant recipient selection contraindications

A

-advanced cancer
-refractory/ untreated heart disease
-chronic respiratory failure
-extensive vascular disease
-chronic infection
-unresolved physcosocial disorders

195
Q

cholinergic meds

A

-stimulate the PNS by binding to the acetylcholine receptors and activate them
-stimulate intestine and bladder causing increased urine frequency
-pupil constriction

196
Q

anticholinergic meds

A

-antagonize PNS by binding to the ace. receptors and mediating response
-decrease GI mobility, secretions, and decrease urine

197
Q

Bethanechol

A

-cholinergic med
used to treat urinary retention

198
Q

cholinergic meds SE

A

-bradycardia
-hypotension
SLUDGE
salvation, lacrimation, urinary incontinence, diarrhea, GI cramps, emesis
overdose could cause- circulatory collapse, hypotension, shock, arrest

199
Q

oxybutynin

A

anticholinergic med
-used for overactive bladder, neurogenic bladder

200
Q

tolterodine

A

anticholinergic med
treats incontinence

201
Q

anticholinergic meds adverse effects

A

-low therapeutic index
tachycardia, restlessness, delirium, dilated pupils, decreased salvation, retention, no sweat

202
Q

diuretic drugs

A

-accelerate the rate of urine formation
-result in removal of water and sodium
-treats hypertension

203
Q
A

patho/pharm (1 decks)

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