Test 2 Flashcards

Chapters 6, 7, 8 , 9, 10

1
Q

Classes Alfa Bravo Charlie number of addresses

A

Alfa: 16777214 (2^24-2)
Bravo: 65534 (2^16-2)
Charlie: 254 (2^8-2)

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2
Q

Class Alfa Bravo Charlie range of addresses

A

Alfa: 0 - 127
Bravo: 128 - 191
Charlie: 192 - 223

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3
Q

IPv6 addresses are made up of

A

eight hextets separated by colons

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4
Q

*Top-level: Second-level:

A

Top-level: .com .org .edu

Second-level: Microsoft.comWikipedia.org mit.edu

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5
Q

*The process of associating host names to IP addresses: Only ones that Windows support:

A

DNS WINS LLMNR (if first two fail) PNRP

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6
Q

The ______ command displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols).

A

netstat

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7
Q

Used without parameters, netstat displays…

A

active TCP connections.

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8
Q

*Allows wireless clients to connect to each other without the use of a wireless access point (AP)

A

Ad hoc

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9
Q

Supports bandwidth up to 11 Mbps; uses the 2.5‐GHz
frequency; susceptible to interference with cordless
phones and microwaves operating in the same frequency;
WEP‐ and WPA‐supported.

A

802.11b

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10
Q

Supports bandwidth up to 54 Mbps; uses the 5‐GHz
frequency; less interference with common household
devices; higher frequency means shorter range compared
with 802.11b and also less apt to penetrate walls;
incompatible with 802.11b because they use different
frequencies; WEP‐ and WPA‐supported.

A

802.11a

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11
Q

*Supports bandwidth up to 54 Mbps; uses the 2.5‐GHz
frequency; backward compatible with 802.11b; 802.11g
was designed to use the best features of both 802.11b and
802.11a; WEP‐ and WPA‐supported.

A

802.11g

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12
Q

Security standard for 802.11 networks that use RADIUS
for authentication; provides key management; RADIUS
provides centralized authentication, authorization, and
accounting for remote connections.

A

802.1X

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13
Q

*It is a Microsoft implementation that uses ad hoc wireless networking that allows you to easily connect to another wireless device.

A

Wi‐Fi Direct

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14
Q

To use Wi‐Fi Direct with Windows 10, you would first create a

A

pairing between two devices, similarly to what you would do with Bluetooth

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15
Q

It is used when your computer is connected to its corporate domain and can authenticate to the domain controller through one of its connections.

A

A domain profile

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16
Q

It is used when your computer is connected to a private network location (home or small office network) and is located behind a firewall and/or a device that performs NAT. If you are using this profile with a wireless network, you should implement encryption (WPA v2).

A

A private profile

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17
Q

It is used when your computer is connected to a public network (for example, directly connected to the Internet). It is assigned to the computer when it is first connected to a new network; rules associated with this profile are the most restrictive.

A

A public profile

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18
Q

It is a new feature introduced with Windows 7 and
Windows Server 2008 R2. Provides seamless intranet connectivity to ________ client computers when they are connected to the Internet

A

Configuring DirectAccess

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19
Q

*_______ connections are automatically established and they provide always-on seamless connectivity

A

DirectAccess

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20
Q

Overcomes the limitations of VPNs by automatically establishing a bidirectional connection from client computers to the organization’s network using IPsec and Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6)

A

DirectAccess Connection

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21
Q

FAT Maximum Partition Size, Maximum Size

A

2GB, 2GB

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22
Q

FAT32 Maximum Partition Size, Maximum Size

A

32GB, 4GB

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23
Q

NTFS Maximum Partition Size, Maximum Size

A

256TB, Limited by the size of the volume on which it resides

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24
Q

exFAT Maximum Partition Size, Maximum Size

A

128 PB, Limited by the size of the volume on which it resides

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25
Q

Allows for more partitions and larger volume sizes.

A

A GPT partition style

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26
Q

*A disk initialized as a GPT partition style may contain

A

up to 128 primary partitions. Each partition can be as large as 9.4 zettabytes (ZB). One zettabyte is equal to one billion terabytes.

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27
Q

Uses free space available on a single disk.

A

Simple volume

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28
Q

Extends a simple volume across multiple disks, up to a maximum of 32.

A

Spanned volume

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29
Q

Duplicates data from one disk to a second disk for redundancy and fault tolerance; if one disk fails, data can be accessed from the second disk. You cannot span a mirrored volume; a mirrored volume must reside on a single disk. Mirroring is also referred to as RAID‐1.

A

Mirrored volume

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30
Q

Stores data across two or more physical disks. Data on a striped volume is written evenly to each of the physical disks in the volume. You cannot mirror or span a striped volume. Striping is often referred to as RAID‐0.

A

Striped volume

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31
Q

Writes one copy of your data but doesn’t protect against drive failures; requires at least one drive.

A

Simple (no resiliency)

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32
Q

*Writes two copies of your data to protect against a single drive failure; requires at least two drives.

A

Two‐way mirror

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33
Q

Writes three copies of your data to protect against two simultaneous drive failures; requires at least five drives.

A

Three‐way mirror:

34
Q

*Writes data with parity information to protect against single drive failures; requires at least three drives.

A

Parity

35
Q

Only drives that are marked as ________ can be connected while the system is running.

A

Hot pluggable

36
Q

Enables user/group to view file and subfolder names, view data in files, and run programs

A

Read (permission)

37
Q

Enables user/group to add files and subfolders to the shared folder, change data in files, delete subfolders and files, and change any permission associated with Read

A

Change (permission)

38
Q

*Enables user/group to change file permissions (NTFS only), take ownership of files (NTFS only), and perform tasks associated with Change/Read

A

Full Control (permission)

39
Q

(NTFS Permission)
Folder: Enables user/group to read the contents of the folder.
File: Enables user/group to read the contents of the file.

A

Read (NTFS Permission)

40
Q

(NTFS Permission)
Folder: Enables user/group to read the contents of the folder and execute programs in the folder.
File: Enables user/group to read the contents of the file and execute the program.

A

Read & Execute (NTFS Permission)

41
Q

(NTFS Permission)
Folder: Enables user/group to create files and folders.
File: Enables user/group to create a file.

A

Write (NTFS Permission)

42
Q

(NTFS Permission)
Folder: Enables user/group to read and write permissions. User can delete files within the folder and view the contents of subfolders.
File: Enables user/group to read and write permissions.
User can modify the contents of the file.

A

Modify (NTFS Permission)

43
Q

(NTFS Permission)
Folder: Enables user/group to view a list of files in the selected folder; user is not allowed to read the contents of a file or execute a file.
File: There is no equivalent permission for files.

A

List Folder Contents (NTFS Permission)

44
Q

(NTFS Permission)
Folder: Enables user/group to add, change, move, and delete items. User can also add and remove permissions on the folder and its subfolders.
File: Enables user/group to change, move, delete, and manage permissions. User can also add, change, and remove permissions on the file.

A

Full Control (NTFS Permission)

45
Q

Two types of permission used in NTFS

A

Explicit: directly
Inherited: from parent folder

46
Q

*Hierarchy of precedence of permission is as follows:

A

Explicit Deny
Explicit Allow
Inherited Deny
Inherited Allow

47
Q

As an administrator, your
goal is to provide storage space while minimizing the costs of adding more storage. ________ enable you to maintain a balance between the two by limiting the amount of storage space you allocate to your users.

A

Disk quotas

48
Q

Disk quotas, a feature first introduced in _______ are available in _______ and _______ editions. When enabled, the Disk Quota Manager monitors and tracks the files that are owned by a specific user.

A

Windows 2000, are available in Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016 editions.

49
Q

Windows 10 default libraries

A

Documents library: Stores word‐processing documents, spreadsheets, and similar files.
Music library: Stores audio files, such as those you’ve downloaded from the Web, transferred from a portable device (music player), or ripped from a CD.
Pictures library: Stores digital image files.
Video library: Stores video files.

50
Q

By default, public folder sharing is off.
Except

A

when a system is part of a homegroup.

51
Q

*When sharing documents, you have the following options:

A

Send e‐mail
Post to
Get a link (view only/ view and edit/ public)

52
Q

Used to give individual users or groups permission to a file or folder. You can then remove permissions for a specific group or individual if necessary. When users receive the link via email and visit OneDrive, the file or folder will appear in their list of shared files. You do not have to know their Microsoft user account address. If they do not have one, they can create one for free after clicking the link.

A

Send e‐mail (One Drive document sharing option)

53
Q

Used to share the link on Facebook, LinkedIn, or Twitter. Anyone who views the post on your network can forward the link. If you selected the option to allow recipients to edit the document, anyone the link is forwarded to can view and edit the file or folder.

A

Post to (One Drive document sharing option)

54
Q

Used to share the file with a larger number of recipients. For example, you could post the link on your blog or your website. You can also include this link in an email or instant message. When using this option, you can choose from the

A

Get a link (One Drive document sharing option)

55
Q

Types of links (Get a link, sharing document option)

A

View only: Anyone who receives this link can see the files you
share.
View and edit: Anyone with this link can see and edit the files
you share.
Public: Anyone can search for and view your public files, even
if you don’t share a link, if you decide to make it public.

56
Q

A printer that is connected directly to a computer, usually through a USB port/ connection.

A

Local printer

57
Q

Multiple users can share the same printer.

A

Network printers

58
Q

*hardware: What Microsoft calls a physical printer.

A

Print device /host

59
Q

What Microsoft calls a logical printer.

A

Printer

60
Q

When you open Printer Properties, you will find the
following options:

A

General Tab
Sharing Tab
Advanced Tab

61
Q

*Allows you to configure the printer name, location, and comments and to print a test page. In addition, if you click the Printing Preferences button on the General tab, the default paper size, paper tray, print quality/resolution, pages per sheet, print order (such as front to back or back to front), and number of copies will display. The actual options that are available will vary depending on your printer.

A

General tab (printer properties)

62
Q

Allows you to share a printer. You can also publish the printer in Active Directory if you chose the List in the directory option. Because a printer on a server can be used by other clients connected to the network, you can add additional drivers by clicking the Additional Drivers button. When sharing a printer, you are using TCP ports 139 and 445 and UDP ports 137 and 138.

A

Sharing tab (printer properties)

63
Q

Allows you to configure the driver to use with the printer, the priority of the printer, when the printer is available, and how print jobs are spooled.

A

Advanced tab (printer properties)

64
Q

Use the ___________ to uninstall programs or to change a program’s configuration

A

Control Panel’s Programs and Features

65
Q

The Startup tab of the Task Manager shows programs configured to automatically start when you start Windows. How to disable?

A

Right-click an item and click Disable

66
Q

*Allows you to view the current downloads and allows you to check for updates for the Windows Store apps.

A

Downloads and updates

67
Q

*The Windows Installer is a software component used for the installation, maintenance, and removal of software on Windows. The installation information for software is stored in a file in a _____________ database installation file that has an _____ filename extension. Besides performing installation, files can be used to self‐heal damaged applications and to remove an application cleanly.

A

Microsoft Software Installation (MSI) .msi

68
Q

The process of installing Windows Store applications without using the Windows Store

A

Sideloading

69
Q

Identifies an application in the Windows Store by providing a link that will take the user directly to the app in the Windows Store.

A

Deeplinking

70
Q

*A proprietary protocol that was developed by Microsoft to connect to another computer over a network connection using the same graphical interface that you would use if you were sitting in front of the physical server.

A

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

71
Q

Allows you to connect to a Remote Desktop Session Host or to a Remote Application.

A

Remote Desktop Connection (RDC)

72
Q

Allows users to access a remote computer just as if they were sitting in front of the computer.

A

Remote Desktop Services (RDS)

73
Q

*RDP TCP port

A

3389

74
Q

Two ways to access a remote computer using a MMC

A

Redirect an existing snap-in to another system
Create a custom console with snap-ins directed to other systems

75
Q

*To execute a command from the Windows 10 command prompt, you must use the

A

WinRS.exe program

76
Q

Winrs -r:

A

computer [-u:user][-p:password] command

77
Q

MMC tools and utilities are used to

A

Check computer events
Look at computer resource usage
Examine a disk’s partition

78
Q

*Is a popular snap‐in that includes several tools such as Disk Management, which is used
to configure hard disks and their partitions and Event Viewer, which allows you to view computer event information, such as program starting and stopping (including program crashes) and security problems

A

Computer Management

79
Q

Computer Management (MMC utilities)

A

Disk Management
Event Viewer
Performance Monitor

80
Q

*Compatibility tab contents

A

Run troubleshooter
Compatibility mode /dropdown for service packs
Settings bar:
*Reduced color mode
*Run in 640x480 screen resolution
*Disable display scaling on High DPI settings
*Run this program as an administrator

81
Q

Is a Windows 10 service
that enables administrators to execute commands on remote
computers using Windows PowerShell or the Windows Remote Shell
(WinRS.exe) command‐line program.

A

Windows Remote Management (WinRM)

82
Q

*By default, Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2016 can
support up to two remote sessions at once, while Windows 10 only
supports _____________

A

one remote connection.