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MED 200 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does a vaccine do

A

Introduces An Antigen Into The Body To Stimulate The Production Of Antibodies By The Immune System

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2
Q

What is an antibody

A

The immune system response to the antigen that is invading the body

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3
Q

What is an Antigen

A

Antigen is a substance that is liquid invading the body (Setting up a reaction)

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4
Q

What is acquired & adaptive immunity?

A
  1. Acquired immunity is a high degree of specificy as well as the property of memory
  2. Adaptive immunity because it can be adaptive over time, this is the third line of defence, that produce antibodies
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5
Q

What is the difference between Vaccine & Bacterin?

A

Vaccine = If The Infectious Agent Is A Virus
Bacterin = If The Product Contains Bacterial Components

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6
Q

What are the 3 types of vaccines?

A
  1. MDA= Maternally derived antibodies
  2. Killed / Inactive
  3. Attenuated (weakened)
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7
Q

What is the MDA vaccine?

A

A passive vaccine that has a large amount of immunoglobulins passed to puppies

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8
Q

In dogs & cats for the MDA vaccine when does it have the highest levels

A

Week 5 in dogs
week 6 in cats

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9
Q

What will happen if we vaccinate or give a booster too late?

A

Will give us a low DOI (duration of immunity)

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10
Q

What is a killed/ inactive vaccine

A

A Vaccine Which Contains Killed Organisms

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11
Q

Do killed/ inactivate vaccines replicate?
Route of administration of killed & # of doses?
Is it Adjuvanted?

A

No replication–> complete inactivation
Parental route and have 2 doses 3-4 weeks apart
Required adjuvant

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12
Q

What are 2 types of attenuated vaccines & what are they?

A

Modified live
- Modified Living Organisms Which Are No Longer Capable Of Causing Clinical Disease

Avirulent-live bacteria
-Rapid Onset Of Local Immunity. -No Maternal Antibody Interference

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13
Q

What type of vaccine can be given to dogs & cats 8 weeks of age or younger and how is this applied?

A

Attenuated avirulent-Live vaccine
Topical

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14
Q

What is the main issue with attenuated modified live vaccine?

A

Risk of residual virulence or reversion (left over virus in your body)

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15
Q

What vaccine is humoral cell-mediated, replicates & mucosal immunity?

A

Attenuated modified live vaccine

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16
Q

What are the 3 types of recombinant vaccines & what are they?

A
  1. Vectored
    • Genes From A Pathogen That Have Been Inserted Into An Attenuated Transport Microorganism.
  2. Gene-Deleted
    - Containing Microorganisms From Which Pathogenic Genes Have Been Removed
  3. Non Infectious Subunit
    -Contain Only Those Structural Components Necessary To Provoke A Protective Response.
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17
Q

What vaccine type contains no adjuvants and causes less reactions? ALSO A BENEFIT

A

Recombinant

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18
Q

What is a subunit type vaccine?

What is the advantage of a subunit vaccine?

A

Contains non-Disease proteins from the Pathogen’s DNA

Requires reduced Levels Of Antigen For Immune Stimulation

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19
Q

What vaccine type have antibodies created in and why?

A

Subunit vaccine and because the immune system recognizes the proteins

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20
Q

What is the advantage of Vectored vaccines?

A

induce Humoral And T-Cell Mediated Response

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21
Q

What vaccine type has the organism protein administered in the vaccine

A

Vectored vaccine

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22
Q

What vaccine type has immunizing agents may be constructed by combining multiple nucleic acids to produce a polyvalent antigen and is unique?

A

Chimeric Vaccine

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23
Q

What is needed when giving doses with toxoid vaccines ? **NEGATIVE AFFECT WITH THIS **

A

Poor DOI so Multiple doses and boosters are needed

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24
Q

What is the specific part of an antigen that the Immune System responds to and are extremely small

A

Epitopes

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25
Q

What are things that are added to the vaccine that provoke the immune system to respond to a greater degree that also produce a longer lived response?

A

Adjuvants

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26
Q

What is the name for something that contains Vaccine For More Than One Virus

A

Multivalent

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27
Q

What is the name for something that contains a vaccine for only one virus?

A

Monovalent

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28
Q

what is an Immediate Hypersensitivity Reaction That Will Usually Manifest Within 1 Hour Post Administration Of The Vaccine?

A

Anaphylaxis

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29
Q

Where should vaccines be avoided for sarcoma risk?

A

R-Shoulder Avoiding Midline As Distal As Possible = Fvrcp
L-Rear Limb As Distally As Possible = Feline Leukemia Virus
R-Rear Limb As Distally As Possible = Rabies Virus

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29
Q

What bovine disease is caused by a pestivirus of the flaviviridae Family

A

Bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)

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30
Q

This disease in cattle during the mucosal stage is infected in Utero, what disease is it & what is infected in Utero

A

BVD and accepts the toxic organism virus as part of itself, born with no defence for its next challenge with this type of virus, Lethal because it hits the calf hard, not being able to fight.

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31
Q

What kind of strain is cattle BVD and what does it do?

A

A cytopathic strain and it kills the cells

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32
Q

What are acute & peracute symptoms of cattle BVD

A

Acute = Nasal Discharge, Coughing, Depression, Anorexia, Profuse Diarrhea
Peracute= Persistent Bleeding From Injection Sites, Hemorrhages, Ulcers Of Oral Mucous Membranes, Bloody Diarrhea, rapid death

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33
Q

What cattle disease is caused by Bovine Herpesvirus 1?

A

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)

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34
Q

Where is IBR associated with the body?

A

Respiratory & Reproductive tract with inflammation of the trachea

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35
Q

What disease is it when the cow ends up having an abortion in second half of pregnancy?

A

IBR

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36
Q

What 2 major Dieases for cattle do we vaccinate for?

A

IBR & BRSV

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37
Q

What cattle disease is caused by A Pneumovirus Of The Paramyxovirus Family?

A

Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV)

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38
Q

Where is BRSV associated within the body & what does it cause?

A

Associated With Lower Respiratory Tract Infections Causing Secondary Bacterial Pneumonia being harder to treat and clear as its lower down

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39
Q

What type of bovine clostridial disease is called blackleg, conformed on post-mortem and spores are ingested while grazing into the bloodstream to the skeletal muscle?

A

Clostridium chauvoei (Clostridial Myositis)

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40
Q

what is the major issue within Bovine Rotavirus & Coronavirus?

A

Rapid fluid loss

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41
Q

Where does cattle leptospirosis originate in the body?

A

Kidneys, uterus, and udders

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42
Q

What are the 2 bovine zoonotic diseases?

A

Lepto & tuberculosis

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43
Q

What bovine disease has head pressing as a symptom, has gram-negative bacteria, and non specific?

A

Haemophilus Somnus

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44
Q

What is the typical vaccination schedule for dairy cattle?

A

Pre-breeding = 10-12 months (MLV)
40-60 days before calving (killed)
3 weeks before calving (killed)

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45
Q

What is the typical vaccination schedule for beef cattle?

A

0-6 hr (colostrum)
6 weeks (MLV)
4-6 months (strain 19)
6 months (MLV)

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46
Q

What is 2 clostridial diseases of sheep & goats?

A

Enterotoxemia & Tetanus (lock jaw)

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47
Q

What is the 3 types of Enterotoxemia in sheep & goats?

A

Type B –> Acute and fatal with 2-10 week-old lambs that’s kinda the same thing as Parvo
Type C –> Can happen due to mouldy or bad feed, 1 month out from lambing
Type D –> Sudden changes in feed, toxins produced called pulpy kidney that affects the largest and fastest growing lambs in the flock

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48
Q

When do we vaccinate for Enterotoxemia?

A

Prior to lambing @ 2-4 week intervals starting at 8 weeks old

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49
Q

When do we vaccinate for tetanus in sheep & goats?

A

Every 6 months

50
Q

When do clinical signs of tetanus show for goats & sheep?

A

Might get clinical signs 2-3 weeks or 10-12 weeks, it is hard to tell when they encountered the disease (highly variable)

51
Q

What are the clinical signs of tetanus in goats & sheep?

A

Muscular stiffness (ascending paralysis is first sign) saw-horse stance, lockjaw , prolapse of 3rd eyelid, laboured breathing.

52
Q

What is the agent for Caseous Lymphadenitis in goats & sheep?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (bacteria)

53
Q

What are clinical signs of Caseous Lymphadenitis in goats & sheep?

A

Lymph node enlargement, cheesy onion ring appearance, and abscesses may develop on internal organs and may rupture and contaminate the environment.

54
Q

What Version do goats get of the johnes disease?
What version do cattle get of the johnes disease?

A

Goats get cattle strain
Cattle get cattle, sheep, and goat strain

55
Q

When could clinical signs appear in Johnes disease?

A

up to 2 years (long prepatent period)

56
Q

What is the agent for Johnes disease?

A

Mycobacterium avium (subspecies: paratuberculosis)

57
Q

What type of disease for sheep & goats is highly zoonotic and needs to wear full PPE when lambing?

A

Q fever

58
Q

What agent is Q-fever?

A

Coxiella burnetiid (bacteria)

59
Q

How is Q-fever transmitted?

A

Infected birth fluids, ruminant placentae, Wool, milk, urine, feces, and soil so when the sheep is lambing we have to make sure full PPE is worn as it is very zoonotic

60
Q

What disease for sheep & goats have lesions appearing on the mouth, called sour mouth, and zoonotic so we need to wear gloves?

A

Contagious Ecthyma

61
Q

What is the agent for Contagious Ecthyma?

A

Parapoxvirus genus (A VIRUS)

62
Q

What disease is involved with sheep, goats & cattle that is a prion, has no treatment and is called mad cow disease?
What is a prion?

A

Scrapie
Incredible tiny deformed protein

63
Q

What type of disease is NOT zoonotic, found in the respiratory tract, can be fatal, and classified as a lentivirus?

A

Ovine progressive pneumonia

64
Q

What 2 organisms NEED to be present for foot Rot to occur in goats & sheep?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum & Dichelobacter nodosus

65
Q

What type of vaccines are the ONLY ones that are recommended on a basis for all sheep & goats?

A

Clostridium vaccines (Enterotoxemia & Tetanus)

66
Q

What do goats & sheep vaccines include?

A

Clostridium 4/7/8 way
Clostri shield
Covexin 8
Sitegard
Ultrabac

67
Q

What disease in the sheep & goats do we ONLY vaccinate for if you end up getting it in the heard?

A

Contagious Ecthyma (Orf)

68
Q

How long does it take for results to come back for foot rot diesase?

A

2 - 3 years

69
Q

What age and weight are swine normally sent to market?

A

5 - 6 months and 280 pounds

70
Q

When do swines move to a nursery to wean?
When do swine move barns to finish weaning in weight?

A

21 days
50 – 60 pounds

71
Q

What swine disease is caused by poor husbandry, Bordetella, Complicated by Pasteurella multocida, and have inflammatory process within tissues growing abnormally in the snout?
Is it viral or bacterial?

A

Atrophic Rhinitis
Bacterial

72
Q

What does Atrophic Rhinitis disease destroy & affect?

A

Nasal turbinates & growth rate and feed efficiency

73
Q

What is the early signs of atrophic rhinitis?

A

A lateral or dorsal deviation of the snout may develop. Dorsal deviation often results in a shortening of the snout or wrinkling of the skin over the Snout

74
Q

What disease in swine affects the GI tract, called baby pig scours/white scours, has diarrhea, and roughened coat?

A

E.coli

75
Q

When controlling E.coli in swine, what is the method we use? & why/who is it important?

A

All in All” out method → farrowing
Take a dormant barn, taking everyone to the new barn when the infected barn will deep clean the barn
Very important when sow about to give birth, when the birth isnt brought into the barn with the disease

76
Q

What disease type will not have the major sign of diarrhea in the herd, but swollen eyelids, neurological signs, and sudden death?

A

Colibacillosis - ED specific type of e. Coli

77
Q

Who do we vaccinate for E.coli in swines?

A

Gestating sows (pregnant), and weaned piglets

78
Q

What swine disease is caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae + Brachyspira pilosicoli, also called bloody scours, and mostly affect ages 8-16 weeks?

A

Swine Dysentery

79
Q

There are 3 methods of Swine Dysentery disease, explain the 3 methods?

A
  1. All piglets less than 3 weeks taken to a clean site and raised there
  2. Medicate with antibiotics (lincomycin), First reduce the affected herd to manageable numbers
  3. Complete depopulation, is used if the disease has become endemic in the herd, Often found in herds where biosecurity is difficult to manage and sanitation is difficult
80
Q

What swine type of Clostridial Disease has variable morbidity, high mortality in neonates or suckling pigs, and is most prevalent with 1-3 day old pigs?

A

C. perfringens type C

81
Q

What swine type of Clostridial Disease has moderate morbidity & lower mortality?

A

C. perfringens type A

82
Q

During the Clostridial Disease for swines, how can we control the diarrhea?

A

Immune antiserum which may be given within 2 hours of birth
Piglets can be protected if dams are injected with bacterin-toxoid @ 5-6 weeks prior to farrowing & 2-3 weeks prior to farrowing
feeding antibiotics with anti-clostridial activity to sows before farrowing and during lactation

83
Q

What are the 3 CORE equine vaccines?

A

Tetanus
Equine Encephalomyelitis
West Nile Vaccine
Rabies?

84
Q

What equine disease is NOT contagious from animal to animal and must come from the environment, caused by Clostridium tetani, and the symptoms are muscle rigidity, saw horse, and prolapsed nictitating membrane?

A

Tetanus

85
Q

What equine disease is caused by alphavirus the family Togaviridae, has 3 common strains, wild birds are the main host but are spread by mosquitoes and end in a dummy state?

A

Equine Encephalomyelitis

86
Q

What are the 3 different strains of Equine Encephalomyelitis & where are they located & survival rate?

A

Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (low survival rate) &North and South America
Western Equine Encephalomyelitis (70-80% survival rate) & Western US
Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis (90% death rate) & Central & South America, Mexico

87
Q

What does the Equine Encephalomyelitis vaccine for in regards to strains?

A

Only for EEE and WEE

88
Q

What is the incubation time for Equine Encephalomyelitis?

A

1 -3 weeks

89
Q

What disease in the equines affects the CNS, inability to swallow, lip droop, limb paralysis, has sweat edge (hypersensitive to bites), is controlled by mosquito population and has no drug available but can be supported on IV fluids and NSAIDS?

A

West Nile Encephalitis

90
Q

What Equine disease comes from Orthomyxoviridae, has 2 stereotypes, is highly contagious survives 24-36 hrs, and always plays catch up with strains every year?

A

Equine Influenza

91
Q

What are the 2 strains of Equine Influenza?

A

influenza A -equi 1 and equi 2
H7N7 and H3N8

92
Q

What disease in the equines has 5 strains but we only vaccinate for 2, very contagious and called Equine rhinopneumonitis?

A

Equine Herpes Virus

93
Q

What strain do we vaccinate for with herpes virus, and what strains do not cause any significant damage?

A

vaccinate for 1 & 4
2 & 5 don’t do damage (its like parainfluenza in dogs)

94
Q

Strains of equine herpes other then 2 & 5 cause what in the animals?

A

external genital exanthema skin condition

95
Q

What Strain of equine herpes has incoordination, paralysis, loss of tail and bladder function?

A

EVH-1

96
Q

What equine NON- CORE disease is caused by streptococcus Equi, is extremely contagious, affects respiratory and should be isolated?

A

Strangles

97
Q

What are the 3 major clinical signs for equine strangles?

A
  1. Sudden onset fever
  2. Upper respiratory catarrh (build up of mucus)
  3. Acute swelling & abscess in submaxillary , submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes
98
Q

Where is the bacteria found in equine herpes and what is the treatment?

A

guttural pouch of carrier animals
supportive care, hot packs, lance the lesion, antibiotics

99
Q

What equine disease is NON-CORE, called Equine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis, has watery projectile diarrhea and invades monocytes in the bloodstream?

A

Potomac Horse Fever

100
Q

What equine disease is a NON-CORE, called Epizootic cellulitis or Pinkeye, very hard to detect and caused by an RNA virus?

A

Equine Viral Arteritis

101
Q

when does exposure of Equine Viral Arteritis lead to the blood stream?

A

within 48 hours, it will be in various tissues but in stallions, the virus will not detect beyond 28 days post-challenge

102
Q

There are 2 types of Equine Viral Arteritis, What are the 2 types and how have they differentiated apart from causing abortions?

A

EVA (Fetus is usually partly autolyzed with no lesions)
EHV (Premonitory signs & Fresh fetus but has gross lesions)

103
Q

What equine disease is called swamp fever, caused by a retrovirus, transmitted by a mosquito or large biting flies, and must be reported?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

104
Q

What happens if you have a positive case of Equine Infectious Anemia?

A

Everyone is quarantined for min 60 days and tested with a Coggins test and carriers for life if positive

105
Q

What is the major sign that a swine has lecptospiros?

A

abortion 2-4 weeks before the term

106
Q

If a swine has PPV (porcine parvovirus) what is a sign of it if the sow gets infected within the first 70 days of gestation?

A

Mummification of fetuses

107
Q

For trophic rhinitis who do we vaccinate swine?

A

Piglets @ 7-10 days
Gilts & boars for replacement
Sows for breeding

108
Q

For Mycoplasma who do we vaccinate swine?

A

Piglets @ 7-10 days
Sows for breeding

109
Q

For Erysipelas who do we vaccinate swine?

A

before & after weaning
gilts & boars
Sows

110
Q

For Pleurophenumonia who do we vaccinate swine?

A

Weanlings

111
Q

For Lepto who do we vaccinate swine?

A

Gilts & boars for replacement
Sows & board for breeding

112
Q

For parvo who do we vaccinate in swine?

A

Gilts for replacement

113
Q

For Gastroenteritis who do we vaccinate in swine?

A

Gilts for replacement
Sows for breeding

114
Q

For Glasser’s disease who do we vaccinate in swine?

A

Weanlings

115
Q

What are the zoonotic diseases for equines?

A

West nile
Lepto
Brucellosis

116
Q

What are the zoonotic diseases for sheep & goats?

A

Qfever

117
Q

What are the zoonotic diseases for Swine?

A

Lepto
Erysipelas

118
Q

What are the 2 organisms involved with shipping fever?

A

haemolytica & Pasteurella

119
Q

Where can we administer vaccines for ORF?

A

Ear & elbow (less wool spots)

120
Q

Why do we vaccinate dogs & cats between 6-9 weeks? & what happens to immunity levels with each subsequent vaccination in the animal?

A

This is approximate age that passive immunity from mother begins to decline to almost 0 and youngs are susceptible at this time
The young animal becomes more immune competent, they can respond with increasing effectiveness to each subsequent vaccine. But if you vaccinate too early there is competition between the maternal passive antibodies and the ones induced by the vaccination – this results in a poor response to vaccine.
Each subsequent booster vaccine the starting point is higher, the young animal ends up with a protective level of antibodies for each respective vaccine given.

121
Q

What do inactive & attenuated have in regards to cellular, mucosal, and humoral immuinty?

A

attenuated has all 3
Inactive only has a little cellular or mucosal activity

122
Q

What is the primary cause of ketosis?

A

1.very common in sheep because they often carry twins
2.ewe unable to eat enough food to meet energy demands, becomes worse towards the end of
pregnancy when the feti are big
3. ewe metabolizes her own fat stores for energy – the result of this process is the production of ketones
4. ketones cause the ewe to become anorexic depressed weak and ultimately unable to stand , death can
occur very quickly, within 10 days.

123
Q

What is the primary cause of milk fever?

A
  1. 98% of calcium is stored in the skeleton, the cow needs to utilize this calcium shortly before or at
    calving because the calcium in the blood stream has been utilized in the production of both colostrum
    and milk
  2. Replenishing the calcium from the calcium stored in the skeleton cannot be achieved as quickly as the
    calcium has been depleted in the bloodstream, this results in clinical signs of a hypocalcemia; it is important that cows have adequate levels of vitamin D3 as this vitamin facilitates calcium absorption

MED 200 (1 decks)

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