test Flashcards

1
Q

Question:
Compare static and dynamic routing, and explain when to use each.

Answer Choices:
- Dynamic routing updates routes automatically and is suited for larger, changing networks.
- Static routing requires manual configuration and is ideal for small, stable networks.
- Static routing scales efficiently for large networks, reducing administrative overhead.
- Dynamic routing eliminates the need for manual configuration entirely.
.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Static routing is manually configured and works best for small, stable networks, while dynamic routing adjusts routes automatically, making it better for large and changing networks.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Static routing scales well in large environments and reduces network overhead” is incorrect because static routing becomes difficult to manage in large networks.
- “Dynamic routing eliminates all administrative overhead and does not require configuration” is incorrect since dynamic routing still requires protocol selection and tuning.

Practical Use: Small businesses often use static routing to maintain simple, stable network connections, while enterprises use dynamic routing for scalability and efficiency.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What are some common dynamic routing protocols and their primary differences?

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2
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describe the differences between BGP, OSPF, and EIGRP?

BGP is an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) used for enterprise routing.
OSPF uses a link-state algorithm to calculate the best path based on cost.
EIGRP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that uses the DUAL algorithm.
BGP prefers routes with the shortest AS path when making routing decisions.
🔹 Select the correct answer(s):
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, and 4

A

Back (Explanation + Details)
✅ Correct Answer: C) 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:
(❌) Statement 1: Incorrect. BGP is an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) used for routing between autonomous systems, not within them.
(✔) Statement 2: Correct. OSPF is a link-state protocol that calculates the best path based on cost (bandwidth-based metric) using the Dijkstra’s Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm.
(✔) Statement 3: Correct. EIGRP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that uses the DUAL (Diffusing Update Algorithm) to find the best route and maintain backup routes for quick convergence.
(✔) Statement 4: Correct. BGP is a path-vector protocol that makes routing decisions based on AS Path Length, preferring the shortest path between autonomous systems.
Practical Use Case:
BGP is used by ISPs and large enterprises to route traffic across the internet.
OSPF is best for enterprise networks that need fast and efficient routing within an autonomous system.
EIGRP is Cisco-exclusive, ideal for fast convergence and simplified routing in Cisco environments.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect:
A) 1 and 3: Incorrect because BGP is an EGP, not an IGP.
B) 2 and 4: Missing EIGRP’s DUAL algorithm as an important factor.
D) 1, 2, and 4: Incorrect because BGP is not an IGP.
Exam Objective Reference:
📌 CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) - Domain 1.4: Compare and contrast different routing protocols (BGP, OSPF, EIGRP, RIP).

🔹 Follow-Up Question:
What is the primary difference between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols?

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3
Q

Question:
Describe how Network Address Translation (NAT) and Port Address Translation (PAT) operate and their impact on IP addressing.

Answer Choices:
- PAT enables multiple internal devices to share a single public IP using port numbers.
- NAT provides a one-to-one mapping of private IP addresses to public IP addresses, facilitating internet access.
- NAT removes the necessity for IPv6 deployment by addressing IP exhaustion.
- NAT provides private-to-public IP address mapping, enabling internal hosts to access external networks.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) allows private IP addresses to be mapped to a public IP for internet access, while Port Address Translation (PAT) extends this by enabling multiple devices to share a single public IP using different port numbers.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “NAT provides an unlimited number of public IP addresses for private networks” is incorrect because NAT does not create public IP addresses but maps private ones.
- “PAT is unnecessary when IPv6 is implemented in a network” is misleading because even IPv6 can use address translation techniques.

Practical Use: Businesses use PAT to allow many internal users to access the internet with a single public IP, reducing the need for additional public addresses.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What are the limitations of NAT and PAT in modern networking environments?

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4
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describe the differences between HSRP and VRRP in network redundancy?

HSRP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol, whereas VRRP is an open standard.
VRRP preemption is disabled by default, while HSRP preemption is enabled by default.
HSRP supports authentication, while VRRP does not.
VRRP uses the multicast address 224.0.0.2, whereas HSRP uses 224.0.0.18.
🔹 Select the correct answer(s):
1, 3, and 4
2 and 4
1 and 3
1, 2, and 3

A

Correct Answer: 1 and 3

Explanation:
(✔) Statement 1: Correct. HSRP is Cisco proprietary, while VRRP is an open standard defined by IETF RFC 5798.
(❌) Statement 2: Incorrect. VRRP preemption is enabled by default, meaning a higher-priority router automatically takes over when it comes online, while HSRP preemption is disabled by default and must be manually enabled.
(✔) Statement 3: Correct. HSRP supports MD5 authentication (HSRPv2), whereas VRRP does not (authentication was deprecated in RFC 5798).
(❌) Statement 4: Incorrect. VRRP uses multicast address 224.0.0.18, while HSRP uses 224.0.0.2 (v1) or 224.0.0.102 (v2).
Practical Use Case:
If you are working in a Cisco-only network, HSRP is preferred for native support and authentication.
If you need a vendor-neutral solution, VRRP is better suited for interoperability across different network devices.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect:
B) 2 and 4: VRRP preemption is enabled by default (false statement), and VRRP uses 224.0.0.18, not 224.0.0.2 (false statement).
C) 1, 3, and 4: Includes the incorrect multicast address statement from option 4.
D) 1, 2, and 3: Includes the incorrect statement that VRRP preemption is disabled by default (it’s actually enabled).
Exam Objective Reference:
📌 CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) - Domain 1.3: Explain the purpose of first hop redundancy protocols (HSRP, VRRP, GLBP).

🔹 Follow-Up Question:
What advantage does GLBP have over HSRP and VRRP in network redundancy?

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5
Q

How does route summarization improve the efficiency of a routing table?

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Route summarization aggregates multiple IP subnets into a single route entry, reducing the number of routes stored and processed by routers, which optimizes efficiency.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Eliminates the need for dynamic routing protocols in large-scale networks” is incorrect because dynamic protocols are still needed for route exchange and failover handling.

Practical Use: ISPs use route summarization to advertise a single summarized prefix instead of multiple specific network routes, reducing BGP table size.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What are the potential drawbacks of excessive route summarization in a network?

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6
Q

Question:
Describe advantages and disadvantages of implementing default routes (0.0.0.0/0) in network routing.

Answer Choices:
- Eliminates the need for static or dynamic routing protocols in enterprise networks.
- Simplifies configuration in small networks but may cause inefficiencies in large-scale deployments.
- Allows unintended traffic forwarding, posing potential security risks if misconfigured.
- Simplifies router configurations by reducing route entries, especially in smaller networks.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: A default route simplifies network management by reducing routing table size and directing all unknown traffic to a specific route. However, improper configuration can cause inefficiencies and introduce security risks.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Eliminates the need for static or dynamic routing protocols in enterprise networks” is incorrect because default routes are typically used alongside other routing methods.

Practical Use: Branch offices typically use a default route to forward external traffic to central routers, reducing management complexity.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How can default routes be secured to prevent unintended traffic forwarding?

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7
Q

Question:
How does route summarization (route aggregation) improve network efficiency?

Answer Choices:
- Reduces the number of routes that routers must process and store.
- Eliminates the need for dynamic routing protocols in large-scale networks.
- Minimizes network congestion by limiting unnecessary route advertisements.
- Allows multiple routes to be combined into a single summarized route advertisement.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Route summarization combines multiple subnet routes into a single route entry, decreasing routing table complexity and processing overhead.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Eliminates the need for dynamic routing protocols in large-scale networks” is incorrect as dynamic protocols still handle route changes and redundancy.

Practical Use: ISPs use summarization to reduce the BGP routing table size, optimizing network performance.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What are the potential drawbacks of excessive route summarization in a network?

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8
Q

Question:
Which of the following statements correctly describe features or impacts of Equal-Cost Multi-Path (ECMP) routing? (Select THREE.)

Improves network bandwidth utilization.
Requires routers to discard duplicate paths, leading to inefficiency.
Allows multiple equal-cost paths for simultaneous data transmission.
Balances traffic load evenly across multiple routes.

A

Correct Answers:

Allows multiple physical links for simultaneous data transmission.
Balances traffic load evenly across multiple routes.
Improves network bandwidth utilization.
Explanation:
ECMP (Equal-Cost Multi-Path) routing allows simultaneous use of multiple paths of equal cost, distributing traffic evenly, thus enhancing bandwidth utilization and performance.

Why the Other Answer is Incorrect:

Requires routers to discard duplicate paths, leading to inefficiency: Incorrect, as ECMP specifically utilizes multiple paths rather than discarding them, increasing efficiency rather than reducing it.
Exam Objective Reference:
N10-009, Objective 1.3: Explain concepts and characteristics of routing and switching.

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9
Q

Question:
Describe the differences between VLANs and trunking, including their features and impacts on network management.

Answer Choices:
- Trunking completely eliminates the need for VLAN management.
- VLANs logically separate networks but can introduce risks like VLAN hopping.
- VLANs logically separate networks into distinct broadcast domains.
- Trunking enables multiple VLANs to share traffic across a single physical connection using tagging.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: VLANs segment broadcast domains, enhancing traffic management and security, while Trunking (802.1Q) allows multiple VLANs over one link, reducing physical port usage.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Trunking completely eliminates the need for VLAN management” is incorrect as trunking simplifies management but does not eliminate it entirely.

Practical Use: Enterprises utilize VLANs for departmental separation and use trunking to efficiently manage VLAN traffic across switches.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How does VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) aid in VLAN configuration management?

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10
Q

Question:
What are two benefits of Link Aggregation?

Enhances redundancy by providing failover capability if one link fails.
Allows multiple physical links to be bundled into a single logical connection to increase bandwidth.
Allows switches to operate without Spanning Tree Protocol (STP).
Provides redundancy by eliminating all single points of network failure.

A

Correct Answers:

Allows multiple physical links to be bundled into a single logical connection to increase bandwidth.
Enhances redundancy by providing failover capability if one link fails.
Explanation:
Link Aggregation bundles several physical links into one logical link, improving bandwidth and offering redundancy through failover capability. If one link fails, traffic seamlessly continues over remaining links.

Practical Use:
Used in environments requiring higher bandwidth and network reliability, such as connecting multiple switches or servers in data centers.

Why Others Are Incorrect:

Allows switches to operate without STP: Incorrect because Link Aggregation complements but does not replace STP.
Eliminating all single points of failure: Incorrect because Link Aggregation only addresses redundancy of specific aggregated links, not all network components.
Exam Objective Reference:
N10-009, 1.3: Explain routing concepts and characteristics.

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11
Q

Question:
Describe how Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops and maintains network stability.

Answer Choices:
- Automatically reactivates blocked paths if the primary active path fails.
- Detects loops and blocks redundant paths to maintain a loop-free topology.
- Permanently disables all redundant paths to simplify network design.
- Uses loops to enhance network reliability and redundancy.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: STP prevents network loops by blocking redundant paths and reactivating them automatically if the active link fails.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Eliminates redundancy permanently” is incorrect; STP temporarily blocks redundant paths to avoid loops, activating them if needed.

Practical Use: STP ensures network stability and loop prevention in environments with redundant physical connections.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How does Rapid STP (RSTP) improve upon traditional STP?

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12
Q

Question: Explain how Jumbo Frames impact network performance and when to use them.
Answer Choices:
- Increase efficiency by reducing the number of packets required for large data transfers.
- Improve performance in high-speed networks but may cause compatibility issues with some devices.
- Force all packets in a network to be larger, leading to potential inefficiencies.
- Automatically compatible with all networking devices without additional configuration.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Jumbo Frames improve efficiency by reducing overhead for large data transfers, but compatibility with devices must be ensured to prevent issues.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Eliminates the need for configuration” is incorrect as Jumbo Frames must be specifically enabled and configured.

Practical Use: Data centers often use Jumbo Frames to maximize throughput during large data transfers.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What precautions should network administrators take before deploying Jumbo Frames?

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13
Q

Question: What are the security concerns of VLAN hopping?
Answer Choices:
- VLANs segment broadcast domains within a switch for improved efficiency.
- Trunking (802.1Q) allows multiple VLANs to traverse a single network link.
- VLAN hopping exploits weak VLAN configurations to gain unauthorized access.
- VLAN hopping is prevented entirely by using VLANs.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: VLAN hopping exploits weak VLAN or trunking configurations to access unauthorized VLAN traffic. Mitigation involves proper trunk configurations, disabling DTP, and explicitly defining allowed VLANs.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “VLAN hopping is prevented entirely by using VLANs” is incorrect because VLAN hopping specifically targets VLAN misconfigurations.

Practical Use: Network administrators must manually configure trunk ports and disable dynamic protocols like DTP to secure VLANs.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What additional security measures can secure VLAN configurations against VLAN hopping attacks?

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14
Q

Question: How do port security features help mitigate unauthorized access in a switched network?
Answer Choices:
- Restricts the number of MAC addresses allowed on a port.
- Drops packets from unknown devices if the MAC address limit is exceeded.
- Allows unlimited dynamic MAC addresses for easy network expansion.
- Prevents rogue devices by binding specific MAC addresses to switch ports.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Port security mitigates unauthorized access by restricting MAC addresses on switch ports and dropping traffic from unauthorized addresses beyond set limits.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Allows unlimited dynamic MAC address learning” is incorrect; port security specifically limits MAC address learning.

Practical Use: Organizations implement port security to prevent unauthorized or rogue devices from accessing sensitive network resources.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How can port security configurations prevent MAC address spoofing attacks?

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15
Q

Question: How do Private VLANs (PVLANs) enhance network security?
Answer Choices:
- Isolate devices within the same VLAN to improve security.
- Require routing through Layer 3 devices for internal VLAN communication.
- Allow unrestricted traffic flow between VLANs.
- Automatically configure all connected devices for optimal security.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Private VLANs enhance security by isolating hosts within the same VLAN segment, preventing direct communication without proper routing or configuration.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Require routing through Layer 3 devices for internal VLAN communication” is incorrect as PVLANs primarily use Layer 2 controls for isolation, not routing.

Practical Use: Hotels, data centers, and shared environments deploy PVLANs to isolate customer systems from each other while allowing controlled communication.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What scenarios are best suited for Private VLAN deployment in enterprise networks?

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16
Q

Question: Compare Wi-Fi standards (802.11 a/b/g/n/ac/ax) and their differences in speed, range, and frequency.
Answer Choices:
- 802.11a operates at 5 GHz, offering high speeds but shorter range.
- 802.11b provides longer range at lower speeds using 2.4 GHz frequency.
- 802.11ac and 802.11ax provide high speeds and efficient handling of multiple devices.
- 802.11g is the fastest Wi-Fi standard available today.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Wi-Fi standards differ significantly in speed, range, and frequency. Newer standards (802.11ac/ax) significantly improve bandwidth, efficiency, and multi-device management.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “802.11g is the fastest Wi-Fi standard” is incorrect; newer standards like 802.11ax have much greater speed.

Practical Use: Enterprises deploy 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) in dense environments to support multiple high-speed connections efficiently.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How does MU-MIMO technology in 802.11ax enhance wireless network performance?

17
Q

Question: Explain the importance of wireless channels, SSIDs, and how to avoid interference.
Answer Choices:
- Using 5 GHz channels reduces congestion in high-density environments.
- Proper SSID configuration prevents unauthorized access.
- Overlapping channels in 2.4 GHz improve coverage and network performance.
- SSIDs do not impact network performance or security.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Wireless channel management, especially using 5 GHz frequencies, reduces interference. Proper SSID configuration ensures network security and accessibility.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Overlapping channels in 2.4 GHz improve performance” is incorrect because overlapping causes interference, reducing performance.

Practical Use: Administrators optimize channel selection and SSID settings in high-density environments to maximize wireless network performance.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How does channel bonding impact network performance and interference?

18
Q

Question: Differentiate between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security.
Answer Choices:
- WPA3 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to enhance security.
- WPA2 provides better security than WPA3 in enterprise environments.
- WPA2 is vulnerable to brute-force dictionary attacks with weak passwords.
- WPA3 entirely eliminates the need for passwords.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: WPA3 enhances security using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), improving resistance to brute-force attacks compared to WPA2.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “WPA2 provides better security than WPA3 in enterprise environments” is incorrect, as WPA3 is an upgrade designed specifically to enhance security over WPA2.

Practical Use: Enterprises transition to WPA3 to strengthen security against brute-force and dictionary attacks.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What is Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE), and how does it enhance security on open networks?

19
Q

Question: What are the security risks of open Wi-Fi networks, and how can they be mitigated?
Answer Choices:
- Open Wi-Fi networks allow attackers to intercept unencrypted traffic.
- VPNs and HTTPS usage can mitigate risks of open Wi-Fi networks.
- Open Wi-Fi networks with strong passwords are just as secure as encrypted networks.
- Open Wi-Fi networks are inherently secure due to unrestricted access.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Open Wi-Fi networks pose security risks by allowing attackers to intercept unencrypted traffic. Mitigation methods include VPN use and ensuring secure (HTTPS) traffic.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Open Wi-Fi networks are just as secure as encrypted networks if a strong password is used” is incorrect as open networks inherently lack encryption.

Practical Use: Public Wi-Fi hotspots should employ VPN solutions or encrypted protocols (HTTPS) to protect users.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How does Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) improve security on open Wi-Fi networks?

20
Q

Question: How does band steering improve wireless network efficiency?
Answer Choices:
- Reduces congestion on the 2.4 GHz band by evenly distributing traffic.
- Directs dual-band capable devices to the less crowded 5 GHz band.
- Automatically disconnects older devices to prioritize new devices.
- Requires all devices to exclusively use the 5 GHz band.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Band steering directs dual-band capable devices to the less congested 5 GHz band, improving network efficiency by reducing interference and congestion.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Automatically disconnects older devices” is incorrect; devices are redirected, not disconnected.

Practical Use: High-density locations like corporate offices or campuses use band steering to optimize wireless performance.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What considerations must be taken when implementing band steering in mixed device environments?

21
Q

Question: What is Beamforming, and how does it enhance Wi-Fi performance?
Answer Choices:
- Improves Wi-Fi by directing signals specifically toward connected devices.
- Eliminates the need for multiple antennas.
- Reduces interference by limiting signal dispersion beyond connected devices.
- Forces all devices to connect at higher frequencies only.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Beamforming directs Wi-Fi signals toward connected devices, enhancing signal quality, range, and throughput.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Eliminates multiple antennas” is incorrect; multiple antennas often facilitate beamforming.

Practical Use: Enterprises utilize beamforming in large areas to strengthen signals to specific devices, improving speed and reliability.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: How does Beamforming differ between 802.11ac and 802.11ax standards?

22
Q

Question: Explain the differences between MDF (Main Distribution Frame) and IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame).
Answer Choices:
- MDF serves as the central hub; IDFs extend connectivity.
- IDFs eliminate structured cabling entirely.
- MDF connects directly to end-user devices without IDFs.
- IDFs rely exclusively on wireless communication.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: MDF acts as a central network connection hub; IDFs distribute connections further, reducing cable complexity and improving management.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “IDFs eliminate structured cabling entirely” is incorrect as structured cabling remains integral.

Practical Use: Large campuses or office buildings use MDF and IDF arrangements to simplify cabling and improve network maintenance.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What considerations affect the optimal placement of IDFs in a building?

23
Q

Question: How do patch panels and fiber distribution panels improve network management?
Answer Choices:
- Patch panels centralize cable management and simplify network troubleshooting.
- Fiber distribution panels provide termination points for fiber optic cables.
- Patch panels remove the need for switches in network designs.
- Fiber panels are only needed for environments exclusively using copper.

A

Correct Answer & Explanation: Patch panels organize and centralize cables, simplifying management and troubleshooting. Fiber distribution panels provide secure termination points for fiber optics, easing scalability and maintenance.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
- “Patch panels eliminate switches” is incorrect because they are intermediary points, not replacements for switches.

Practical Use: Network administrators rely on patch and fiber panels to streamline cable management, troubleshooting, and network scalability.

Exam Objective Reference: 1.4 Network Implementation

Follow-Up Question: What troubleshooting advantages do patch panels provide to network administrators?