Test Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following does the heredity approach state?

A

An individual’s personality is determined by molecular structure of genes

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding perception?

A

Our perception of reality can be different from the objective reality

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3
Q

Which of the following is an example of internally caused behavior? (

A

An employee was fired from work because he violated a company policy

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4
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others?

A

fundamental attribution error

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5
Q

You are more likely to notice a car like your own due to ______

A

selective perception

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6
Q

Rose needs to give a presentation to the board of directors of her organization next week. She knows that her presentation will play an important role in her performance appraisal in the next quarter. However, she knows that two of her colleagues, John and Keith, will also be giving a presentation on the same issue. She is nervous because she believes that men have a better flair for giving presentations. Rose’s perception of John and Keith is most likely characterized by ____

A

stereotyping

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7
Q

A process of making decisions by constructing simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity is known as ________

A

bounded rationality

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8
Q

________ bias refers to the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is easily accessible.

A

Availability

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9
Q

________ refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it’s wrong.

A

Escalation of commitment

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10
Q

According to the concept of ________, decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for the greatest number

A

utilitarianism

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11
Q

Individuals who report unethical practices by their employer to outsiders are known as _____

A

whistle-blowers

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12
Q

Johanna Reid, a campaign manager at a child rights organization, recently started working on an illiteracy project. During the project, she needs to motivate team members to attain their project milestones and direct them through different phases of the project. Which of the following kinds of functions will these tasks be covered under? (

A

leading

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13
Q
Regina George works as a campaign manager in a not-for-profit organization in Hampshire. For the upcoming campaign against genetic engineering, she is networking with managers who are working on the issue of food safety. Through her network of contacts, she strives to gain information about the stakeholders in the food industry and other lobby groups. Which of the following roles is George most likely to be playing according to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles? 
)	figurehead
b)	leader
c)	liaison
d)	entrepreneur
e)	resource allocator
A

C liason

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14
Q

The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both individually and in groups, may be defined as ________.(page 8)

a) human skills
b) technical skills
c) conceptual skills
d) cognitive skills
e) analytical skills

A

A human skills

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15
Q

According to Fred Luthans and his associates, managers involved in traditional management activities undertook which of the following tasks? (pages 9-10)

a) motivating
b) socializing
c) decision making
d) training
e) politicking

A

C decision making

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16
Q

According to Fred Luthans and his associates’ study of 450 managers, ________ made the largest contribution to the success of managers in terms of speed of promotion within their organization. (pages 9-10)

a) networking
b) decision making
c) planning
d) controlling
e) staffing

A

Networking

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17
Q

Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and work teams? (pages 313-14)

a) Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work teams are used by lower-level workers.
b) Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of the external environment, while work teams are exclusively used for departmental problems and issues.
c) Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while work teams use employees who have random and varied skills.
d) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function.
e) Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while work groups generate a positive synergy within the organization.

A

d) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function.

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18
Q

Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and work teams? (pages 313-14)

a) Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work teams are used by lower-level workers.
b) Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of the external environment, while work teams are exclusively used for departmental problems and issues.
c) Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while work teams use employees who have random and varied skills.
d) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function.
e) Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while work groups generate a positive synergy within the organization.

A

d) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function.

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams? (pages 315-16)

a) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees.
b) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well.
c) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction.
d) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other.
e) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance.

A

In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance

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20
Q

) Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams? (pages 319-29)

a) team efficacy
b) company reputation
c) adequate resources
d) member flexibility
e) leadership and structure

A

) company reputation

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21
Q

Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each other’s backs after the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other members’ work and looking for mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is lacking in Araceli’s team?

a) adequate resources
b) climate of trust
c) team structure
d) performance evaluations
e) leadership

A

climate of trust

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22
Q

) People scoring high on ________ are valuable in teams because they’re good at backing up fellow team members and at sensing when their support is truly needed. (pages 321-26)

a) conscientiousness
b) positivity
c) emotional stability
d) agreeableness
e) openness to experience

A

) conscientiousness

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23
Q

) Which of the following statements is true regarding size of teams? (pages 324-26)

a) The most effective teams have twelve to fifteen members.
b) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines.
c) As team size increases, social loafing decreases.
d) When teams have excess members, mutual accountability increases.
e) Members of large teams coordinate work better when pressed for time.

A

) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines.

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24
Q

) Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy? (pages 326-27)

a) providing vast and generic goals
b) helping the team achieve small successes
c) creating a team such that it has diverse members
d) ensuring that team goals are substantially difficult
e) reducing the number of members on a team drastically

A

) helping the team achieve small successes

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25
Q

) With a deadline approaching, all seven members of Sharon’s product development team were working round-the-clock and still the work was not completed in time. After the project was completed, Sharon spoke individually with the members to determine the cause for this delay. Many members complained saying the work given to them was not in accordance with their roles, some were unclear about which team member to approach when faced with a problem, and many underestimated the time and effort the project demanded. This team is characterized by ________. (pages 326-29)

a) a clear role allocation for all team members
b) dissimilar mental models
c) high degree of role clarity
d) excessively large team size
e) a strong climate of trust

A

b) dissimilar mental models

26
Q

9) Which of the following must be avoided if one wants to create and maintain an effective team? (pages 326-29)
a) task conflicts
b) reflexivity
c) specific goals
d) relationship conflicts
e) congruent mental models

A

d) relationship conflicts

27
Q

10) Work should be performed by an individual if ________. (pages 331-32)
a) the work is complex and requires different perspectives
b) the work creates a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals
c) the work is simple and does not require diverse input
d) several tasks that are interdependent are to be performed for completing the work
e) performing the work requires learning a new technology or understanding a new system

A

c) the work is simple and does not require diverse input

28
Q
  1. Trait theories of leadership focus on ________. (pages 383-84)
    a) the special relationship that leaders establish with a small group of their followers
    b) the personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from non-leaders
    c) the way the leader makes decisions
    d) the extent to which followers are willing and able to accomplish a specific task
    e) the match between the leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control
A

b) the personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from non-leaders

29
Q
  1. Which of the following Big Five personality traits has been identified as the most important trait in effective leaders? (pages 383-84)
    a) conscientiousness
    b) openness
    c) extraversion
    d) agreeableness
    e) emotional stability
A

c) extraversion

30
Q
  1. Which of the following Big Five personality traits has been identified as the most important trait in effective leaders? (pages 383-84)
    a) conscientiousness
    b) openness
    c) extraversion
    d) agreeableness
    e) emotional stability
A

c) extraversion

31
Q
  1. Adrian Atwood, a senior manager at MNC, spends a lot of his time assigning group members to particular tasks and scheduling their work such that deadlines are achievable. Adrian also sets high expectations for standards of performance, and holds regular meetings to ensure that productivity and quality are up to the mark. In the light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Adrian, as a leader, is ________.(pages 385-86)
    a) low in task orientation
    b) high in consideration
    c) relationship oriented
    d) employee oriented
    e) high in initiating structure
A

e) high in initiating structure

32
Q
  1. Maurice Harper is a friendly and warm manager who starts her day at work by personally greeting her colleagues and subordinates. Maurice is often seen listening sincerely to employees’ concerns and problems. She takes the initiative to hold programs to renew and improve the skills of current employees. Most of her employees know that she is accessible for help and information at all times. Maurice is a(n) ________ leader. (pages 385-86)
    a) achievement-oriented
    b) transaction-oriented
    c) employee-oriented
    d) production-oriented
    e) task-oriented
A

c) employee-oriented

33
Q
  1. Contingency theories focus on the ________ that impact leadership success.(page 387)
    a) personality variables
    b) leader’s abilities to inspire and transform followers
    c) situational variables
    d) values and ethics
    e) features of the followers
A

c) situational variables

34
Q
  1. Which of the following theoretical approaches in the study of leadership focuses on followers’ readiness as a determinant of effective leadership? (pages 387-89)
    a) Big Five personality model
    b) behavioral theories
    c) Fiedler contingency model
    d) laissez-faire leadership
    e) situational leadership theory
A

e) situational leadership theory

35
Q
  1. Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors? (pages 391-94)
    a) situational leadership theory
    b) path-goal leadership theory
    c) transactional leadership theory
    d) behavioral leadership theory
    e) charismatic leadership theory
A

e) charismatic leadership theory

36
Q
  1. Transformational leaders enhance performance of employees by ________. (pages 394-99)
    a) restricting creativity among employees
    b) focusing on short-term goals for employees
    c) building consensus among employees
    d) establishing goals, roles, and requirements
    e) abdicating all responsibility to employees
A

c) building consensus among employees

37
Q
  1. The primary quality produced by authentic leadership is ________. (pages 399-405)
    a) efficiency
    b) reinforcement
    c) supervision
    d) trust
    e) authority
A

d) trust

38
Q
  1. The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation’s economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government’s second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. Which of the following theoretical approaches is reflected here? (pages 406-07)
    a) trait theories
    b) behavioral theories
    c) path-goal theory
    d) servant leadership perspective
    e) attribution theory
A

e) attribution theory

39
Q

1) Which of the following is true with regard to leadership? (Pages 423-24)
a) It maximizes the importance of lateral and upward influence patterns.
b) It eliminates the requirement of goal compatibility.
c) It stimulates research in the area of tactics of influence.
d) It focuses on downward influence on followers.
e) It encourages dependence of followers on leaders.

A

d) It focuses on downward influence on followers

40
Q

2) As a regional sales officer, one of Brandon’s job responsibilities is to process the yearly appraisal forms of his subordinates and provide them with increments, bonuses, or benefits based on their performance that year. This job responsibility directly reflects his ________. (pages 424-25)
a) active power
b) expert power
c) referent power
d) reward power
e) coercive power

A

D reward power

41
Q

3) Dependence would be low when ________. (pages 426-28)
a) the goods have very few suppliers
b) the goods have low accessibility
c) the goods in question are scarce
d) the products are important
e) the goods have substitutes

A

E the goods have substitutes

42
Q

4) Which of the following power tactics uses warnings and threats and is typically the least effective of all the power tactics? (pages 428-30)
a) coalitions
b) exchange
c) pressure
d) rational persuasion
e) consultation

A

C pressure

43
Q

5) ________ is the only tactic effective across organizational levels. (pages 428-29)
a) Legitimacy
b) Inspirational appeal
c) Rational persuasion
d) Ingratiation
e) Pressure

A

c) Rational persuasion

44
Q

6) To avoid politicking during performance evaluations, an organization should ________. (pages 434-35)
a) create role ambiguity
b) use democratic decision making
c) use a single outcome measure
d) use objective criteria
e) allow a significant lapse

A

D objective criteria

45
Q

7) Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed ________. (pages 439-40)
a) repressive behaviors
b) defensive behaviors
c) submissive behaviors
d) impression management behaviors
e) proactive behaviors

A

b) defensive behaviors

46
Q
  1. According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance. (watch the 17th Edition Supplemental Video; it’s in Course Tips, you can also ask for it at ob@wgu.edu)
    a) formal
    b) informal
    c) functional
    d) evaluative
    e) reactive
A

C functional

47
Q
  1. For process conflict to be productive, it must be ________. (pages 459-61, also check that 17th Edition Supplemental Video)
    a) kept high
    b) kept low
    c) kept at moderate-to-high levels
    d) kept at moderate levels
    e) subject to managerial control
A

B kept low

48
Q
  1. The ________ view of conflict focuses on productive resolution of conflicts. (watch the 17th Edition Supplemental Video; it’s in Course Tips, you can also ask for it at ob@wgu.edu)
    a) interactionist
    b) transactional
    c) managed
    d) rational
    e) traditional
A

C managed

49
Q
  1. Stage II of the conflict process deals with the conflict being ________. (page 464)
    a) perceived and felt
    b) apparent and experienced
    c) expressed and resolved
    d) analyzed
    e) internalized
A

a) perceived and felt

50
Q
  1. Luke’s cubicle neighbor Leia, though an understanding and great co-worker, talks loudly on the phone. Luke gets annoyed every time Leia’s phone rings, but he has decided it’s simply not worth the trouble to talk to her about it. Luke’s conflict-handling intention is called ________. (page 465)
    a) competing
    b) avoiding
    c) accommodating
    d) compromising
    e) collaborating
A

B avoiding

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique? (page 467)
    a) expansion of resources
    b) compromise
    c) bringing in outsiders
    d) exercising authoritative command
    e) problem solving
A

c) bringing in outsiders

52
Q
  1. Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________. (page 468)
    a) provides a medium to release tension
    b) reduces group cohesiveness
    c) fosters an environment of self-evaluation
    d) provides a means for expressing frustration
    e) leads to change
A

b) reduces group cohesiveness

53
Q

1) Manuel is a manager for a manufacturing company in which managers are expected to fully document all decisions, and it is important to provide detailed data to support any recommendations. Also, out-of-the-box thinking is dissuaded. Which characteristic of organizational culture describes this aspect of Manuel’s job? (page 527)
a) low team orientation
b) high aggressiveness
c) low risk taking
d) low outcome orientation
e) high people orientation

A

c) low risk taking

54
Q

2) A strong culture should reduce employee turnover, because it results in ________. (page 529)
a) a highly centralized organization
b) narrow spans of control
c) cohesiveness and organizational commitment
d) a highly formalized organization
e) an outcome-oriented organization

A

c) cohesiveness and organizational commitment

55
Q

3) Grace works for a pet store where everyone is committed to the happiness of the animals. Often employees, bosses, and hourly workers alike, come into the store “off the clock” and spend time training the animals. Everyone loves the store, the animals, and their jobs. This attitude of her co-workers inspires Grace to do her best. Based on this information, we can say that Grace is experiencing the effects of ________. (pages 530-31)
a) decentralization
b) organizational climate
c) high departmentalization
d) low formalization
e) high work specialization

A

b) organizational climate

56
Q

4) Culture is most likely to be a liability when ________. (pages 535-36)
a) the employees of the organization are highly skilled
b) the organization’s environment is dynamic
c) the organization’s management is highly efficient
d) the organization is highly centralized
e) the organization scores low on the degree of formalization

A

b) the organization’s environment is dynamic

57
Q

5) Top management has a major impact on the organization’s culture by ________. (page 538)
a) establishing norms that filter down through the organization
b) ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values
c) socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase
d) providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires
e) properly rewarding employees’ initiatives

A

a) establishing norms that filter down through the organization

58
Q

6) ________ is a process that helps new employees adapt to the prevailing organizational culture. (pages 538-40)
a) Satisficing
b) Reciprocal interdependence
c) Socialization
d) Formalization
e) Social loafing

A

C socialization

59
Q

7) When you start to accept the differences between your expectations and the reality of the organization, you move into the ________ stage of socialization. (pages 538-40)
a) prearrival
b) post-arrival
c) acceptance
d) metamorphosis
e) post-encounter

A

D metamorphosis

60
Q

8) Bruce is new at Wayne Corp., but after a week he already knows that the founder of the corporation started the business in his garage with only $4,000 and one client. This information was most likely transmitted to Bruce by way of ________. (pages 541-43)
a) stories
b) material symbols
c) rituals
d) organizational charts
e) corporate chants

A

A stories

61
Q

9) Larry has an employee who is amazing at clearly seeing rules and enforcing them. He has recently promoted her to the lead position in quality assurance. Which method of creating a positive organizational culture is Larry utilizing? (pages 544-46)
a) rewarding more than punishing
b) building on organization strengths
c) using standardized practices
d) building on employee strengths
e) transmitting organizational culture through rituals

A

d) building on employee strengths

62
Q

10) Organizations that promote a spiritual culture ________. (547-48)
a) use stories for transmitting the organizational culture to the employees
b) use wide spans of control
c) recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work
d) de-emphasize community differences within the organization
e) tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction

A

c) recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work