Test Flashcards
1
Q
The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and maintain the family’s stability is referred to as ________ feedback.
A. external
B. internal
C. negative
D. positive
A
C. negative
2
Q
An assumption underlying _____________ is that observed covariation among a set of variables is due to one or more underlying common dimensions.
A. factor analysis
B. path analysis
C. trend analysis
D. multiple regression
A
A. factor analysis
3
Q
The Bender-Gestalt II was designed to be a measure of:
A. fine motor skills.
B. visual-motor integration.
C. cognitive flexibility.
D. suicide risk.
A
B. visual-motor integration.
4
Q
To assess the general intelligence of a six-year-old child with a severe hearing impairment, you would use which of the following tests?
A. Halstead-Reitan
B. KABC-II
C. Haptic Intelligence Test
D. Hiskey-Nebraska
A
D. Hiskey-Nebraska
5
Q
When the relationship between the predictor (the X variable) and the criterion (the Y variable) is curvilinear and both variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale, the appropriate correlation coefficient is:
A. phi.
B. tau.
C. rho.
D. eta.
A
D. eta.
6
Q
A behavior therapist working with a child who bites her nails sets a timer so that it rings every 5 minutes. The child is then given a reward for every 5-minute period that she doesn”t bite her nails but engages in alternative activities instead. The therapist is using which of the following techniques?
A. differential reinforcement
B. response cost
C. overcorrection
D. Premack Principle
A
A. differential reinforcement
Differential reinforcement is what it sounds like - i.e., it involves reinforcing behaviors other than (different from) the target behavior.
7
Q
Autocorrelation is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs?
A. time-series
B. factorial
C. between groups
D. Solomon four-group
A
A. time-series
8
Q
In Pavlov’s research, experimental animals began to salivate in response to a tone after the tone had been presented repeatedly with meat powder. In this situation, the tone was:
A. a conditioned stimulus.
B. an unconditioned stimulus.
C. a primary reinforcer.
D. a secondary reinforcer.
A
A. a conditioned stimulus.
9
Q
Generally, the __________ branch of the autonomic nervous system activates bodily functions while the __________ branch returns the body to a resting state.
A. peripheral; central
B. central; peripheral
C. sympathetic; parasympathetic
D. parasympathetic; sympathetic
A
C. sympathetic; parasympathetic
10
Q
Interoceptive conditioning is one of the components of the cognitive-behavioral treatment of Panic Disorder and may include which of the following strategies?
A. yelling stop whenever an undesirable thought occurs
B. maintaining a panic diary
C. focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy
D. breathing through a thin straw
A
D. breathing through a thin straw
11
Q
Rosita R., age 32, maintains systematized paranoid delusions despite a lack of evidence for her beliefs. However, she shows almost no impairment in daily functioning other than some problems that are directly related to her delusions. The symptoms began six months ago shortly after she was fired from her job. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Rosita is:
A. Paranoid Schizophrenia.
B. Acute Stress Disorder.
C. Conversion Disorder.
D. Delusional Disorder.
A
D. Delusional Disorder.
12
Q
When a test’s reliability has been estimated by splitting the test in half and correlating scores on the two halves, you would use which of the following to correct the resulting reliability coefficient?
A. correction for attenuation formula
B. standard error of measurement
C. Kuder-Richardson 20
D. Spearman-Brown formula
A
D. Spearman-Brown formula
13
Q
Bandura’s social learning theory predicts that:
A. cognitive events act as intervening variables in the acquisition of a new behavior.
B. social approval is a powerful primary reinforcement.
C. reinforcement has a greater impact on learning than on performance.
D. the acquisition of new behaviors is the result of internalized S-R connections.
A
A. cognitive events act as intervening variables in the acquisition of a new behavior.
14
Q
The intellectual disability associated with PKU is preventable with:
A. removal of environmental toxins.
B. blood transfusions.
C. a special diet.
D. antibiotics.
A
C. a special diet.
15
Q
When assessing the test-retest reliability of your newly developed personality test, you obtain a reliability coefficient of .80. This means that:
A. 80% of variability in test scores is shared variability.
B. 64% of variability in test scores is shared variability.
C. 80% of variability in test scores is true score variability.
D. 64% of variability in test scores is true score variability.
A
C. 80% of variability in test scores is true score variability.
16
Q
Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage?
A. reintegration
B. immersion-emersion
C. autonomy
D. integrative awareness
A
C. autonomy
17
Q
Which of the following would be useful for determining the extent to which an examinee’s actual criterion score is likely to deviate from his/her predicted criterion score?
A. standard error of estimate
B. standard error of measurement
C. standard error of the difference
D. standard error of the mean
A
A. standard error of estimate
18
Q
Superordinate goals have been found useful for:
A. clarifying roles.
B. maximizing satisfaction and motivation.
C. reducing intergroup conflict.
D. increasing feelings of self-efficacy.
A
C. reducing intergroup conflict.
19
Q
For a Gestalt therapist, a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:
A. integrate the present with his/her past and future.
B. integrate the various aspects of the self.
C. develop a success identity.
D. develop a healthy style of life
A
B. integrate the various aspects of the self.
20
Q
The theory of planned behavior (Ajzen, 1991) predicts that:
A. attitudes are the result of behaviors.
B. attitudes are the result of subjective norms, behavioral intentions, and behaviors.
C. behaviors are the result of attitudes.
D. behaviors are the result of attitudes, subjective norms, and behavioral intentions.
A
D. behaviors are the result of attitudes, subjective norms, and behavioral intentions.
21
Q
Of 100 students surveyed on a college campus, 48 voted Republican and 52 voted Democratic in the last election. On another college campus, 63 of the 100 students surveyed voted Republican and 37 voted Democratic. Which of the following statistical tests is the appropriate technique for determining if the difference in voting preferences at the two colleges is significant?
A. two-way ANOVA
B. students t-test
C. chi-square test
D. Mann-Whitney U test
A
C. chi-square test
22
Q
The symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are categorized in three groups in the DSM-5. These groups are:
A. destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.
B. negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior.
C. deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms.
D. angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
A
D. angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
23
Q
The prognosis for a child with autism is best if the child:
A. does not have delays in motor development.
B. displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
C. has one or more savant abilities.
D. does not have a family history of a mental disorder.
A
B. displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
24
Q
A researcher would use the randomized block ANOVA to analyze the data she has collected in order to:
A. analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.
B. control measurement (random) error.
C. evaluate the effects of an independent variable on multiple dependent variables.
D. evaluate the effects of one or more independent variables on a nominal dependent variable.
A
A. analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.
25
Which of the following techniques would be most useful for obtaining information on the cognitive processes used by students while they solve complex problems?
A. event sampling
B. situation sampling
C. functional analysis
D. protocol analysis
D. protocol analysis
26
Elmo E., age 5, has learned that, if he has a tantrum whenever his parents want him to eat food he doesn't like at mealtime, his parents will let him eat something else instead in order to get Elmo to stop crying. In this situation, the parents' behavior (letting Elmo eat something other than the disliked food) is being maintained by which of the following?
A. escape conditioning
B. avoidance conditioning
C. stimulus discrimination
D. stimulus generalization
A. escape conditioning
27
Elmo E., age 5, has learned that, if he has a tantrum whenever his parents want him to eat food he doesn't like at mealtime, his parents will let him eat something else instead in order to get Elmo to stop crying. In this situation, the parents' behavior (letting Elmo eat something other than the disliked food) is being maintained by which of the following?
A. escape conditioning
B. avoidance conditioning
C. stimulus discrimination
D. stimulus generalization
A. escape conditioning
28
A psychologist administers the MMPI-2 to a 36-year old man who exhibits a number of symptoms that are suggestive of neurosis. The man receives a very low K Scale score, and, on the basis of this score, the psychologist can tentatively conclude that the man:
A. tried to present himself in a favorable light. Incorrect
B. is very self-critical.
C. has a personality disorder.
D. may have an organic brain disorder.
B. is very self-critical.
29
Which of the following is consistent with the predictions of the James-Lange theory?
A. I think, therefore I am.
B. I'm trembling, so I must be scared
C. It's noon so I must be hungry.
D. That was a great birthday surprise, so I must be happy.
B. I'm trembling, so I must be scared
30
An item discrimination index (D) of ____ indicates that all examinees in the high-scoring group and none in the low-scoring group answered the item correctly.
A. 1
B. -1
C. 0.5
D. 0.0
A. 1
31
The slope (steepness) of an item response curve indicates which of the following?
A. the items ability to discriminate between high and low achievers.
B. the items difficulty level
C. the susceptibility of the item to social desirability effects
D. the probability that the item can be answered correctly by guessing
A. the items ability to discriminate between high and low achievers.
32
In test construction, shrinkage is associated with:
A. differential validity.
B. incremental validity.
C. cross-validation.
D. process validation.
C. cross-validation.
33
When screening a patient for brain damage, a psychologist administers the Wisconsin Card Sort and the Halstead-Reitan Category Test. Apparently, the psychologist believes that the patient has:
A. diffuse brain damage.
B. frontal lobe damage.
C. temporal lobe damage.
D. basal ganglia damage.
B. frontal lobe damage.
34
For children and adolescents, a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least:
A. six months.
B. twelve months.
C. twenty-four months.
D. thirty-six months.
B. twelve months.
35
The magnitude or strength of the standard error of the mean increases as:
A. the sample size increases and the population variance decreases
B. the sample size increases and the population variance increases.
C. the sample size decreases and the population variance decreases.
D. the sample size decreases and the population variance increases.
D. the sample size decreases and the population variance increases.
36
When using multiple regression, multicollinearity occurs when:
A. the predictors are highly correlated with one another.
B. the criterion measures are highly correlated with one another.
C. there is a low correlation between the predictors and the criterion.
D. there is a high (significant) correlation between the predictors and the criterion.
A. the predictors are highly correlated with one another.
37
According to Berry's (1993) bidirectional acculturation model, ________ is characterized by low involvement in one's own minority culture and in the majority culture.
A. moratorium
B. alienation
C. separation
D. marginalization
D. marginalization
38
Elmo E. is in the process of buying a new car and is having trouble deciding between two cars that are similar in terms of both positive and negative characteristics. In other words, Elmo is facing a(n) ________ conflict.
A. approach-approach
B. avoidance-avoidance
C. single approach-avoidance
D. double approach-avoidance
D. double approach-avoidance
39
Research suggests children's successful adjustment to the divorce of their parents is most related to:
A. the frequency of contact with the noncustodial parent.
B. the quality of the parent-child relationships prior to the divorce.
C. the childs ability to understand the cause(s) of the divorce.
D. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents.
D. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents.
40
An achievement test is administered to 250 high school seniors. The test's mean is 50, its standard deviation is 5, and the test scores are normally distributed. If you want to use test scores to select the top 16% of the students, you will set the cutoff score at which of the following?
A. 55
B. 60
C. 65
D. 70
A. 55
41
The belief that a child's misbehavior has one of four goals - i.e., attention, revenge, power, or to display inadequacy - is most consistent with:
A. Becks cognitive-behavioral therapy.
B. Adlers individual psychology.
C. Perlss Gestalt therapy.
D. Mahlers object relations theory.
B. Adlers individual psychology.
42
Dalal D., age 21, displays several active psychotic symptoms including persecutory delusions, auditory hallucinations, incoherence, and loosening of associations. Assuming that her symptoms started suddenly three months ago and that she has no previous history of similar symptoms, your tentative diagnosis would be which of the following?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Brief Psychotic Disorder
C. Schizoaffective Disorder
D. Schizophreniform Disorder
D. Schizophreniform Disorder
43
A former client owes you over $600.00 in therapy fees and you are considering using a collection agency to collect the money she owes you. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
A. decide not to do so because using a collection agency is prohibited by the ethical guidelines.
B. do so only if you had informed the client at the beginning of therapy that you would do so if she did not pay her fees in a timely manner.
C. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.
D. use a collection agency only as a last resort.
C. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.
44
Samuel S., age 43, says, "Even though I've just been given a bonus at work, I feel like I'm about to be fired." As defined by Aaron Beck, Samuel is exhibiting which of the following cognitive distortions?
A. mustabatory thinking
B. polarized thinking
C. personalization
D. arbitrary inference
D. arbitrary inference
45
Holland's theory about the importance of matching a person's personality with his/her work environment predicts that a person with a realistic orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that:
A. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity.
B. require manual or technical skills and concrete problem-solving.
C. require systematic manipulation and organization of data.
D. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving.
B. require manual or technical skills and concrete problem-solving.
46
The primary goal of a newly developed community-based mental health program is to help people recently released from a psychiatric hospital adjust to life in the community. This is an example of:
A. primary prevention.
B. secondary prevention.
C. tertiary prevention.
D. crisis intervention.
C. tertiary prevention.
47
Heteroscedasticity in a scattergram suggests that:
A. the relationship between the predictor and criterion cannot be described by a straight line.
B. there is a restriction of range of scores on the predictor and/or the criterion.
C. the variability (range) of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor.
D. there is a statistically significant correlation between the predictor and criterion.
C. the variability (range) of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor.
48
```
The developer of a new occupational interest test conducts a study to determine which test items accurately distinguish between people who are employed in different occupations. This test developer is using which of the following methods of scale construction?
A. empirical criterion keying
B. homogeneous keying
C. factor analysis
D. multiple regression analysis
```
A. empirical criterion keying
49
Asking the "miracle question" is an initial intervention in which type of therapy?
A. transtheoretical
B. interpersonal
C. REBT
D. solution-focused
D. solution-focused
50
Freud described countertransference as the analyst's transference to the patient, which may interfere with the analyst's functioning in therapy. More recently, psychoanalysts have begun to view countertransference as:
A. even more detrimental than Freud to the normal progress of therapy.
B. an aid for the analyst for gaining insight into the patient's inner world.
C. an aid for the analyst in helping the client recognize how his/her behavior impacts on others.
D. an opportunity for the analyst to respond to the client in an authentic way.
B. an aid for the analyst for gaining insight into the patient's inner world.
51
A 16-month-old child who calls her pet cat "kitty" sees a dog for the first time and calls it "kitty." In terms of Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the child is displaying:
A. assimilation.
B. accommodation.
C. categorization.
D. centration.
A. assimilation.
52
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
A. one or more manic episodes
B. one or more mixed episodes
C. manic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
53
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
A. one or more manic episodes
B. one or more mixed episodes
C. manic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
54
Babbling ordinarily begins at about 4 to 5 months of age and initially includes:
A. phonemes from all languages.
B. phonemes from the childs native language only.
C. morphemes from all languages.
D. morphemes that the child has heard most frequently.
A. phonemes from all languages.
55
When a predictor's reliability coefficient is .81, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be:
A. no less than .81.
B. no greater than .81.
C. no less than .90.
D. no greater than .90.
D. no greater than .90.
56
Which of the following best illustrates deindividuation?
A. A usually quiet, reserved person acts uncharacteristically violent in a crowd because he is able to do so anonymously.
B. A victim of a crime is more likely to receive assistance when the crime occurs in a rural area rather than in a city.
C. In a group decision-making situation, there is a tendency for critical-thinking to be suspended when group cohesiveness is very strong.
D. A group member reduces his/her effort when he/she thinks other members are not exerting maximum effort.
A. A usually quiet, reserved person acts uncharacteristically violent in a crowd because he is able to do so anonymously.
57
You would use the Solomon four-group design in order to:
A. eliminate carryover effects.
B. reduce demand characteristics.
C. evaluate the impact of pretesting.
D. evaluate the effects of history and maturation.
C. evaluate the impact of pretesting.
58
During the second stage of Kohlberg's preconventional level of moral development, children obey rules because:
A. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws.
B. everyone else is doing it.
C. doing so helps them avoid punishment.
D. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.
D. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.
59
Implosive therapy and flooding share in common which of the following?
A. They both involve exposure to an unconditioned (aversive) stimulus. Incorrect
B. They are both based on counterconditioning.
C. They both involve the use of negative reinforcement.
D. They both lead to extinction of the undesirable response.
D. They both lead to extinction of the undesirable response.
60
When using the Premack Principle to modify a behavior, the reinforcer is:
A. applied intermittently.
B. a generalized conditioned reinforcer.
C. a behavior that occurs frequently.
D. a stimulus that naturally elicits the desired behavior.
C. a behavior that occurs frequently.
61
Huntington's disease is an:
A. autosomal dominant disorder.
B. autosomal recessive disorder.
C. X-linked dominant disorder.
D. X-linked recessive disorder.
A. autosomal dominant disorder.
62
The three components of attitudes are:
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
B. aptitude, affect, and cognition.
C. evaluation, experience, and application.
D. knowledge, evaluation, and action.
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
63
The three components of attitudes are:
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
B. aptitude, affect, and cognition.
C. evaluation, experience, and application.
D. knowledge, evaluation, and action.
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
64
With regard to attitude change, inoculation is useful for:
A. increasing a persons resistance to persuasion.
B. reducing a communicator's anxiety prior to delivering a message to a hostile audience.
C. distracting a person from a communicator's message.
D. ensuring that attitude change represents internalization rather than mere compliance.
A. increasing a persons resistance to persuasion
65
Parametric statistical tests are usually preferable to non-parametric tests because they are more "powerful." This means that the use of a parametric test to analyze the data collected in a research study helps ensure that:
A. a false null hypothesis will be retained.
B. a true null hypothesis will be retained.
C. a false null hypothesis will be rejected.
D. the null hypothesis will be rejected.
C. a false null hypothesis will be rejected.
66
Our eyes have near and distance focal points. As part of the normal aging process, we are most likely to experience which of the following?
A. our near focal point will move away from our eyes
B. our near focal point will move closer to our eyes
C. our near focal point will remain the same but our distance focal point will move away from our eyes
D. our near focal point will remain the same but our distance focal point will move closer to our eyes
A. our near focal point will move away from our eyes
67
In contrast to traditional approaches to psychotherapy, culturally sensitive approaches attempt to understand a client's experience of an illness within the client's cultural context. In other words, culturally sensitive approaches adopt an ______ perspective.
Select one:
A. emic
B. etic
C. emetic
D. endogenous
A. emic
68
The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) was designed as a measure of receptive vocabulary for:
A. adolescents and adults with a visual impairment.
B. children and adolescents with a hearing impairment.
C. children, adolescents, and adults with autism.
D. children, adolescents, and adults with a motor or speech impairment.
D. children, adolescents, and adults with a motor or speech impairment.
69
Which of the following is true about the sleep of older adults?
A. They have less REM sleep but more Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.
B. They have a decreased need for sleep. Incorrect
C. They often experience an advanced sleep phase.
D. They often experience a delayed sleep phase.
C. They often experience an advanced sleep phase.
70
A DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires a history of symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to ___ years of age.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 13
D. 15
D. 15
71
In terms of the parenting styles identified by Baumrind and her colleagues (1991), independent self-confident adolescents are most likely to have parents who are:
A. authoritative.
B. authoritarian.
C. permissive.
D. traditional.
A. authoritative.
72
In most situations, the "holder of the privilege" is:
A. the therapist.
B. the client.
C. the therapist and client jointly.
D. the court.
B. the client.
73
There is evidence that the _____________ plays a role in the etiology of seasonal affective disorder (SAD).
A. red nucleus
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. tectum
D. striatum
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
74
According to Albert Ellis, maladaptive behavior is caused primarily by which of the following?
A. learned helplessness
B. boundary disturbances
C. a lack of response-contingent reinforcement
D. irrational thoughts and beliefs
D. irrational thoughts and beliefs
75
An educational psychologist designs a screening test to identify underachieving first- and second-grade children who have a learning disability. The psychologist will probably be most concerned that her test has adequate __________ validity.
A. content
B. construct
C. concurrent
D. predictive
C. concurrent
76
Researchers interested in evaluating the outcomes of psychotherapy distinguish between effectiveness and efficacy research. In contrast to effectiveness research, efficacy research:
A. has better internal validity but limited external validity.
B. has limited internal validity but better external validity.
C. has better internal and external validity.
D. has limited internal and external validity.
A. has better internal validity but limited external validity.
77
```
A patient is blindfolded and handed a familiar object in her left hand. She is unable to verbally identify the object. However, when the object is subsequently placed in her right hand, she can name it. This suggests that the woman has experienced damage to which of the following areas of her brain?
A. hippocampus
B. cerebellum
C. corpus callosum
D. RAS
```
C. corpus callosum
78
As described by Sue and Sue (1999), "playing it cool" and "Uncle Tom Syndrome" are:
A. signs of an internal locus of control.
B. survival mechanisms.
C. characteristics of the immersion-emersion stage of racial/cultural identity development.
D. signs of functional (versus cultural) paranoia.
B. survival mechanisms.
79
You receive a phone call from the attorney of one of your current therapy clients. The attorney asks you to forward information from the client's file for a court case the client is currently involved in and tells you that the client has signed a release. While reviewing the client's file, you encounter a note that you made indicating that the client said he would never want you to release personal information about him under any circumstances. As an ethical psycholgist, you will:
A. contact the client to discuss the matter with him before taking any further action.
B. release only information to the attorney that you believe is relevant to the client's case.
C. release the requested information to the attorney since the client has signed a release.
D. refuse to release the records without a court order.
A. contact the client to discuss the matter with him before taking any further action.
80
Thermal (temperature) biofeedback would be most effective as a treatment for:
A. hyperventilation.
B. Raynauds disease
C. stuttering.
D. TMJ.
B. Raynauds disease
81
Thermal (temperature) biofeedback would be most effective as a treatment for:
A. hyperventilation.
B. Raynauds disease
C. stuttering.
D. TMJ.
B. Raynauds disease
82
Dr. Jay tells his client, Sandy Y., to smoke cigarettes only at 10:00 a.m., 1:00 p.m., and 8:00 p.m., to smoke only while sitting in particular chairs at home and in the office, and to smoke only a certain brand of cigarettes (one that Sandy doesn't particularly like). Dr. Jay is using the behavioral technique known as:
A. self-monitoring.
B. stimulus control.
C. overcorrection.
D. response cost.
B. stimulus control.
83
A 16-year-old suddenly exhibits a change in behavior that includes irritability, concentration problems at school, a decreased need for sleep, and sexual promiscuity. Her mother says that the girl has had behavioral problems at school for the past few years but that her current symptoms are new and developed about ten days ago. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. ADHD.
b. Conduct Disorder.
c. Bipolar I Disorder.
d. Bipolar II Disorder.
c. Bipolar I Disorder.
84
A social psychologist tells his male and female subjects the following story about Jack and Jane: On Saturday, Jack fixes his car's transmission and Jane sews. Both complete their tasks successfully. On Sunday, Jack decorates his apartment and Jane cuts down a tree in her front yard. Again, both complete their tasks successfully. Which of the following statements best describes the likely results of this research?
A. Males and females will attribute Jack's success in fixing the transmission and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jack's success in decorating and Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.
B. Males will attribute Jack's success on both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but females will attribute Jack's success in fixing the transmission and Jane's success in sewing to ability and Jack's success in decorating and Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.
C. Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks to ability and Jane's success in both tasks to luck.
D. Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.
D. Males and females will both attribute Jack's success in both tasks and Jane's success in sewing to ability, but will attribute Jane's success in cutting down a tree to luck.
85
For the treatment of hypertension, biofeedback:’
A. is generally ineffective.
B. is effective only when combined with medication.
C. is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
D. is more effective than relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
C. is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
85
For the treatment of hypertension, biofeedback:’
A. is generally ineffective.
B. is effective only when combined with medication.
C. is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
D. is more effective than relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
C. is about equally as effective as relaxation training or self-monitoring of blood pressure.
86
A child in the preoperational stage of development:
A. carefully follows the rules when playing a game.
B. views death as a "bogeyman" that can be outwitted.
C. thinks objects "disappear" when they have been hidden from view.
D. treats objects as symbols of things (e.g., dolls as babies).
D. treats objects as symbols of things (e.g., dolls as babies).
87
When working with a "split-brain" patient, you would notice that he or she has the most difficulty with regard to which of the following?
A. reflexive functions
B. executive functions
C. memory functions
D. sensory functions
D. sensory functions
88
The three overlapping stages of Meichenbaum and Jaremko's (1982) stress inoculation training are:
A. formulation, problem focus, and termination.
B. self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
C. cognitive modeling, overt instruction, and covert instruction.
D. conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.
D. conceptualization, skills acquisition, and application.
89
A moderator variable:
A. is responsible for (causes) the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
B. affects the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
C. is applied sequentially to participants during the course of the research study.
D. is the outcome variable that is predicted in a correlational research study.
B. affects the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables.
90
In the context of Holland's theory of vocational choice, a high degree of differentiation:
A. reflects an uncommon or unusual pattern of interests.
B. reflects a common pattern of interests.
C. increases the predictability of the person-environment interaction.
D. decreases the predictability of the person-environment interaction.
C. increases the predictability of the person-environment interaction.
91
Group decisions tend to be better than decisions made by individuals when:
A. the task requires a high degree of creativity.
B. the group is highly cohesive.
C. the group consists of members with complementary expertise.
D. the group has a directive leader.
C. the group consists of members with complementary expertise.
92
To use scores obtained on the eight subscales of the Parental Activities Scale to predict scores on the five subscales of the Child Adjustment Profile, you would use:
A. multiple regression.
B. canonical correlation.
C. multiple discriminant analysis.
D. cluster analysis
B. canonical correlation.
93
A test developer uses factor analysis to evaluate the construct validity of his newly developed test of self-efficacy. The results indicate that the measure's communality is .40. This means that:
A. 16% of variability in test scores is accounted for by each identified factor.
B. 40% of variability in test scores is accounted for by each identified factor.
C. 16% of variability in test scores is accounted for by all of the identified factors.
D. 40% of variability in test scores is accounted for by all of the identified factors.
D. 40% of variability in test scores is accounted for by all of the identified factors.
94
Which of the following is a challenge that may arise from mandating Evidence Based Therapies?
A. The financial cost of training all of the individuals needed.
B. The limited number of trainers with which to prepare those that are gaining skills in Evidence Based Therapies.
C. The limited number of Evidence Based Trainings.
D. The varied type and intensity of training that differs across regions.
D. The varied type and intensity of training that differs across regions.
95
Children's understanding of race as a physical, social, and biological category is usually first evident by ____ years of age.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 10
D. 13
C. 10
96
A listener is LEAST likely to change her attitude as the result of a communicator's message if:
A. the listener accidentally overhears the message.
B. the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message.
C. the communicator is arguing against his or her own best interests.
D. there is a moderate discrepancy between the listener's initial position and the communicator's position.
B. the listener has prior knowledge about the content of the message.
97
John Watson produced a phobia in Albert B. by using which of the following procedures?
A. physically confining the child so that he could not move
B. requiring the child to make difficult stimulus discriminations
C. pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS
D. providing punishment noncontingent on behavior
C. pairing an aversive US with a neutral CS
98
A predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient is .70. This means that ____% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores.
A. 30
B. 49
C. 51
D. 70
B. 49
99
For most patients with Parkinson's Disease, depression:
A. is only slightly more common than it is in the general population and seems to be a reaction to the diagnosis.
B. appears to be a reaction to the diagnosis and usually first appears when motor symptoms begin to interfere with daily functioning.
C. appears to be endogenous to the disorder and may precede motor symptoms, especially in younger patients.
D. appears to be endogenous to the disorder and first appears in the later stages as cognitive impairments increase
D. appears to be endogenous to the disorder and first
100
A person with seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is most likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?
a. overeating and weight gain
b. loss of appetite without weight loss
c. insomnia
d. a craving for salty foods
a. overeating and weight gain
101
The probability of making a Type I error is equal to:
A. alpha.
B. 1 minus alpha.
C. beta.
D. 1 minus beta.
A. alpha.
102
__________ is used to determine the minimum sample size needed for a study, given a particular level of significance, expected effect size, and other factors.
A. Power analysis
B. Meta-analysis
C. Incremental analysis
D. Sensitivity analysis
A. Power analysis
103
__________ is a cause of delirium and may result from kidney or liver failure or from diabetes mellitus, hypo- or hyperthyroidism, vitamin deficiency, electrolyte imbalance, severe dehydration, or a number of other conditions.
a. Gerstmann's syndrome
b. Cushing's syndrome
c. Wernicke's encephalopathy
d. Metabolic encephalopathy
d. Metabolic encephalopathy
104
The Spearman-Brown formula is used to:
A. estimate the effects of increasing or decreasing the length of a test on its reliability coefficient.
B. estimate what a predictors validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion were perfectly reliable.
C. determine the range within which an examinees true score is likely to fall given his/her obtained score.
D. determine if adding or subtracting a predictor to the multiple regression equation will have a significant effect on its predictive accuracy.
A. estimate the effects of increasing or decreasing the length of a test on its reliability coefficient.
105
The Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities combines the Cattell-Horn theory of fluid intelligence and Carroll's three stratum theory of intelligence and distinguishes between ___ broad abilities and over ___ narrow abilities.
A. 5; 25
B. 8; 40
C. 10; 70
D. 15; 90
C. 10; 70
106
Tom is not colorblind but he has a brother who is colorblind. Tom's wife, Alice, is not colorblind and does not have any relatives who are colorblind. Which of the following describes the likelihood that the children of Tom and Alice will be colorblind?
A. Their male children only are likely to be colorblind.
B. Their female children only are likely to be colorblind.
C. Their male and female children may or may not be colorblind.
D. Neither their male nor their female children will be colorblind.
D. Neither their male nor their female children will be colorblind.
107
According to _______________, depression is attributable to deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
A. Bandura's self-efficacy model
B. Rehm's self-control theory
C. Seligman's learned helplessness model
D. Swann's self-verification theory
B. Rehm's self-control theory
108
A number of researchers have attempted to determine the conditions associated with positive outcomes for children who were "at risk" at birth and during early infancy. Their studies suggest that children who recover from early deficiencies:
A. have higher-than-average levels of intelligence.
B. exhibit good social responsiveness during infancy.
C. are placed in special education classes on entering school.
D. have mothers who do not work.
B. exhibit good social responsiveness during infancy.
109
A common migraine:
A. begins with an aura and is usually accompanied by nausea.
B. is constant and non-throbbing and may be exacerbated by bright lights.
C. does not begin with an aura and may be exacerbated by bending over or lifting.
D. is sharp and unilateral and is usually accompanied by autonomic symptoms.
C. does not begin with an aura and may be exacerbated by bending over or lifting.
110
With regard to test bias, a slope bias occurs when:
A. a predictor's validity coefficient differs for different groups.
B. a predictor's reliability coefficient differs for different groups.
C. members of one group consistently score higher than members of another group on the predictor.
D. members of one group consistently score higher than members of another group on the criterion.
A. a predictor's validity coefficient differs for different groups.
111
A person is most likely to be happy in a job that involves working with tools and objects, requires physical strength, and provides regular feedback in the form of practical results if his/her highest score is on the __________ subscale of Holland's Self-Directed Search.
A. investigative
B. mechanical
C. conventional
D. realistic
D. realistic
112
A factor matrix indicates that Test A has a factor loading of .40 on Factor I and a factor loading of .30 on Factor II. Assuming the factors are orthogonal, what is the communality for Test A?
A. 0.1
B. 0.25
C. 0.45
D. 0.7
B. 0.25
113
A researcher uses a factorial ANOVA to statistically analyze the effects of four types of training strategies and three levels of self-efficacy on a measure of job performance. The results indicate that there are significant main effects of each independent variable and a significant interaction. The researcher will conclude that:
A. training is effective regardless of level of self-efficacy.
B. each type of training is equally effective for each level of self-efficacy.
C. the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy.
D. overall, training is effective only for people with a certain level of self-efficacy.
C. the most effective type of training depends on level of self-efficacy.
114
People using the ____________ heuristic base their judgments on resemblances and similarities.
A. availability
B. representativeness
C. simulation
D. anchoring
B. representativeness
115
Research investigating the effectiveness of training first-graders in the use of rehearsal strategies has found that:
A. these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task but do not generalize this knowledge to other tasks.
B. these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task and often generalize this knowledge to other tasks.
C. these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task only when they anticipate external reinforcement for doing so.
D. these children are unable to learn to apply rehearsal to the current or future tasks.
A. these children learn to apply rehearsal to the current task but do not generalize this knowledge to other tasks.
116
A woman and her husband, who have been married for two years, come for marital therapy. The woman complains about her husband's lack of interest in family activities and in their 9-month-old child, his lack of affection toward her, and his lack of interest in sex. The husband, who says he did not want to come to therapy at all, states that he is a "loner," that he has always had few friends, and that he has never really been interested in his family. He seems quite aloof and emotionally unresponsive. Your tentative diagnosis is:
a. Avoidant Personality Disorder.
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder.
c. Schizoaffective Disorder.
d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder.
117
To reduce the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, which of the following would be most effective?
A. a drug that decreases dopamine levels
B. a drug that increases norepinephrine levels
C. a drug that decreases GABA levels
A. a drug that decreases dopamine levels
118
In the context of the Rorschach test, form quality indicates:
A. what aspect of the inkblot determined the response.
B. the degree of congruence between the response and reality.
C. the extent to which the response is based on an unusual or common detail.
D. the extent to which form is well integrated with other determinants.
B. the degree of congruence between the response and reality.
119
The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised (WPT-R) is a(n):
A. brief test of mental ability for adults.
B. measure of global and facet job satisfaction.
C. test of English-language proficiency.
D. apparatus test of psychomotor skills.
A. brief test of mental ability for adults.
120
A psychologist tells the parents of an 8-year old to give him a "time-out" each time he torments his little sister. The parents find that, over time, the child needs less and less time in the time-out to calm down and apologize for his behavior. The boy's behavior is being controlled by which of the following?
A. negative punishment
B. negative reinforcement
C. stimulus control
D. stimulus fading
A. negative punishment
121
The rational-economic model of decision-making views decision-makers as attempting to make:
A. satisficing decisions.
B. bounded decisions.
C. representative decisions.
D. optimal decisions.
D. optimal decisions.
122
Every time a child in an institutional setting has a tantrum, the only staff member with whom the child has a positive relationship calmly but firmly tells the child to stop his behavior. The child's behavior increases rather than decreases over time as a result of the staff member's behavior. This is an example of:
A. positive reinforcement of the misbehavior.
B. negative reinforcement of the misbehavior.
C. positive punishment for the misbehavior.
D. negative punishment for the misbehavior.
A. positive reinforcement of the misbehavior.
123
Research investigating the usefulness of the serial position effect for detecting malingering provides some evidence that, in comparison to patients with traumatic brain injury, volunteers instructed to malinger (i.e., to feign brain injury) are:
A. less likely to exhibit a primacy effect.
B. less likely to exhibit a recency effect.
C. less likely to exhibit a primacy and a recency effect.
D. more likely to exhibit a primacy and a recency effect.
A. less likely to exhibit a primacy effect.
124
Your research study involves assessing the effects of two independent variables on three dependent variables. In this situation, you would choose to conduct a MANOVA to analyze the data you collect rather than separate factorial ANOVAs in order to:
A. maximize experimental variance.
B. control an extraneous variable.
C. increase statistical power.
D. control the experimentwise error rate.
D. control the experimentwise error rate.
125
A tumor in the medial hypothalamus is most likely to produce which of the following?
A. indifference and apathy
B. outbursts of aggressive behavior
C. deficits in recent long-term memory
D. receptive aphasia
B. outbursts of aggressive behavior
126
Studies looking at the impact of gender on reactions to crowding have found that:
A. women cope with crowding better than men do in both laboratory and residential settings.
B. men cope with crowding better than women do in both laboratory and residential settings.
C. women cope with crowding better than men do in laboratory settings but men cope with crowding better in residential settings.
D. men cope with crowding better than women do in laboratory settings but women cope with crowding better in residential settings.
C. women cope with crowding better than men do in laboratory settings but men cope with crowding better in residential settings.
127
As described by Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of moral development believes that:
A. rule violations will be punished.
B. rules can be changed by consensus.
C. rules can be changed by authorities only.
D. rules are made to be broken.
B. rules can be changed by consensus.
128
According to Kohlberg's cognitive theory, gender identity development involves three stages that occur in the following order:
A. stability, constancy, identity
B. constancy, stability, identity
C. identity, constancy, stability
D. identity, stability, constancy
D. identity, stability, constancy
129
In a __________ distribution of scores, the mean is less than the median and the median is less than the mode.
A. leptokurtic
B. platykurtic
C. negatively skewed
D. positively skewed
C. negatively skewed
130
Caplan (1970) distinguished between four types of mental health consultation. Which of the following is an example of the type he labeled "consultee-centered case consultation"?
A. A consultant is hired by a colleague to resolve a diagnostic dilemma she is having with a current client.
B. A consultant is hired by a school to help school administrators evaluate the effectiveness of an existing remedial program for at-risk students.
C. A consultant monitors a support group for administrators to help them develop better interpersonal skills.
D. A consultant helps a teacher acquire the behavior modification skills she needs to reduce disruptions in her classroom.
D. A consultant helps a teacher acquire the behavior modification skills she needs to reduce disruptions in her classroom.
131
Fourteen-year-old Kevin Kendall frequently curses when he's with his friends because they respond positively when he does so. However, Kevin never uses those words when he's at home with his family because his parents and siblings become very upset when he uses them. Kevin's differential use of curse words in different settings illustrates the concept of:
A. stimulus control.
B. partial reinforcement.
C. shaping.
D. overcorrection.
A. stimulus control.
132
Restlessness, psychomotor agitation, flushed face, diuresis, rambling speech, and muscle twitching are most suggestive of which of the following?
A. Alcohol Withdrawal
B. Caffeine Intoxication
C. Cocaine Intoxication
D. Hyperthyroidism
B. Caffeine Intoxication
133
In Ainsworth's "strange situation," a one-year old shows little distress when her mother leaves the room and ignores her when she returns. Most likely, this mother is:
A. neglectful or physically abusive.
B. depressed.
C. impatient or overstimulating.
D. a single parent.
C. impatient or overstimulating.
134
A predictor's ___________ is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
A. positive predictive value
B. negative predictive value
C. sensitivity
D. specificity
C. sensitivity
135
A predictor's ___________ is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
A. positive predictive value
B. negative predictive value
C. sensitivity
D. specificity
C. sensitivity
136
An assumption underlying process consultation is that:
A. attitude change precedes behavior change.
B. behavior change precedes attitude change.
C. motivation is a proximal and primary cause of performance.
D. motivation and performance have a reciprocal relationship.
B. behavior change precedes attitude change.
137
In the book, A Theory of Multicultural Counseling and Therapy, Sue, Ivey, and Pedersen (1996) describe three multicultural counseling competencies. These are:
A. ability, knowledge, and sensitivity.
B. flexibility, sensitivity, and awareness.
C. awareness, knowledge, and skills.
D. self-awareness, expertise, and strategies.
C. awareness, knowledge, and skills.
138
To assess the reliability of a characteristic that fluctuates in severity or intensity over time, you would be best advised to use which of the following?
A. coefficient of equivalence
B. coefficient of stability
C. coefficient of determination
D. coefficient of internal consistency
D. coefficient of internal consistency
139
The concepts of "job relatedness" and "business necessity" are associated with which of the following?
A. adverse impact
B. truth in testing
C. comparable worth
D. personnel training
A. adverse impact
140
Intelligence test items assessing which of the following provide a measure of crystallized intelligence?
A. language comprehension
B. short-term memory
C. sequential reasoning
D. problem solving
A. language comprehension
141
Following a head injury, a middle-aged man experiences a loss of sensation in the fingers of his left hand. Most likely the damage involves the:
A. postcentral gyrus.
B. precentral gyrus.
C. lateral fissure.
D. precentral sulcus.
A. postcentral gyrus.
142
A dimensional approach to diagnosis is based on a(n) ________ of attributes.
a. quantification
b. categorization
c. exclusion
d. dichotomization
a. quantification
143
A multiple regression equation yields a predicted criterion score for an examinee based on the examinee's scores on the predictors included in a test battery. When computing a multiple regression equation, each test is weighted:
Select one:
A. in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in inverse proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery.
B. in inverse proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in direct proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery.
C. in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and with the other predictors in the test battery.
D. in inverse proportion to its correlation with the criterion and with the other predictors in the test battery.
A. in direct proportion to its correlation with the criterion and in inverse proportion to its correlation with the other predictors in the test battery.
144
Tacrine (Cognex), donepezil (Aricept), and galantamine (Reminyl) exert their beneficial effects on memory for patients with Alzheimer's dementia by:
Select one:
A. slowing acetylcholine depletion.
B. slowing dopamine depletion.
C. increasing the production of serotonin.
D. increasing the production of norepinephrine.
A. slowing acetylcholine depletion.
145
Structural equation modeling (SEM) is used to:
A. assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event.
B. evaluate the causal (predictive) influences of multiple latent factors.
C. determine, for a sample of people, how many types the sample represents.
D. identify natural subgroupings among a collection of observations.
B. evaluate the causal (predictive) influences of multiple latent factors.
146
```
Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study which of the following phenomena?
Select one:
A. conformity
B. affiliation
C. psychological reactance
D. locus of control
```
A. conformity
147
```
To evaluate the impact of an educational program on each student's mastery of the information presented, which of the following would be most useful?
Select one:
A. norm-referenced scores
B. criterion-referenced scores
C. standard scores
D. ipsative scores
```
B. criterion-referenced scores
148
The ANCOVA enables an experimenter to:
Select one:
A. statistically remove error variance that is attributable to a known extraneous variable.
B. determine if the effects of an extraneous variable moderate the relationship between the IV and DV.
C. simultaneously assess more than one hypothesis about the IV's effects on the DV.
D. test the effects of an IV on more than one DV without increasing the experimentwise error rate.
A. statistically remove error variance that is attributable to a known extraneous variable.
149
Depression has been linked to:
Select one:
A. decreased REM latency and increased REM density.
B. decreased REM latency and decreased REM density.
C. increased REM latency and increased REM density.
D. increased REM latency and decreased REM density.
A. decreased REM latency and increased REM density.
150
In its early stages, Alzheimer's disease shares several characteristics with Korsakoff's syndrome. Specifically, both disorders are characterized by:
Select one:
A. anterograde amnesia that affects declarative memories but not procedural memories.
B. anterograde amnesia that affects both declarative and procedural memories.
C. retrograde amnesia for recent and remote declarative (but not procedural) memories.
D. retrograde amnesia for recent (but not
A. anterograde amnesia that affects declarative memories but not procedural memories.
151
Adding a constant to every score in a distribution of scores will:
Select one:
A. increase the distribution's mean.
B. increase the distribution's standard deviation.
C. increase the distribution's mean and standard deviation.
D. not increase the distribution's mean or standard deviation.
A. increase the distribution's mean.
152
A factorial ANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when:
Select one:
A. the study includes two or more dependent variables.
B. there are more than two levels of a single independent variable.
C. the study includes two or more independent variables.
D. the effects of a confounding variable must be statistically removed.
C. the study includes two or more independent variables.
153
Assuming that the following scores are all from the same normal distribution of scores, which of the following lists the scores in order from lowest to highest?
Select one:
A. z-score of +1.0, percentile rank of 70, T-score of 80
B. z-score of +.75, percentile rank of 84, T-score of 65
C. z-score of +1.25, percentile rank of 95, T-score of 55
D. z-score of +.50, percentile rank of 98, T-score of 60
B. z-score of +.75, percentile rank of 84, T-score of 65
154
A screening test for a disorder that has a very low base rate in the population is known to have an overall accuracy rate of 98%. When using this test to identify individuals in the general population who have the disorder, it's important to keep in mind that the test will produce:
Select one:
A. very few false positives but very many true positives.
B. very few true negatives but very many false negatives.
C. a larger number of false negatives than false positives.
D. a larger number of false positives than false negatives.
D. a larger number of false positives than false negatives.
155
```
Examinees with Mild Cognitive Impairment, Major Depression, or Traumatic Brain Injury are likely to achieve the highest score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?
Select one:
A. Perceptual Reasoning
B. Processing Speed
C. Verbal Comprehension
D. Working Memory
```
C. Verbal Comprehension
156
```
A distribution of scores is ____________ when it is more "peaked" than a normal distribution.
Select one:
A. platykurtic
B. leptokurtic
C. mesokurtic
D. endokurtic
```
B. leptokurtic
157
```
When using aversion therapy to eliminate a client's shoe fetish, an electric shock or other unpleasant stimulus acts as a(n):
Select one:
A. negative punishment.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. conditioned stimulus.
D. unconditioned stimulus
```
unconditioned stimulus
158
```
When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix to evaluate the construct validity of a newly developed test, a __________ coefficient provides evidence of the test's divergent (discriminant) validity.
Select one:
A. large monotrait-heteromethod
B. large heterotrait-monomethod
C. small monotrait-heteromethod
D. small heterotrait-monomethod
```
D. small heterotrait-monomethod
159
```
You would use which of the following to estimate what a predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0?
Select one:
A. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula
B. correction for attenuation formula
C. coefficient of concordance
D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20
```
B. correction for attenuation formula
160
Scores on a predictor that will be used to estimate job performance rating range from 0 to 200. If the predictor's cutoff score is raised from 130 to 150, this will have which of the following effects?
Select one:
A. increase the number of true positives
B. increase the number of true positives and true negatives
C. decrease the number of false positives
D. decrease the number of false positives and false negatives
C. decrease the number of false positives
161
An item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates:
Select one:
A. the relationship between the likelihood that an examinee will endorse the item and the examinee's level on the attribute measured by the test.
B. the expected number of scale items answered correctly as a function of the attribute(s) measured by the scale.
C. the expected range within which an examinee's obtained score is likely to fall given the effects of measurement error.
D. the degree to which the item is actually measuring the attribute purportedly measured by the test.
A. the relationship between the likelihood that an examinee will endorse the item and the examinee's level on the attribute measured by the test.
162
When a test's reliability coefficient is equal to 0, the standard error of measurement for the test is:
Select one:
A. equal to 0.
B. always less than 1.
C. equal to the tests standard deviation.
D. equal to the tests mean.
C. equal to the tests standard deviation.
163
A researcher conducts a study to compare three different strategies for increasing students' understanding of statistics. After administering each strategy to a different group of students, she realizes that students with the highest level of math aptitude were accidentally assigned to Strategy #1. Consequently, to compare the statistics knowledge test scores obtained by participants in the three groups, the researcher should use which of the following statistical techniques?
Select one:
A. analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
B. randomized block ANOVA
C. multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
D. split-plot ANOVA
A. analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
164
```
A research study includes three independent variables and four dependent variables. All of the dependent variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale. To control the "experimentwise error rate," it would be best to use which of the following statistical tests to analyze the data collected in this study?
Select one:
A. split-plot ANOVA
B. MANOVA
C. three-way ANOVA
D. four-way ANOVA
```
B. MANOVA
165
```
The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a research study's:
Select one:
A. internal validity only.
B. external validity only.
C. internal and external validity.
D. statistical conclusion validity.
```
C. internal and external validity.
166
When using empirical criterion keying to construct a structured personality test, items included in the test are those that:
Select one:
A. have high correlations with some items but low correlations with other items.
B. have been identified by subject matter experts as measuring the traits identified by a specific personality theory.
C. have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest.
D. have been systematically evaluated and chosen on the basis of a set of predetermined rules.
C. have been found to accurately distinguish between people who do and do not possess the traits measured by a scale or subtest.
167
```
A measure of test anxiety is administered to a sample of 50 psychologists who are studying for the licensing exam, and a split-half reliability coefficient of .80 is calculated from their scores. The test is then administered to another group of 50 psychologists who are more heterogeneous with regard to level of test anxiety. The split-half reliability coefficient for the second group is most likely to be:
Select one:
A. between .77 and .83. Incorrect
B. between .74 and .86.
C. larger than .80.
D. less than .80.
```
C. larger than .80.
168
```
A test developer uses a multitrait-multimethod matrix to organize the data she has collected in a validation study of her newly developed self-report measure of self-esteem. The matrix indicates that the correlation between her self-report measure of self-esteem and an established (previously validated) teacher rating of self-esteem is .91. This correlation coefficient suggests that the self-report measure of self-esteem has:
Select one:
A. high reliability.
B. low incremental validity.
C. adequate convergent validity.
D. adequate discriminant validity.
```
C. adequate convergent validity.
169
```
Which of the following research designs would be useful for controlling the effects of a potential confounding organismic variable on the results of a research study when participants' scores on that variable are known at the beginning of the study?
Select one:
A. counterbalanced
B. randomized block
C. Solomon four-group
D. nonequivalent groups
```
B. randomized block
170
When the homogeneity of variance assumption for the analysis of variance is violated, the results of your statistical analysis are least likely to be invalid when:
Select one:
A. the groups contain the same number of participants.
B. the DV is measured on an interval or ratio scale.
C. alpha is increased from .01 to .05.
D. a between-groups design has been used.
A. the groups contain the same number of participants.
171
```
"Autocorrelation" is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs?
Select one:
A. Solomon four-group
B. repeated measures
C. between groups
D. double-blind
```
B. repeated measures
172
```
According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all other aspects, is characteristic of the __________ stage.
Select one:
A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. preoperational
D. concrete operational
```
C. preoperational
173
When a test has high sensitivity, this means that there is a:
Select one:
A. low chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives.
B. low chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.
C. high chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives.
D. high chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.
A. low chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives.
174
An adult with traumatic brain injury is likely to obtain the lowest scores on which of the following WAIS-IV subtests?
Select one:
A. Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation
B. Block Design, Visual Puzzles, and Picture Completion
C. Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing
D. Vocabulary, Similarities, and Information
A. Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation
175
When using the split-half method to estimate the reliability of a 100-item speed test:
Select one:
A. the split of the test into halves should be done in a random way.
B. the test should be split so that the first 50 items are grouped together and the second 50 items are grouped together.
C. the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
D. the resulting reliability coefficient will underestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
C. the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.
176
A researcher conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as "stimulus generalization" would most likely do which of the following after establishing a conditioned response in her participants?
Select one:
A. Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS.
B. Repeatedly present the CS after a neutral stimulus.
C. Repeatedly present the CS without the US.
D. Pair presentation of the CS with a second US.
A. Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS.
177
You would be concerned about a selection test's differential validity for males and females when you discover that:
Select one:
A. the Y-intercept for the regression line is higher for males than for females.
B. the X-intercept for the regression line is higher for males than for females.
C. the slope of the regression lines for males and females are different.
D. females consistently obtain lower scores than males on the predictor.
C. the slope of the regression lines for males and females are different.
178
In the context of factor analysis, "specificity" refers to:
Select one:
A. the proportion of variability in a test that has not been explained by the factor analysis.
B. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by a single factor.
C. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by all of the identified factors.
D. the proportion of variability in a test that is attributable to measurement error.
A. the proportion of variability in a test that has not been explained by the factor analysis.
179
When factors in a factor matrix are "oblique," this means that:
Select one:
A. the correlation coefficient for any two factors is equal to zero.
B. the correlation coefficient for any two factors is greater than zero.
C. the identified factors explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores.
D. the identified factors do not explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores.
B. the correlation coefficient for any two factors is greater than zero.
180
The Working Memory Index of the WAIS-IV consists of which of the following subtests?
Select one:
A. Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing
B. Vocabulary, Similarities, Information, and Comprehension Incorrect
C. Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation
D. Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Visual Puzzles, Figure Weights, and Picture Completion
A. Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing
181
In terms of incremental validity, which of the following situations most supports the use of a new predictor?
Select one:
A. moderate base rate with many applicants and few job openings
B. low base rate with many applicants and few job openings
C. moderate base rate with few applicants and many job openings
D. low base rate with few applicants and many job openings
A. moderate base rate with many applicants and few job openings
182
In the assessment of cognitive abilities with a standardized test, you would most likely "test the limits":
Select one:
A. before administering the test using standardized procedures.
B. as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures.
C. after administering the test using standardized procedures.
D. whenever it seems appropriate to do so.
C. after administering the test using standardized procedures.
183
Which of the following would NOT be useful for increasing a test's reliability coefficient?
Select one:
A. increasing the sample variance
B. ensuring that the average p value is close to .50
C. increasing the heterogeneity of the content domain
D. increasing the number of items from 50 to 100
C. increasing the heterogeneity of the content domain
184
Which of the following would NOT be useful for increasing a test's reliability coefficient?
Select one:
A. increasing the sample variance
B. ensuring that the average p value is close to .50
C. increasing the heterogeneity of the content domain
D. increasing the number of items from 50 to 100
C. increasing the heterogeneity of the content domain
185
The Bonferroni test helps control the experimentwise error rate by:
Select one:
A. controlling the total number of comparisons that can be made.
B. reducing the level of significance for each comparison.
C. permitting individual comparisons only after the omnibus test has produced significant results.
D. requiring that all comparisons be conducted as two-tailed tests.
B. reducing the level of significance for each comparison.
186
```
Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) multi-component model of working memory includes all of the following components except:
Select one:
A. a phonological loop.
B. a visuo-spatial sketchpad.
C. a central executive. Incorrect
D. a semantic-abstract processor.
Feedback
```
D. a semantic-abstract processor.
| Feedback
187
A meta-analysis of the research on expressed emotion and relapse by Butzlaff and Hooley (1998) found that high levels of expressed emotion by family members:
Select one:
A. are predictive of relapse for patients with schizophrenia but not for patients with a mood or eating disorder.
B. are predictive of relapse for patients with a mood disorder or schizophrenia but not for those with an eating disorder.
C. are predictive of relapse for patients with an eating disorder or a mood disorder but not for patients with schizophrenia.
D. may be somewhat more predictive of relapse for patients with a mood or eating disorder than for patients with schizophrenia.
D. may be somewhat more predictive of relapse for patients with a mood or eating disorder than for patients with schizophrenia.
