Test Flashcards
The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and maintain the family’s stability is referred to as ________ feedback.
A. external
B. internal
C. negative
D. positive
C. negative
An assumption underlying _____________ is that observed covariation among a set of variables is due to one or more underlying common dimensions.
A. factor analysis
B. path analysis
C. trend analysis
D. multiple regression
A. factor analysis
The Bender-Gestalt II was designed to be a measure of:
A. fine motor skills.
B. visual-motor integration.
C. cognitive flexibility.
D. suicide risk.
B. visual-motor integration.
To assess the general intelligence of a six-year-old child with a severe hearing impairment, you would use which of the following tests?
A. Halstead-Reitan
B. KABC-II
C. Haptic Intelligence Test
D. Hiskey-Nebraska
D. Hiskey-Nebraska
When the relationship between the predictor (the X variable) and the criterion (the Y variable) is curvilinear and both variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale, the appropriate correlation coefficient is:
A. phi.
B. tau.
C. rho.
D. eta.
D. eta.
A behavior therapist working with a child who bites her nails sets a timer so that it rings every 5 minutes. The child is then given a reward for every 5-minute period that she doesn”t bite her nails but engages in alternative activities instead. The therapist is using which of the following techniques?
A. differential reinforcement
B. response cost
C. overcorrection
D. Premack Principle
A. differential reinforcement
Differential reinforcement is what it sounds like - i.e., it involves reinforcing behaviors other than (different from) the target behavior.
Autocorrelation is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs?
A. time-series
B. factorial
C. between groups
D. Solomon four-group
A. time-series
In Pavlov’s research, experimental animals began to salivate in response to a tone after the tone had been presented repeatedly with meat powder. In this situation, the tone was:
A. a conditioned stimulus.
B. an unconditioned stimulus.
C. a primary reinforcer.
D. a secondary reinforcer.
A. a conditioned stimulus.
Generally, the __________ branch of the autonomic nervous system activates bodily functions while the __________ branch returns the body to a resting state.
A. peripheral; central
B. central; peripheral
C. sympathetic; parasympathetic
D. parasympathetic; sympathetic
C. sympathetic; parasympathetic
Interoceptive conditioning is one of the components of the cognitive-behavioral treatment of Panic Disorder and may include which of the following strategies?
A. yelling stop whenever an undesirable thought occurs
B. maintaining a panic diary
C. focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy
D. breathing through a thin straw
D. breathing through a thin straw
Rosita R., age 32, maintains systematized paranoid delusions despite a lack of evidence for her beliefs. However, she shows almost no impairment in daily functioning other than some problems that are directly related to her delusions. The symptoms began six months ago shortly after she was fired from her job. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Rosita is:
A. Paranoid Schizophrenia.
B. Acute Stress Disorder.
C. Conversion Disorder.
D. Delusional Disorder.
D. Delusional Disorder.
When a test’s reliability has been estimated by splitting the test in half and correlating scores on the two halves, you would use which of the following to correct the resulting reliability coefficient?
A. correction for attenuation formula
B. standard error of measurement
C. Kuder-Richardson 20
D. Spearman-Brown formula
D. Spearman-Brown formula
Bandura’s social learning theory predicts that:
A. cognitive events act as intervening variables in the acquisition of a new behavior.
B. social approval is a powerful primary reinforcement.
C. reinforcement has a greater impact on learning than on performance.
D. the acquisition of new behaviors is the result of internalized S-R connections.
A. cognitive events act as intervening variables in the acquisition of a new behavior.
The intellectual disability associated with PKU is preventable with:
A. removal of environmental toxins.
B. blood transfusions.
C. a special diet.
D. antibiotics.
C. a special diet.
When assessing the test-retest reliability of your newly developed personality test, you obtain a reliability coefficient of .80. This means that:
A. 80% of variability in test scores is shared variability.
B. 64% of variability in test scores is shared variability.
C. 80% of variability in test scores is true score variability.
D. 64% of variability in test scores is true score variability.
C. 80% of variability in test scores is true score variability.
Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage?
A. reintegration
B. immersion-emersion
C. autonomy
D. integrative awareness
C. autonomy
Which of the following would be useful for determining the extent to which an examinee’s actual criterion score is likely to deviate from his/her predicted criterion score?
A. standard error of estimate
B. standard error of measurement
C. standard error of the difference
D. standard error of the mean
A. standard error of estimate
Superordinate goals have been found useful for:
A. clarifying roles.
B. maximizing satisfaction and motivation.
C. reducing intergroup conflict.
D. increasing feelings of self-efficacy.
C. reducing intergroup conflict.
For a Gestalt therapist, a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:
A. integrate the present with his/her past and future.
B. integrate the various aspects of the self.
C. develop a success identity.
D. develop a healthy style of life
B. integrate the various aspects of the self.
The theory of planned behavior (Ajzen, 1991) predicts that:
A. attitudes are the result of behaviors.
B. attitudes are the result of subjective norms, behavioral intentions, and behaviors.
C. behaviors are the result of attitudes.
D. behaviors are the result of attitudes, subjective norms, and behavioral intentions.
D. behaviors are the result of attitudes, subjective norms, and behavioral intentions.
Of 100 students surveyed on a college campus, 48 voted Republican and 52 voted Democratic in the last election. On another college campus, 63 of the 100 students surveyed voted Republican and 37 voted Democratic. Which of the following statistical tests is the appropriate technique for determining if the difference in voting preferences at the two colleges is significant?
A. two-way ANOVA
B. students t-test
C. chi-square test
D. Mann-Whitney U test
C. chi-square test
The symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are categorized in three groups in the DSM-5. These groups are:
A. destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.
B. negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior.
C. deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms.
D. angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
D. angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.
The prognosis for a child with autism is best if the child:
A. does not have delays in motor development.
B. displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
C. has one or more savant abilities.
D. does not have a family history of a mental disorder.
B. displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.
A researcher would use the randomized block ANOVA to analyze the data she has collected in order to:
A. analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.
B. control measurement (random) error.
C. evaluate the effects of an independent variable on multiple dependent variables.
D. evaluate the effects of one or more independent variables on a nominal dependent variable.
A. analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.
Which of the following techniques would be most useful for obtaining information on the cognitive processes used by students while they solve complex problems?
A. event sampling
B. situation sampling
C. functional analysis
D. protocol analysis
D. protocol analysis
Elmo E., age 5, has learned that, if he has a tantrum whenever his parents want him to eat food he doesn’t like at mealtime, his parents will let him eat something else instead in order to get Elmo to stop crying. In this situation, the parents’ behavior (letting Elmo eat something other than the disliked food) is being maintained by which of the following?
A. escape conditioning
B. avoidance conditioning
C. stimulus discrimination
D. stimulus generalization
A. escape conditioning
Elmo E., age 5, has learned that, if he has a tantrum whenever his parents want him to eat food he doesn’t like at mealtime, his parents will let him eat something else instead in order to get Elmo to stop crying. In this situation, the parents’ behavior (letting Elmo eat something other than the disliked food) is being maintained by which of the following?
A. escape conditioning
B. avoidance conditioning
C. stimulus discrimination
D. stimulus generalization
A. escape conditioning
A psychologist administers the MMPI-2 to a 36-year old man who exhibits a number of symptoms that are suggestive of neurosis. The man receives a very low K Scale score, and, on the basis of this score, the psychologist can tentatively conclude that the man:
A. tried to present himself in a favorable light. Incorrect
B. is very self-critical.
C. has a personality disorder.
D. may have an organic brain disorder.
B. is very self-critical.
Which of the following is consistent with the predictions of the James-Lange theory?
A. I think, therefore I am.
B. I’m trembling, so I must be scared
C. It’s noon so I must be hungry.
D. That was a great birthday surprise, so I must be happy.
B. I’m trembling, so I must be scared
An item discrimination index (D) of ____ indicates that all examinees in the high-scoring group and none in the low-scoring group answered the item correctly.
A. 1
B. -1
C. 0.5
D. 0.0
A. 1
The slope (steepness) of an item response curve indicates which of the following?
A. the items ability to discriminate between high and low achievers.
B. the items difficulty level
C. the susceptibility of the item to social desirability effects
D. the probability that the item can be answered correctly by guessing
A. the items ability to discriminate between high and low achievers.
In test construction, shrinkage is associated with:
A. differential validity.
B. incremental validity.
C. cross-validation.
D. process validation.
C. cross-validation.
When screening a patient for brain damage, a psychologist administers the Wisconsin Card Sort and the Halstead-Reitan Category Test. Apparently, the psychologist believes that the patient has:
A. diffuse brain damage.
B. frontal lobe damage.
C. temporal lobe damage.
D. basal ganglia damage.
B. frontal lobe damage.
For children and adolescents, a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder requires the presence of symptoms for at least:
A. six months.
B. twelve months.
C. twenty-four months.
D. thirty-six months.
B. twelve months.
The magnitude or strength of the standard error of the mean increases as:
A. the sample size increases and the population variance decreases
B. the sample size increases and the population variance increases.
C. the sample size decreases and the population variance decreases.
D. the sample size decreases and the population variance increases.
D. the sample size decreases and the population variance increases.
When using multiple regression, multicollinearity occurs when:
A. the predictors are highly correlated with one another.
B. the criterion measures are highly correlated with one another.
C. there is a low correlation between the predictors and the criterion.
D. there is a high (significant) correlation between the predictors and the criterion.
A. the predictors are highly correlated with one another.
According to Berry’s (1993) bidirectional acculturation model, ________ is characterized by low involvement in one’s own minority culture and in the majority culture.
A. moratorium
B. alienation
C. separation
D. marginalization
D. marginalization
Elmo E. is in the process of buying a new car and is having trouble deciding between two cars that are similar in terms of both positive and negative characteristics. In other words, Elmo is facing a(n) ________ conflict.
A. approach-approach
B. avoidance-avoidance
C. single approach-avoidance
D. double approach-avoidance
D. double approach-avoidance
Research suggests children’s successful adjustment to the divorce of their parents is most related to:
A. the frequency of contact with the noncustodial parent.
B. the quality of the parent-child relationships prior to the divorce.
C. the childs ability to understand the cause(s) of the divorce.
D. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents.
D. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents.
An achievement test is administered to 250 high school seniors. The test’s mean is 50, its standard deviation is 5, and the test scores are normally distributed. If you want to use test scores to select the top 16% of the students, you will set the cutoff score at which of the following?
A. 55
B. 60
C. 65
D. 70
A. 55
The belief that a child’s misbehavior has one of four goals - i.e., attention, revenge, power, or to display inadequacy - is most consistent with:
A. Becks cognitive-behavioral therapy.
B. Adlers individual psychology.
C. Perlss Gestalt therapy.
D. Mahlers object relations theory.
B. Adlers individual psychology.
Dalal D., age 21, displays several active psychotic symptoms including persecutory delusions, auditory hallucinations, incoherence, and loosening of associations. Assuming that her symptoms started suddenly three months ago and that she has no previous history of similar symptoms, your tentative diagnosis would be which of the following?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Brief Psychotic Disorder
C. Schizoaffective Disorder
D. Schizophreniform Disorder
D. Schizophreniform Disorder
A former client owes you over $600.00 in therapy fees and you are considering using a collection agency to collect the money she owes you. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
A. decide not to do so because using a collection agency is prohibited by the ethical guidelines.
B. do so only if you had informed the client at the beginning of therapy that you would do so if she did not pay her fees in a timely manner.
C. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.
D. use a collection agency only as a last resort.
C. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.
Samuel S., age 43, says, “Even though I’ve just been given a bonus at work, I feel like I’m about to be fired.” As defined by Aaron Beck, Samuel is exhibiting which of the following cognitive distortions?
A. mustabatory thinking
B. polarized thinking
C. personalization
D. arbitrary inference
D. arbitrary inference
Holland’s theory about the importance of matching a person’s personality with his/her work environment predicts that a person with a realistic orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that:
A. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity.
B. require manual or technical skills and concrete problem-solving.
C. require systematic manipulation and organization of data.
D. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving.
B. require manual or technical skills and concrete problem-solving.
The primary goal of a newly developed community-based mental health program is to help people recently released from a psychiatric hospital adjust to life in the community. This is an example of:
A. primary prevention.
B. secondary prevention.
C. tertiary prevention.
D. crisis intervention.
C. tertiary prevention.
Heteroscedasticity in a scattergram suggests that:
A. the relationship between the predictor and criterion cannot be described by a straight line.
B. there is a restriction of range of scores on the predictor and/or the criterion.
C. the variability (range) of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor.
D. there is a statistically significant correlation between the predictor and criterion.
C. the variability (range) of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor.
The developer of a new occupational interest test conducts a study to determine which test items accurately distinguish between people who are employed in different occupations. This test developer is using which of the following methods of scale construction? A. empirical criterion keying B. homogeneous keying C. factor analysis D. multiple regression analysis
A. empirical criterion keying
Asking the “miracle question” is an initial intervention in which type of therapy?
A. transtheoretical
B. interpersonal
C. REBT
D. solution-focused
D. solution-focused
Freud described countertransference as the analyst’s transference to the patient, which may interfere with the analyst’s functioning in therapy. More recently, psychoanalysts have begun to view countertransference as:
A. even more detrimental than Freud to the normal progress of therapy.
B. an aid for the analyst for gaining insight into the patient’s inner world.
C. an aid for the analyst in helping the client recognize how his/her behavior impacts on others.
D. an opportunity for the analyst to respond to the client in an authentic way.
B. an aid for the analyst for gaining insight into the patient’s inner world.
A 16-month-old child who calls her pet cat “kitty” sees a dog for the first time and calls it “kitty.” In terms of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the child is displaying:
A. assimilation.
B. accommodation.
C. categorization.
D. centration.
A. assimilation.
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
A. one or more manic episodes
B. one or more mixed episodes
C. manic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
A DSM diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?
A. one or more manic episodes
B. one or more mixed episodes
C. manic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
D. hypomanic and major depressive episodes
Babbling ordinarily begins at about 4 to 5 months of age and initially includes:
A. phonemes from all languages.
B. phonemes from the childs native language only.
C. morphemes from all languages.
D. morphemes that the child has heard most frequently.
A. phonemes from all languages.
When a predictor’s reliability coefficient is .81, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be:
A. no less than .81.
B. no greater than .81.
C. no less than .90.
D. no greater than .90.
D. no greater than .90.
Which of the following best illustrates deindividuation?
A. A usually quiet, reserved person acts uncharacteristically violent in a crowd because he is able to do so anonymously.
B. A victim of a crime is more likely to receive assistance when the crime occurs in a rural area rather than in a city.
C. In a group decision-making situation, there is a tendency for critical-thinking to be suspended when group cohesiveness is very strong.
D. A group member reduces his/her effort when he/she thinks other members are not exerting maximum effort.
A. A usually quiet, reserved person acts uncharacteristically violent in a crowd because he is able to do so anonymously.
You would use the Solomon four-group design in order to:
A. eliminate carryover effects.
B. reduce demand characteristics.
C. evaluate the impact of pretesting.
D. evaluate the effects of history and maturation.
C. evaluate the impact of pretesting.
During the second stage of Kohlberg’s preconventional level of moral development, children obey rules because:
A. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws.
B. everyone else is doing it.
C. doing so helps them avoid punishment.
D. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.
D. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.
Implosive therapy and flooding share in common which of the following?
A. They both involve exposure to an unconditioned (aversive) stimulus. Incorrect
B. They are both based on counterconditioning.
C. They both involve the use of negative reinforcement.
D. They both lead to extinction of the undesirable response.
D. They both lead to extinction of the undesirable response.
When using the Premack Principle to modify a behavior, the reinforcer is:
A. applied intermittently.
B. a generalized conditioned reinforcer.
C. a behavior that occurs frequently.
D. a stimulus that naturally elicits the desired behavior.
C. a behavior that occurs frequently.
Huntington’s disease is an:
A. autosomal dominant disorder.
B. autosomal recessive disorder.
C. X-linked dominant disorder.
D. X-linked recessive disorder.
A. autosomal dominant disorder.
The three components of attitudes are:
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
B. aptitude, affect, and cognition.
C. evaluation, experience, and application.
D. knowledge, evaluation, and action.
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
The three components of attitudes are:
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
B. aptitude, affect, and cognition.
C. evaluation, experience, and application.
D. knowledge, evaluation, and action.
A. affect, cognition, and behavior.
With regard to attitude change, inoculation is useful for:
A. increasing a persons resistance to persuasion.
B. reducing a communicator’s anxiety prior to delivering a message to a hostile audience.
C. distracting a person from a communicator’s message.
D. ensuring that attitude change represents internalization rather than mere compliance.
A. increasing a persons resistance to persuasion
Parametric statistical tests are usually preferable to non-parametric tests because they are more “powerful.” This means that the use of a parametric test to analyze the data collected in a research study helps ensure that:
A. a false null hypothesis will be retained.
B. a true null hypothesis will be retained.
C. a false null hypothesis will be rejected.
D. the null hypothesis will be rejected.
C. a false null hypothesis will be rejected.
Our eyes have near and distance focal points. As part of the normal aging process, we are most likely to experience which of the following?
A. our near focal point will move away from our eyes
B. our near focal point will move closer to our eyes
C. our near focal point will remain the same but our distance focal point will move away from our eyes
D. our near focal point will remain the same but our distance focal point will move closer to our eyes
A. our near focal point will move away from our eyes
In contrast to traditional approaches to psychotherapy, culturally sensitive approaches attempt to understand a client’s experience of an illness within the client’s cultural context. In other words, culturally sensitive approaches adopt an ______ perspective.
Select one:
A. emic
B. etic
C. emetic
D. endogenous
A. emic
The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) was designed as a measure of receptive vocabulary for:
A. adolescents and adults with a visual impairment.
B. children and adolescents with a hearing impairment.
C. children, adolescents, and adults with autism.
D. children, adolescents, and adults with a motor or speech impairment.
D. children, adolescents, and adults with a motor or speech impairment.
Which of the following is true about the sleep of older adults?
A. They have less REM sleep but more Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.
B. They have a decreased need for sleep. Incorrect
C. They often experience an advanced sleep phase.
D. They often experience a delayed sleep phase.
C. They often experience an advanced sleep phase.
A DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires a history of symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to ___ years of age.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 13
D. 15
D. 15
In terms of the parenting styles identified by Baumrind and her colleagues (1991), independent self-confident adolescents are most likely to have parents who are:
A. authoritative.
B. authoritarian.
C. permissive.
D. traditional.
A. authoritative.
In most situations, the “holder of the privilege” is:
A. the therapist.
B. the client.
C. the therapist and client jointly.
D. the court.
B. the client.
There is evidence that the _____________ plays a role in the etiology of seasonal affective disorder (SAD).
A. red nucleus
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. tectum
D. striatum
B. suprachiasmatic nucleus
According to Albert Ellis, maladaptive behavior is caused primarily by which of the following?
A. learned helplessness
B. boundary disturbances
C. a lack of response-contingent reinforcement
D. irrational thoughts and beliefs
D. irrational thoughts and beliefs
An educational psychologist designs a screening test to identify underachieving first- and second-grade children who have a learning disability. The psychologist will probably be most concerned that her test has adequate __________ validity.
A. content
B. construct
C. concurrent
D. predictive
C. concurrent
