Test Flashcards by Jake Frost

What is the benefit of using Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?

A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations
B. Unique SSIDs cannot use th esame authentication method
C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs
D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

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Which network allows the devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24

172.28.0.0/16

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When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two
formats are available to select? (Choose two)

A. ASCII
B. base64
C. binary
D. decimal
E. hexadecimal

ASCII

hexadecimal

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An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the
organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

A. platform-as-a-service
B. software-as-a-service
C. network-as-a-service
D. infrastructure-as-a-service

Infrastructure-as-a-service

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Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.16.143 255.255.255.240
Bad mask /28 for address 192.168.16.143
Which Statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

A. It is a broadcast IP address
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It belongs to a private IP address range
D. It is network IP address

It is a broadcast IP address

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Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router
or switch?

A. enable secret
B. service password-encryption
C. username Cisco password encrypt
D. enable password

service password-encryption

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A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

A. runts
B. giants
C. frame
D. CRC
E. input errors

CRC
input errors

Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose
bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the
FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of
input error.
Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how
the FCS math detects an error.
The “input errors” includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
The output below show the interface counters with the “show interface s0/0/0” command:

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Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

A. ip address dhcp
B. ip helper-address
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp client

ip address dhcp

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Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A. YAML
B. JSON
C. EBCDIC
D. SGML
E. XML

YAML

XML

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Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable.
What is the result of this configuration?

A. The link is in a down state.
B. The link is in an error disables state
C. The link becomes an access port
D. The link becomes a trunk port

The link becomes a trunk port

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When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A. 2000::/3
B. 2002::5
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::2

FF02::1
FF02::2

When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and
solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all-node group is used to communicate with
all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer
address resolution. Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2).

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Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3711.0975
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070/AB01

A. 0000.5E00.010a

With VRRP, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group

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In which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional
access ports are required?

A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and
leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency,
nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.
Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and
leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf
switches.
Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet
routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every
leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh.
Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.

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Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

A. TKIP with RC4
B. RC4
C. AES-128
D. AES-256

AES-256

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Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose
two)

A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets
B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity
C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets
D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up
E. it supports protocol discovery

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

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When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when
the primary route fails?

A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is
used as a backup
B. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route
becomes secondary.
C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is
used as a backup
D. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into
the routing table

A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is
used as a backup

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Refer to the exhibit

Atlanta#conf t
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/z.
Atlanta (config)#aaa new-model
Atlanta (config)#aaa authentication login default local
Atlanta (config)#line vty 0 4
Atlanta (config-line)#login authentication default
Atlanta (config-line)#exit
Atlanta (config)#username ciscoadmin password adminadmin123
Atlanta (config)#username ciscoadmin privilege 15
Atlanta (config)#enable password cisco123
Atlanta (config)#enable secret testing1234
Atlanta (config)#end

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

A. adminadmin123
B. default
C. testing 1234
D. cisco123

testing 1234

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How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK
bits

C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

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Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A. autonomous
B. lightweight
C. bridge
D. mobility express

lightweight

A Lightweight Access Point (LAP) is an AP that is designed to be connected to a wireless LAN (WLAN)
controller (WLC). APs are “lightweight,” which means that they cannot act independently of a
wireless LAN controller (WLC). The WLC manages the AP configurations and firmware. The APs are
“zero touch” deployed, and individual configuration of APs is not necessary

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Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A. Bronze
B. Platinum
C. Silver
D. Gold

Platinum

Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice,
Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.

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If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A. A network device has restarted
B. An ARP inspection has failed
C. A routing instance has flapped
D. A debug operation is running

A routing instance has flapped

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What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

A. OpenFlow
B. NETCONF
C. Thrift
D. CORBA
E. DSC

OpenFlow
NETCONF

OpenFlow is a well-known southbound API. OpenFlow defines the way the SDN Controller should
interact with the forwarding plane to make adjustments to the network, so it can better adapt to
changing business requirements.
The Network Configuration Protocol (NetConf) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) to install,
manipulate and delete configuration to network devices

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An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security
organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained
malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A. Physical access control
B. Social engineering attack
C. brute force attack
D. user awareness

user awareness

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An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet
mask combination meets this criteria?

Interface e0/0
description to HQ-A371:19452
ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

Interface e0/0
description to HQ-A371:19452
ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252

Interface e0/0
description to HQ-A371:19452
ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248

Interface e0/0
description to HQ-A371:19452
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248

Interface e0/0
description to HQ-A371:19452
ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

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What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

Refer to the exhibit R2#show ip nat translations Pro Inside global Inside local tcp 172.23.104.3: 43268 10.4.4.4:43268 tcp 172.23.10.4: 45507 10.4.4.5:45507

Question 30 | 172.23.104.4

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks? A. CPU ACL B. TACACS C. Flex ACL D. RADIUS

CPU ACL

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

C. ipv6 address autoconfig The “ipv6 address autoconfig” command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the interface. Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA) messages. The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP Server). This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from: + Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address) + Link Prefix (obtained via RA) Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two) A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel. B. Administratively shut down the ports C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99 D. Configure the ports as trunk ports E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Administratively shutdown the ports Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

Which output displays a JSON data representation? ``` { "response": { "taskld":{}, "url":"string" }, "version":"string" ```

Question 34 C. Option C JSON data is written as name/value pairs. A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value: “name”:”Mark” JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null. For example: { “name”:”John”, “age”:30, “cars”:[ “Ford”, “BMW”, “Fiat” ] } JSON can have empty object like “taskId”:{}

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? A. lldp timer B. lldp holdtimt C. lldp reinit D. lldp tlv-select

lldp reinit + lldp holdtime seconds: Specify the amount of time a receiving device should hold the information from your device before discarding it + lldp reinit delay: Specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on an interface + lldp timer rate: Set the sending frequency of LLDP updates in seconds

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? A. CDP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. ARP

SNMP

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right Configure BPDU guard. Configure dynamic ARP inspection. Configure root guard. Configure VACL. 802.1q double tagging ARP spoofing Unwanted superior BPDUs unwanted BPDUs on PortFast-enabled interfaces

Configure BPDU guard- unwanted BPDUs on portfast -Configure VACL. Configure dynamic ARP inspection - ARP spoofing Configure root guard- Unwanted superior BPDUs -Unwanted superior BPDUs Configure VACL- 801.q double tagging - unwanted BPDUs on PortFast-enabled interfaces

DRAG AND DROP Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right SMTP Connection Oriented SNMP TFTP VoIP Connectionless SSH FTP

Connection Oriented FTP SNMP SSH Connectionless TFTP VoIP SMTP

DRAG DROP A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used netmask Must be unique OSPF process ID router ID IP address Must match area ID timers

Must be unique router ID IP address Must Match netmask area ID timers

Refer to the Exhibit (question 40) An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two ) A. Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. B. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101 D. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1 E. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of the ACL 101 for allowed traffic The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

Refer to the exhibit. (Question 41) Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32? A. floating static route B. host route C. default route D. network route

Network route

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? A. on B. auto C. active D. desirable

On The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8

FF00::/8 FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast and this is the IPv6 type of address the question wants to ask. FE80::/10 range is used for link-local addresses. Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).

Drag and Drop (Question 44) Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right Holds the TCP/IP setting to be distributed to the clients Resolves web URLs to IP addresses Stores a list of IP addresses mapped to names Assigns a default gateway to a client Assigns IP addresses to enabled clients Network Components - DHCP SERVER - DNS SERVER

DHCP SERVER Holds the TCP/IP setting to be distributed to the clients Assigns a default gateway to a client Assigns IP addresses to enabled clients DNS SERVER Resolves web URLs to IP addresses Stores a list of IP addresses mapped to names

DRAG DROP (Question 4) Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right. DESCRIPTIONS Fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest Uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs Uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements Uses SSH for remote device communication Uses TCP 8140 for communication Uses YAML for fundamental configuration elements CONFIGURATION- MANAGEMENT TECHNOLOGIES Ansible Chef Puppet

Ansible Uses YAML for fundamental configuration elements Uses SSH for remote device communication Chef Uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs Uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements Puppet Uses TCP 8140 for communication fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest

``` DRAG DROP (Question 6) Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right ``` DESCRIPTIONS OF FILE-TRANSFER PROTOCOLS Provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up Does not require user authentication Uses port 69 Uses ports 20 and 21 Uses TCP Uses UDP PROTOCOLS FTP TFTP

FTP Provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up Uses ports 20 and 21 Uses TCP TFTP Does not require user authentication Uses port 69 Uses UDP

``` DRAG DROP (Question 11) Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. ``` ``` WLAN COMPONENTS Access point virtual interface dynamic interface service port wireless LAN controller ``` DESCRIPTIONS Device that manages access points Device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network Used for out of band management of a WLC Used to support mobility management of the WLC Applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication

- Device that manages access points - wireless LAN controller - Device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network - Access point - Used for out of band management of a WLC - service port - Used to support mobility management of the WLC - virtual interface - Applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication - dynamic interface

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols. (Question 8) A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count

administrative distance

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two) A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right AAA FUNCTIONS Records user activities Restricts the services that are available to a user Identifies the user Controls the actions that a user can perform Provides analytical information for the network administrator Verifies the password associated with a user. AAA SERVICES Authentication Authorization Accounting

Authentication - Identifies the user - Verifies the password associated with a user. Authorization - Restricts the services that are available to a user - Controls the actions that a user can perform Accounting - Records user activities - Provides analytical information for the network administrator

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. it enables BPDU messages B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state

B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

Refer to the exhibit. ``` Which command provides this output? A. show ip route B. show ip interface C. show interface D. show cdp neighbor ```

show cdp neighbor

Refer to the exhibit. Router# Capability Codes: R-Router, T- Trans Bridge, B- Source Route Bridge S-Switch, H- Host, IGMP, r- Repeater, P-Phone, D-Remote, C-CVTA, M-Two-port Mac Relay Device ID Local Intrfrce Holdtime Capability Platform Port ID 10. 1.1.2 Gig 37/3 176 RI CPT600 Gig36/41 10. 1.1.2 Gig 37/1 174 RI CPT600 Gig36/43 10. 1.1.2 Gig 36/41 134 RI CPT600 Gig37/3 10. 1.1.2 Gig 36/43 134 RI CPT600 Gig37/1 10. 1.1.2 Ten 3/2 132 RI CPT600 Ten 4/2 10. 1.1.2 Ten 4/2 174 RI CPT600 Ten 3/2 ``` Which command provides this output? A. show ip route B. show ip interface C. show interface D. show cdp neighbor ```

show cdp neighbor

Refer to the Exhibit. Switch 1 Switch 2 Name: Gi0/1 Name: Gi0/1 Switchport: Enabled Switchport: Enabled Administrative Mode: Trunk Administrative Mode: Trunk Operational Mode: Trunk Operational Mode: Trunk ... ... Trunking Native VLAN: 1 (default) Trunking Native VLAN: 99 After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected? A. There is a native VLAN mismatch B. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. C. The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN D. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

A. There is a native VLAN mismatch

Which 802.11 frame type is association response? A. management B. protected frame C. control D. action

A. management

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? A. overlay B. northbound C. underlay D. southbound

southbound

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage C. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? ``` A. outside global B. outside local C. inside global D. inside local E. outside public F. inside public ```

inside global

Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two ) A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto D. interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk E. interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management? A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs. B. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode. C. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements in a brownfield deployment. D. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

Refer to the exhibit. ``` IBGP route 10.0.0.0/30 RIP route 10.0.0.0/30 OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16 OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32 ``` A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two) ``` A. RIP route 10.0.0.0/30 B. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30 C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32 E. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16 ```

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 | EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table? A. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric B. it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router C. it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric D. it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnet AP mode? A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC B. FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC C. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R1#Conf t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip default-route 192.168.1.1 R1#Conf t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 R1#Conf t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 R1#Conf t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

R1#Conf t R1(config)#ip routing R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external host

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server? A. A TCP connection has been torn down B. An ICMP connection has been built C. An interface line has changed status D. A certificate has expired

An interface line has changed status

Refer to the image SW# show spanning-tree vlan 30 VLAN 0030 Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp Root ID Priority 32798 Address 0025.63e9.c800 Cost 19 Port 1 (FastEthernet 2/1) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 30 sec Forward Delay 20 Sec [Output suppressed] What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two ) A. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1 B. This is a root bridge C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

The spanning tree mode is PVST + | The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two) A. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server. D. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol B. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol C. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol D. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

Refer to the exhibit EIGRP: 192.168.12.0/24 RIP: 192.168.12.0/27 OSPF: 192.168.12.0/28 How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16? A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. B. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. C. it load-balances traffic between all three routes D. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network? A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller B. Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller C. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller. D. The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller

Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right. ``` ATTACK MITIGATION TECHNIQUES configure 802.1x authentication configure DHCP snooping Configure the native VLAN with a nondefault VLAN ID disable DTP ``` ``` TYPES OF ATTACK 802.1q double-tagging VLAN-hopping attack MAC flooding attack Man-in-the-middle spoofing attack switch-spoofing VLAN-hopping attack ```

802.1q double-tagging VLAN-hopping attack Configure the native VLAN with a nondefault VLAN ID MAC flooding attack configure 802.1x authentication Man-in-the-middle spoofing attack configure DHCP snooping switch-spoofing VLAN-hopping attack disable DTP

Refer to the Exhibit G0/1 G0/1 SW1 ------------------------------------------------------------------SW2 | | | | | | | | PC_A PC_B The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task? A. switchport access vlan 67 B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67 C. switchport private-vlan association host 67 D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

switchport trunk native vlan 67

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two) A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses B. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses C. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically. E. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two) ``` A. OSPF area B. OSPF MD5 authentication key C. IPv6 address D. OSPf process ID E. OSPf stub flag ```

OSPF area OSPF process ID

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two ) A. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router C. Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them D. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN E. The two routers share the same interface IP address and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. B. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel. C. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. E. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels

Refer to the Exhibit Router1#show ip route Gateway of last resort is 10.10.11.2 to network 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.0/27 is subnetted, 1 subnets .... S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.10.11.2 Which is the path used for Internet traffic A. 209.165.200.0/27 B. 10.10.10.0/28 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. 10.10.13.0/24

0.0.0.0/0

Refer to the Exhibit E0/0 E0/0 E0/1 E0/1 R1------------------------------SW1----------------------------------------------------SW2 Int Ethernet0/0 Int Ethernet 0/0 Int Ethernet0/1 no ip address Switchport trunk encap dot1q Switchport trunk encap dot1q ! Switchport mode trunk Switchport mode trunk ! ! Interface Ethernet0/1 Interface Ethernet0/2 Switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 switchport access vlan 20 Switchport trunk encap dot1q switchport mode access What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24? A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture? A. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware B. reports device errors to a controller C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

Refer to the exhibit ip arp inspection vlan 2-10 interface fastethernet 0/1 ip arp inspection trust If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1? A. DHCP client B. access point C. router D. PC

router

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol? A. It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information. B. It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination. C. It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric. D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

RTR1 | G0/0 172.16.1.62 RTR-1 | interface Loopback1 | ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 | ! | interface Loopback2 SW1 ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 | ! | interface Loopback3 | ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 | ! | interface GigabitEthernet0/0 PC1 172.16.1.33/27 ip address 172.16.1.62 255.255.255.224 Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic? A. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in B. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in C. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in D. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.) A. It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user. B. It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access. C. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site. D. It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality E. It encourages users to create stronger passwords

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site. It encourages users to create stronger passwords

``` Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching? A. WSA B. Firepower C. ASA D. FireSIGHT ```

WSA

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection? A. worm B. malware C. DDoS D. man-in-the-middle

man-in-the-middle

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two) A. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations B. encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default C. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address E. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only. B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only. C. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only. D. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

Refer to the Exhibit Gateway of last resort is not set C 1.0.0.0/8 is directly connected, Loopback0 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks O 10.0.1.3/32 [110/100] via 10.0.1.3, 00:39:08, Serial0 C 10.0.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks O 10.0.1.5/32 [110/5 via 10.0.1.50, 00:39:08, serial0 O 10.0.1.4/32 [110/10 via 10.0.1.4, 00:39:08, serial0 What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5? A. 10.0.1.3 B. 10.0.1.50 C. 10.0.1.4 D. Loopback D

10.0.1.50

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking? A. controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network. B. controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs C. Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors D. Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function E. controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption? A. ISATAP B. GRE over iPsec C. iPsec over ISATAP D. GRE

GRE over iPsec

Switch1 | | VLAN200 | | VLAN200 | | PC_A___________| |_______________PC_B Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B? A. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own. B. The source MAC address is changed. C. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same. D. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.fff

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic. B. The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active". C. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. D. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

Refer to the exhibit SW4-----------------------------------------------------SW1 | | | | | | | | SW2--------------------------------------------------SW3 Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:94:04 SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:0E:18:A1:B3:19

SW3

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic? A. firewall B. switch C. access point D. wireless controller

Firewall

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750? A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685 B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440 D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

Refer to the exhibit SW1-----------------------------------------------------SW4 | | | | | | | | SW2--------------------------------------------------SW3 Which switch becomes the root bridge? SW1: Bridge Priority: 32768 MAC: AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA SW2: Bridge Priority: 30000 MAC: BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB SW3: Bridge Priority: 30000 MAC: CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC SW4: Bridge Priority: 32768 MAC: DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD

SW2

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function? A. SMTP B. SNMP C. TCP D. FTP

SNMP

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information? A. data plane B. control plane C. policy plane D. management plane

Control Plane

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching

broadband cable access

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two) ``` A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing ```

asychronous routing dual-homed branches

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process? A. local port ID B. lowest path cost to the root bridge C. lowest neighbor's bridge ID D. lowest neighbor's port ID

lowest path cost to the root bridge

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled? A. learning B. forwarding C. blocking D. listening

forwarding

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process? A. local port ID B. lowest path cost to the root bridge C. lowest neighbor's bridge ID D. lowest neighbor's port ID

lowest path cost to the root bridge

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller? A. register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints. B. use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients. C. send LWAPP packets to access points. D. monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

send LWAPP packets to access points. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. This can reduce the amount of time spent on configuring, monitoring or troubleshooting a large network. The system will also allow network administrators to closely analyze the network.

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server? A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool B. a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names C. usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain D. a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. platform-as-a-service C. business process as service to support different types of service D. software-as-a-service

software-as-a-service

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap? A. switchport port-security violation access B. switchport port-security violation protect C. switchport port-security violation restrict D. switchport port-security violation shutdown

switchport port-security violation restrict

Refer to the exhibit Cisco_ospf_vrf {"R1 default": ensure => 'present', auto_cost => '100', } Which type of configuration is represented in the output? A. Ansible B. JSON C. Chef D. Puppet

Puppet

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two) A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN C. moves packets within a VLAN D. moves packets between different VLANs E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Moves packets within a VLAN makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state? A. BPDUfilter B. PortFast C. Backbonefast D. BPDUguard

PortFast

DRAG DROP Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right. ``` -IPv6 DNS RECORD TYPES AAAA CNAME NS PTR SOA ``` -DESCRIPTIONS alias one name to another associates the domain serial number with its owner correlates a domain with its authoritative name servers correlates a host name with an IP address supports reverse name lookups

alias one name to another CNAME associates the domain serial number with its owner SOA correlates a domain with its authoritative name servers NS correlates a host name with an IP address AAAA supports reverse name lookups PTR https://ns1.com/resources/dns-types-records-servers-and-queries#:~:text=Address%20Mapping%20record%20(A%20Record,a%20hostname%20to%20another

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency? A. different nonoverlapping channels B. different overlapping channels C. one overlapping channel D. one nonoverlapping channel

different nonoverlapping channels

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? A. enforcing routing policies B. marking interesting traffic for data polices C. attaching users to the edge of the network D. applying security policies

enforcing routing policies

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two) A. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering B. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests C. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers E. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

Runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled? A. forwarding B. listening C. blocking D. learning

forwarding

switchport port-security violation restrict

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding? A. management plane B. control plane C. policy plane D. data plane

data plane

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200? A. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440 B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422 C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0 D. spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right. ``` SNMP COMPONENTS MIB SNMP agent SNMP manager SNMP trap ``` DESCRIPTIONS collection of variables that can be monitored unsolicited message responds to status requests and requests for information about a device resides on an NMS

collection of variables that can be monitored MIB unsolicited message SNMP manager responds to status requests and requests for information about a device SNMP trap resides on an NMS SNMP agent

Refer to the exhibit After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN? Switch 1: 0C:E0:38:58:15:77 Switch 2: 0C:E0:15:22:1A:61 Switch 3: 0C:E0:15:1D:3C:9A Switch 4: 0C:E0:19:A1:4D:16

Switch 3

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view? A. read B. create C. replace D. update

update

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken? A. configure IEEE 802.1p B. configure IEEE 802.1q C. configure ISL D. configure DSCP

B. configure IEEE 802.1q

What is a function of a remote access VPN? A. used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously B. used exclusively when a user is connected to a company's internal network C. establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

What is a DHCP client? A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts. D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two) A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service. B. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network. C. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices. D. Ensure timely data transfer between layers. E. Inspect packets for malicious activity.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service. Ensure timely data transfer between layers

Refer to the Exhibit interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0 ip address-group 2699 in ! access-list 2699 deny icmp any 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 echo access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 2699 permit ip any 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22 A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task? A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22 C. access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22 D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks? A. Enable dynamic ARP inspection B. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID D. Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

Refer to the exhibit ________ _________ | Site A | Router1=======================Router2| Site B | |________| |_________| Router2#show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks C 10.10.10.8/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2 C 10.10.10.12/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/11] via 10.10.10.9, 00:00:03. FastEthernet0/2 [110/11] via 10.10.10.13, 00:00:03. FastEthernet0/1 C 10.10.10.4/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2 If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A? A. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2. B. It is unreachable and discards the traffic. C. It sends packets out of interface FaO/2. D. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

What is the purpose of traffic shaping? A. to mitigate delays over slow links B. to provide fair queuing for buffered flows C. to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to D. be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time.

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP? A. on the router closest to the server B. on the router closest to the client C. on every router along the path D. on the switch trunk interface

on the router closest to the client

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name? A. SNMP B. DNS lookup C. syslog D. NTP

DNS lookup

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two) ``` A. relay agent information B. database agent C. address pool D. smart-relay E. manual bindings ```

address pool manual bindings

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right ``` QOS CONGESTION MANAGEMENT TERMS CBWFQ CQ FIFO PQ WFQ ``` DESCRIPTIONS place packets into one of four priority-based queues provides guaranteed bandwidth to a specified class of traffic provides minimum guaranteed bandwidth to one or more flows services a specified number of bytes in one queue before continuing to the next queue uses store-and-forward queueing

place packets into one of four priority-based queues PQ ``` provides guaranteed bandwidth to a specified class of traffic CBWFQ ``` provides minimum guaranteed bandwidth to one or more flows WFQ services a specified number of bytes in one queue before continuing to the next queue PQ uses store-and-forward queueing FIFO

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit e0 s0 Web server--------------------------R1-----------------------Internet 172.16.1.2 ``` Interface Ethernet0 POSITION A POSITION B Interface Serial 0 POSITION C POSITION D POSITION E POSITION F access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 ``` An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver. Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right. CONFIGURATION COMMANDS ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip address 45.83.2.214 255.255.255.240 ip nat inside ip nat inside source list 1 interface s0 overload ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.1.2 80 45.83.2.214 80 extendable ip nat outside ``` POSITION IN CONFIGURATION POSITION A POSITION B POSITION C POSITION D POSITION E POSITION F ```

POSITION A ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 POSITION B ip nat inside POSITION C ip address 45.83.2.214 255.255.255.240 POSITION D ip nat outside POSITION E ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.1.2 80 45.83.2.214 80 extendable POSITION F ip nat inside source list 1 interface s0 overload

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right ``` DHCP SNOOPING TERMS dhcp server snooping binding database spurious DHCP server trusted untrusted ``` DESCRIPTIONS list of hosts on the network that are unknown to the administrative domain network component that propagates IP addresses to hosts on the network internal device under the control of the network administrator unknown DHCP server within an administrative domain default state of all interfaces

list of hosts on the network that are unknown to the administrative domain -snooping binding database network component that propagates IP addresses to hosts on the network - DHCP server internal device under the control of the network administrator -trusted unknown DHCP server within an administrative domain - spurious dhcp server default state of all interfaces -untrusted

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network? A. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network B. support standalone or controller-based architectures C. serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network D. provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment? A. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network C. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Refer to the exhibit Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110? Switch 1 Vlan 110 - 32278 0018.184e.3c00 Switch 2 Vlan 110 - 24586 001a.e3ff.a680 Switch 3 Vlan 110 - 28682 0022.55cf.cc00 Switch 4 Vlan 110 - 64000 0e38.7363.657f

Switch 2

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through? A. wireless access point B. firewall C. wireless LAN controller D. router

wireless LAN controller

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right. NETWORK ARCHITECTURES single device handles the core and the distributions layer enhances network availability more cost-effective than other options most appropriate for small network designs separate devices handle the core and the distribution layer TYPE OF ARCHITECTURES Collapsed Core (Pick3) Three-Tier (pick 2)

Collapsed Core (pick 3) -single device handles the core and the distributions layer -more cost-effective than other options -most appropriate for small network designs Three-Tier (pick 2) - enhances network availability - separate devices handle the core and the distribution layer

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address? A. lt drops the frame immediately. B. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1. C. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1. D. It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right ``` SNMP MANAGER show snmp chassis show snmp community show snmp engineID show snmp group show snmp host ``` ANGENT IDENTIFIER displays information about the SNMP recipient displays the IP address of the remote SNMP device displays the SNMP security model in use displays the SNMP access string displays the SNMP server serial number

displays information about the SNMP recipient -show snmp host displays the IP address of the remote SNMP device -show snmp engineID displays the SNMP security model in use -show snmp group displays the SNMP access string -show snmp community displays the SNMP server serial number -show snmp chassis

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server? A. a DHCP Relay Agent B. DHCP Binding C. a DHCP Pool D. DHCP Snooping

a DHCP Relay Agent

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization? A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11 C. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing D. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

Refer to the exhibit switch(config)#interface gigabitEthernet 1/11 switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast switch(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard enable What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU? A. The port transitions to STP blocking B. The port transitions to the root port C. The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding. D. The port goes into error-disable state

The port goes into error-disable state

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table? A. VTP B. DTP C. egress traffic D. ingress traffic

ingress traffic

Refer to the exhibit | | G0/3 | G0/2 SW1---------------------------------------------------------------SW2 G0/0 / \ G0/1 / \ / \ / \ PC1 PC2 PC3 PC4 PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1? A. It forwards it out G0/3 only B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0. C. It drops the frame. D. It forwards it out interface G0/2 only

It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI? A. initiates a ping request to the URL B. prompts the user to specify the desired IP address C. continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.) ``` A. asynchronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing ```

asynchronous routing dual-homed branches

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person? A. intrusion detection B. user awareness C. physical access control D. network authorization

physical access control

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point? A. TACACS server B. wireless access point C. RADIUS server D. wireless LAN controller

wireless access point

What is a benefit of VRRP? A. It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source. B. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers. C. It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other. D. It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two) ``` A. listening B. blocking C. forwarding D. learning E. speaking ```

forwarding learning

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address? A. ARP B. DHCP C. CDP D. DNS

DHCP

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method? A. read B. update C. create D. delete

read

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization? A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. B. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. C. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization. D. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

Refer to the exhibit Gi0/0 Gi0/1 ---------------------HQ_Router-------------------- | | 10.100.100.0/24 | | 192.168.0.0/16 | | | | Firewall Firewall An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied? A. ip access-list standard 99 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 B. ip access-list standard 99 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255 C. ip access-list standard 199 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.255.255.255 D. ip access-list standard 199 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

ip access-list standard 99 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.255 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 43.7 Mbps

1.544 Mbps

What is a DNS lookup operation? A. DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available B. serves requests over destination port 53 C. DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down D. responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Refer to the exhibit 192.168.0.10/23 192.168.1.20/23 PC_A File Server | | | | | | Gi0/4 | Gi0/1 Gi0/1 | Gi0/3 SW_A---------------------------------------------------------------------------SW_B Switch A | Switch B Vlan 10, 11, 12, 13 | Vlan 10, 11, 12, 13 | Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 | interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk | switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12 | ! ! | Interface GigabitEthernet 0/4 | Interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 switchport access vlan 13 | switchport access vlan 13 switchport mode access | switchport mode access A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured? A. Switch trunk allowed vlan 12 B. Switchport trunk allowed vlan none C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13 D. Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment? A. WPA2 + AES B. WPA + AES C. WEP D. WPA + TKIP

WPA2 + AES

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network? A. connects each switch to every other switch in the network B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection C. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users D. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

Refer to the exhibit Import ncclient with ncclient.manager.connect(host='192.168.1.1' , port=830, username='root' , password='teset123!' , allow_agent=False) as m: print (m.get_config('running').data_xml) After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration? A. Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration. B. Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument. C. Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument. D. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server? A. disk B. applications C. VM configuration file D. operating system

VM configuration file

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability? A. partial mesh B. full mesh C. point-to-point D. hub-and-spoke

full mesh

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it? A. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default B. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default C. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk D. switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

spanning-tree portfast trunk

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two) ``` A. Layer 2 forwarding B. coordinating VTNs C. tracking host D. managing the topology E. protecting against DDoS attacks ```

coordinating VTNs managing the topology

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate? A. Layer 2 switch B. load balancer C. firewall D. LAN controller

firewall

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed? A. default-router B. default-gateway C. ip helper-address D. dns-server

default-router

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing? A. on the public-facing interface of a firewall B. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization C. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

How is the native VLAN secured in a network? A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain B. give it a value in the private VLAN range C. assign it as VLAN 1 D. configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture? A. Facilities communication between the controller and the applications B. Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware C. allows application developers to interact with the network D. integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state? A. latency B. port security violation C. shutdown command issued on the port D. nothing plugged into the port

port security violation

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in? A. PortFast B. BPDU guard C. UplinkFast D. BackboneFast

UplinkFast

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network? A. OpenFlow B. REST API C. NETCONF D. Southbound API

REST API

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles? A. role-based access control B. biometrics C. multifactor authentication D. physical access control

physical access control

Which network action occurs within the data plane? A. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table. B. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP) C. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC D. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

What is a DHCP client? A. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically B. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts C. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken? A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number B. Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable C. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number D. Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable? A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter B. Both have a 9 micron core diameter C. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter D. Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

What is the benefit of using FHRP? A. reduced management overhead on network routers B. balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads C. higher degree of availability D. reduced ARP traffic on the network

higher degree of availability

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer? A. virtual routing and forwarding B. network port ID visualization C. virtual device contexts D. server virtualization

server virtualization

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented? A. The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access. B. Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs C. Users experience poor wireless network performance. D. Network communications are open to eavesdropping

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

Refer to the exhibit | | | WAN | | | Gi0/0 | 10.0.0.253/30 R1 An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with the last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement? A. interface gi0/1 no cdp enable B. interface gi0/1 clear cdp table C. interface gi0/0 no cdp advertise-v2 D. interface gi0/0 no cdp run

interface gi0/0 | no cdp run

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID? A. Reassociation Request B. Probe Request C. Authentication Request D. Association Request

Reassociation Request

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two) A. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network B. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures. C. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes D. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface? A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B C. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::7:3:4F:572B D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

What describes the operation of virtual machines? A. Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources B. In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time. C. Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment. D. Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic? A. redundancy B. console C. distribution system D. service

distribution system

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result? A. logging trap 5 B. logging trap 2 C. logging trap 4 D. logging trap 3

logging trap 4

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right WIRELESS STANDARDS 802. 11a 802. 11ac 802. 11b 802. 11g 802. 11n STATEMENTS Operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands Operates in the 2.4 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps Operates in the 5 GHz band and only supports a maximum data rate that can exceed 100 Mbps Supports a maximum data rate of 11 Mbps Operates in the 5 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps

Operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands -802.11n Operates in the 2.4 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps -802.11g Operates in the 5 GHz band and only supports a maximum data rate that can exceed 100 Mbps -802.11ac Supports a maximum data rate of 11 Mbps 802.11b Operates in the 5 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps -802.11a

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.) ``` A. RADIUS B. TACACS+ C. SCP D. Telnet E. SSH ```

Telnet | SSH

Refer to the exhibit G0/0/0 G0/0/0 RouterA-----------------------------------------------------------------RouterB G0/0/1 | | | G0/0/0 | RouterC How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to routerC? ``` A.#conf t Router A (config)#cdp run Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/0 Router A (config)# no cdp enable ``` ``` B. #conf t Router A (config)#cdp run Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/0 Router A (config)#cdp enable ``` ``` C. #conf t Router A (config)#cdp run Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/1 Router A (config-if)# cdp enable ``` ``` D. #conf t Router A (config)#no cdp run Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/1 Router A (config)# cdp enable ```

``` #conf t Router A (config)#no cdp run Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/1 Router A (config)# cdp enable ```

Which global command encrypts all passwords in the running configuration? A. password-encrypt B. enable password-encryption C. enable secret D. service password-encryption

service password-encryption

What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology? A. allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites. B. provides direct connections between subscribers C. supports Layer 2 VPNs D. supports application optimization

provides direct connections between subscribers

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts? A. OpenFlow B. OpenStack C. OpFlex D. REST

REST

Refer to the exhibit Atlanta Washington Lo1 Lo3 Default Route:/0 via S0/0/0 Default Route:/0 via S0/0/0 \ / \ / \ / \ 2012::/126 / 2023::/126 \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / Se0/0/0 Se0/0/1 New York Lo2 Configured routers IPv6 addresses: - Atlanta Serial 0/0/0 : 2012::1/26 Loopback: 2000::1/128 -New York Serial 0/0/0: 2012::2/126 Serial 0/0/1 : 2023::2/126 Loopback2: 2000::2/128 -Washington: Serial 0/0/0: 2023::3/126 Loopback3: 2000::3/128 The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two) ``` A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3 C. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0 D. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2 E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1 ```

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 | ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

Refer to the exhibit [SITE A] Router1============================Router2 [SITE B] Router2#show ip route Gateway of last resort is not set 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks C 10.10.10.8/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2 C 10.10.10.12/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/11] via 10.10.10.9, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/2 [110/11] via 10.10.10.13, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/1 C 10.10.10.4/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2 If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A? A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only. B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only. C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25 D. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination on the IP routing table. B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.) A. serves as the network aggregation point B. provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications C. designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements D. is the backbone for the network topology E. physical connection point for a LAN printer

provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications designed to meet continuous, redundant uptime requirements

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet? A. Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing B. Sends the default route to the hosts on a network C. ensures a loop-free physical topology D. forwards multicast hello messages between routers

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity? A. Dynamic ARP Inspection B. using a non-default native VLAN C. 802.1x D. DHCP snooping

802.1x

What must be considered when using 802:11a? A. It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices B. It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required C. It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens. D. It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet? A. IPsec tunnel mode with AH B. IPsec transport mode with AH C. IPsec tunnel mode with ESP D. IPsec transport mode with ESP

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

What does physical access control regulate? A. access to spec fie networks based on business function B. access to servers to prevent malicious activity C. access to computer networks and file systems D. access to networking equipment and facilities

access to networking equipment and facilities

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device? A. DHCP B. STP C. SNMP D. DNS

DHCP

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated? A. enable dynamic ARP inspection B. manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP C. activate all ports and place in the default VLAN D. configure extended VLANs

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network? A. Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection B. Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network C. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks D. explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard? A. It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues. B. It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network. C. It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network. D. It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right. ``` DNS LOOKUP COMPONENTS cache DNS domain name resolver no ip domain-lookup ``` FUNCTIONS local database pf address mappings that improves name-resolution performance service that maps hostnames to IP addresses disable DNS services on a Cisco device in response to client requests, queries a name server for IP address information component of a URL that indicates the location or organization type, such as .com or .edu

local database of address mappings that improves name-resolution performance - cache service that maps hostnames to IP addresses -DNS disable DNS services on a Cisco device -no ip domain-lookup in response to client requests, queries a name server for IP address information -name resolver component of a URL that indicates the location or organization type, such as .com or .edu -domain

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials? A. Enable the allow AAA Override B. Enable the Even: Driven RRM. C. Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot. D. Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

Enable the allow AAA Override

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used? A. Clock timezone B. Clock summer-time-recurring C. Clock summer-time date D. Clock set

Clock set

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports? A. configure port in the native VLAN B. configure ports in a black hole VLAN C. configure in a nondefault native VLAN D. configure ports as access ports

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

Refer to the exhibit R1 / \ PC / \ | / \ | / \ | / \ SW------------------R4---------R2-------- SW=========Server BGP \ BGP / 10.10.10.10 | A565512 \ A565512 / | \ / | \ / PC \ / R3 Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4? A. the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110 B. the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200 C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20 D. the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined? A. conserve public IPv4 addressing B. preserve public IPv6 address space C. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses D. support the NAT protocol

conserve public IPv4 addressing

``` Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request? A. 200 B. 301 C. 404 D. 500 ```

200

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request? A. 200 B. 301 C. 404 D. 500

200

Refer to the exhibit R3# show ip ospf neighbor Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface 1. 1.1.1 1 2WAY DROTHER 172.16.10.1 Gig0/0 2. 2.2.2 1 2WAY DROTHER 172.16.10.2 Gig0/0 4. 4.4.4 1 FULL/BDR 172.16.10.4 Gig0/0 5. 5.5.5 1 FULL/BDR 172.16.10.5 Gig0/0 R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement? A. R4(config)#interface gi0/0 R4(config-if) ip ospf priority 20 R5(config)#interface gi0/0 R5(config-if) ip ospf priority 10 B. R2(config)#interface gi0/0 R2(config-if) ip ospf priority 259 R3(config)#interface gi0/0 R3(config-if) ip ospf priority 256 C. R5(config)#interface gi0/0 R5(config-if) ip ospf priority 120 R4(config)#interface gi0/0 R4(config-if) ip ospf priority 110 D. R3(config)#interface gi0/0 R3(config-if) ip ospf priority 255 R2(config)#interface gi0/0 R2(config-if) ip ospf priority 240

R3(config)#interface gi0/0 R3(config-if) ip ospf priority 255 R2(config)#interface gi0/0 R2(config-if) ip ospf priority 240

What are network endpoints? A. act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network B. a threat to the network if they are compromised C. support inter-VLAN connectivity D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

a threat to the network if they are compromised

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.) ``` A. cookbook B. task C. playbook D. model E. recipe ```

playbook model

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used. NETWORKING STATEMENTS This type deploys a consistent configuration across multiple devices A distributed control plane is needed This type requires a distributed management plane Southbound APIs are used to apply configurations Northbound APIs interact with end devices NETWORKING TYPES Controller-Based Networking Traditional Networking

Controller-Based Networking (Choose 2) -This type deploys a consistent configuration across multiple devices -Southbound APIs are used to apply configurations Traditional Networking (Choose 2) - A distributed control plane is needed - This type requires a distributed management plane

Which two events occur automatically when a device Is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. ) A. The device Is assigned to the Global site. B. The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state. C. The device Is placed into the Provisioned state. D. The device Is placed into the Managed state. E. The device is assigned to the Local site

The device Is assigned to the Global site. The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

``` Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1? A. 0050.0c05.ad81 B. 0007.c061.bc01 C. 0000.5E00.0101 D. 0500.3976.6401 ```

0000.5E00.0101

Refer to the Exhibit R1 fd00:12::1/64 / \ fd00:13::1/64 / \ / \ fd00:12::2/64 / \ fd00:13::3/64 R2 R3 | | | | ------------------------------LAN------------------------------------ 2001:db8:23::/64 | | PC 2001:db8:23::14/64 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2. Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3. A. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2 B. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3 C. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 D. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2 E. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2 Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

Refer to the exhibit e0/1 e0/0 ---------------------------Router--------------------- | | | | | e0/0 | e0/0 Switch Switch | e0/1 | e0/1 | | | | PC-A PC-B 10.10.10.0 10.10.100.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0 When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B? A. Layer 2 switch B. Router C. Load balancer D. firewall

Router

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router? A. Control B. Management C. Data D. application

Data

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs? A. alert B. critical C. notice D. debug

notice

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed? A. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address B. broadcast to all ports C. forwarded to the first available port D. flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

How does QoS optimize voice traffic? A. reducing bandwidth usage B. by reducing packet loss C. by differentiating voice and video traffic D. by increasing jitter

by differentiating voice and video traffic

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking? A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture. B. It centralizes the data plane for the network. C. It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus. D. It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.) A. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz. B. Both support runs of up to 55 meters. C. Both support runs of up to 100 meters. D. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit. E. Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit

Both support runs of up to 100 meters Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology? A. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services B. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components C. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment D. physical workstations are configured to share resources

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP? A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end. B. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection. C. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking. D. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected? A. Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches. B. Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop. C. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch. D. Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right. IPv6 CHARACTERISTICS attached to a single subnet addresses with prefix FC00::/7 configured only once per interface addressing for exclusive use internally without Internet routing IPv6 Type Link-Local Address Unique Local Address

Link-Local Address - attached to a single subnet - configured only once per interface Unique Local Address -addressing for exclusive use internally without Internet routing -addresses with prefix FC00::/7

Refer to the exhibit 192. 168.10.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks 192. 168.10.32/28 [110/193] via 192.168.30.10 ``` What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet? A. 84 B. 110 C. 128 D. 192 E. 193 ```

193

DRAG DROP An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured. Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right. Not all commands are used ``` CONFIGURATION COMMAND configuration terminal enable enable secret $hf!@4fs exit line vty 0 4 service password encryption ``` ``` SEQUENCE first second third fourth ```

first enable second configuration terminal third enable secret $hf!@4fs fourth exit

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture? A. control layer and the infrastructure layer B. application layer and the infrastructure layer C. control layer and the application layer D. application layer and the management layer

control layer and the infrastructure layer

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network? A. The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination B. The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination C. The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination D. The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video? A. expedited forwarding B. traffic policing C. round-robin scheduling D. low-latency queuing

low-latency queuing

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two) ``` A. management interface settings B. QoS settings C. Ip address of one or more access points D. SSID E. Profile name ```

SSID | Profile name

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 8 - Data VLAN 9 - Voice ``` Gi1/1 SW11-------------------------------------------------------------PC2 Gi1/3 | | | | | Phone-1--------------------------------------------------------PC1 ``` An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN. Which configuration meets these requirements? ``` A. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 8 switchport access vlan 9 ``` ``` B. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 9 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk vlan 8 switchport trunk vlan 9 ``` ``` C. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 switchport voice vlan 9 ``` ``` D. interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode trunk switchport voice vlan 8 switchport access vlan 9 ```

``` interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 8 switchport access vlan 9 ```

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken? A. configure switchport nonegotiate B. configure switchport mode dynamic desirable C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto D. configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames? A. The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent. B. The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent. C. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame. D. The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable AAA override B. enable RX-SOP C. enable DTIM D. enable Band Select

enable Band Select

Refer to the exhibit. Atlanta Washington \ Se0/0/0 Se0/0/0 / \ / \ 2012:/126 / 2023::/126 \ / \ / \ / \ / Se0/0/0 New York Se0/0/1 Configured routers IPv6 addresses: -Atlanta Serial 0/0/0: 2012::1/126 Loopback1: 2000::1/128 -New York Serial 0/0/0: 2012::2/126 Serial 0/0/1: 2023::2/126 Loopback2: 2000::2/128 -Washington Serial 0/0/0: 2023::3/126 Loopback3: 2000::3/128 An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. What command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router? ``` A. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1 B. ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0 C. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0 D. ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 E. ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2 ```

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right. ``` WIRELESS LAN CONTROLLER SECURITY SETTINGS Web policy Passthrough WPA+WPA2 802.1X ``` SECURITY MECHANISMS Layer 2 Security Mechanisms Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN)

Layer 2 Security Mechanisms 802.1X WPA+WPA2 Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) Web policy Passthrough

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. sniffer B. mesh C. flexconnect D. local

flexconnect

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+? A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

What Is a syslog facility? A. Host that is configured for the system to send log messages B. password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages C. group of log messages associated with the configured severity level D. set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.) A. It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations. B. It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources. C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet. D. It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company. E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization? A. infrastructure-as-a-service. B. Software-as-a-service C. control and distribution of physical resources D. services as a hardware controller

control and distribution of physical resources

What is the function of a server? A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain. B. It provides shared applications to end users. C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices. D. It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

It provides shared applications to end users.

What is the effect of this configuration? ip arp inspection vlan 5-10 interface fastethernet 0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 5 A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing? A. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number C. composed of up to 65,536 available addresses D. used without tracking or registration

used without tracking or registration

Refer to the exhibit Gi1/0 R1------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------R2 Gi2/0 Interface GigabitEthernet1/0 mtu 1600 Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers? A. R2 is using the passive-interface default command B. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0 C. R2 should have its network command in area 1 D. R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

D. R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Refer to the exhibit 1726.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks S 172.16.3./24 [1/0] via 207.165.200.250, Serial 0/0/0 O 172.16.3.0/28 [110/84437] via 207.165.200.254, 00:00:28, Serial0/0/1 A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet? A. 207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0 B. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1 C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0 D. 207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

DRAG DROP Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right. ``` CHARACTERISTICS OF NETWORKING focused on network focused on devices user input is configuration user input is a policy user white list security model user black list security model ``` NETWORK TYPES Controller-Based Networking Traditional Networking

Controller-Based Networking focused on network user input is a policy user white list security model Traditional Networking focused on devices user input is configuration user black list security model

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection? A. 802.1q trunks B. Cisco vPC C. LLDP D. LACP

LACP

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is in ASCll format? A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 18

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two) A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding D. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections E. The data can pass through the cladding

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber The glass core component is encased in a cladding

Refer to the exhibit What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency? A. modify hello interval B. modify process ID C. modify priority D. modify network type

modify hello interval

How does WPA3 improve security? A. It uses SAE for authentication. B. It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication. C. It uses RC4 for encryption. D. It uses TKIP for encryption.

It uses SAE for authentication.

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments? A. collision B. CRC C. runt D. late collision

late collision

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two) A. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)#ip address dhcp R1(config-if)# no shutsown B. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.0.2.2 C. R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip address dhcp D. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)#ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 E. R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)#ip address dhcp R1(config-if)# no shutdown R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost. D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers. A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? A. port-to-multipoint B. broadcast C. point-to-point D. nonbroadcast

point-to-point

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control? A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured? A. switchport mode trunk B. switchport mode dynamic desirable C. switchport mode dynamic auto D. switchport nonegotiate

switchport mode dynamic auto

Refer to the exhibit 1726.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks S 172.16.3./24 [1/0] via 207.165.200.250, Serial 0/0/0 O 172.16.3.0/28 [110/84437] via 207.165.200.254, 00:00:28, Serial0/0/1 A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. What is the destination route for the packet? A. 209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1 B. 209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0 C. 209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0 D. 209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client? A. Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate B. Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8 C. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 D. Accept: application/json

Accept: application/json

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs? A. array B. string C. object D. Boolean

object

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value C. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access? A. HTTPS B. RADIUS C. TACACS+ D. HTTP

RADIUS

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two) ``` A. There is a duplex mismatch B. There is a speed mismatch C. There is a protocol mismatch D. The interface is shut down E. The interface is error-disabled ```

There is a speed mismatch The interface is error-disabled

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions? A. policy plane B. management plane C. control plane D. data plane

control plane

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface? A. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network B. enable SLAAC on an interface C. disable the EUI-64 bit process D. explicitly assign a link-local address

enable SLAAC on an interface

Refer to the exhibit Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link? A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131 B. ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130 C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224 D. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two ) ``` A. CAR B. CBWFQ C. PQ D. PBR E. FRTS ```

CBWFQ PQ ``` Explanation Type of queuing methods are available: • First-In-First-Out (FIFO) • Priority Queuing (PQ) • Custom Queuing (CQ) • Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) • Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ) • Low-Latency Queuing (LLQ) ```

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts. A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host". Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic? ``` A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4 C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0. D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4. ```

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.) A. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides B. configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process C. configure the same router ID on both routing processes D. Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides. E. configure both interfaces with the same area ID

configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides configure both interfaces with the same area ID

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed? A. route with the lowest cost B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP C. route with the shortest prefix length D. route with the lowest administrative distance

route with the lowest administrative distance

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes? A. Ansible B. Python C. Puppet D. Chef

Ansible

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request? A. action B. management C. control D. data

management

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image B. The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch D. A console password must be configured on the switch E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

Refer to the exhibit Fa0/1 Fa0/1 SW1--------------------------------------------------------------------------SW2 802.1Q ``` SW1 Interface fastethernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk native vlan 999 switchport mode trunk ``` ``` SW2 Interface fastethernet0/1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk native vlan 99 switchport mode trunk ``` Which action do the switches take on the trunk link? A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status. B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain. C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link. D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

Refer to the exhibit ``` Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A? A. 10.10.10.0/28 B. 10.10.13.0/25 C. 10.10.13.144/28 D. 10.10.13.208/29 ```

10.10.13.208/29

Refer to the exhibit ``` Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24? A. eBGP B. static C. OSPF D. EIGRP ```

static

Refer to the exhibit R2#show ip route C 192.168.1.0/26 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 ``` Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two) A. 192.168.1.17 B. 192.168.1.61 C. 192.168.1.64 D. 192.168.1.127 E. 192.168.1.254 ```

192. 168.1.61 | 192. 168.1.64

Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12

FF00::/12

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closet? (Choose two.) ``` A. enable the PortFast feature on ports B. implement port-based authentication C. configure static ARP entries D. configure ports to a fixed speed E. shut down unused ports ```

implement port-based authentication shut down unused ports

Refer to the exhibit 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.0.0.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1 C 172.160.0.0/16 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0 D 192.168.0.0/24 [90/30720] via 172.16.0.2, 00:00:03, Fa0/0 Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output? A. internal BGP route B. /24 route of a locally configured IP C. statically assigned route D. route learned through EIGRP

route learned through EIGRP

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address? A. global unicast B. link-local C. unique local D. multicast

global unicast

Refer to the exhibit Which change to the configuration on Switch? Allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel? A. Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on. B. Change the LACP mode to active C. Change the LACP mode to desirable D. Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Change the LACP mode to active

What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-Tier architecture model? A. access - core - distribution - access B. access - distribution - distribution - access C. access - core - access D. access -distribution - core - distribution - access

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Refer to the exhibit If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet? A. 192.168.12.2 B. 192.168.13.3 C. 192.168.14.4 D. 192.168.15.5

192.168.14.4

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet? A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1 B. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

DRAG DROP Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right. IP PROTOCOL TRANSMISSIONS sends transmissions in sequence transmissions include an 8-byte header transmits packets as a stream transmits packets individually uses a higher transmission rate to support latency-sensitive applications uses a lower transmission rate to ensure reliability IP TRAFFIC TYPES TCP UDP

TCP sends transmissions in sequence transmits packets as a stream uses a lower transmission rate to ensure reliability UDP transmissions include an 8-byte header transmits packets individually uses a higher transmission rate to support latency-sensitive applications

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server? A. ntp authenticate B. ntp server C. ntp peer D. ntp master

ntp master

``` Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay? A. ip helper-address B. ip address dhcp C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp relay ```

ip helper-address

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security? A. IP SLA B. syslog C. NetFlow D. SNMPv3

NetFlow

Refer to the exhibit ``` Switch(config)#hostname R1 R1(config)#interface FastEthernet0/1 R1(config-if)#no switchport R1(config-if)#ip address 10.100.20.42 255.255.255.0 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login ``` An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local

Refer to the exhibit An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used

Go to question 307

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two) A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256. B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor. C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure the version of SSH B. Configure VTY access. C. Create a user with a password. D. Assign a DNS domain name

Assign a DNS domain name

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? A. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.) A. Eliminating training needs B. Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing C. Policy-derived provisioning of resources D. Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning E. Reducing hardware footprint

Policy-derived provisioning of resources Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

``` Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions? A. 1,6,11 B. 1,5,10 C. 1,2,3 D. 5,6,7 ```

1,6,11

Refer to the exhibit interface GigbitEthernet3/1/4 switchport voice vlan 50 ! An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch? A. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity B. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50. C. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connectivity D. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

Refer to the exhibit (Question 314) ``` Which route type is configured to reach the internet? A. host route B. default route C. floating static route D. network route ```

Question 314

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented? A. switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description B. switch(config)#IIdp port-description C. switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description D. switch#IIdp port-description

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to? A. point-to-multipoint B. point-to-point C. broadcast D. nonbroadcast

broadcast

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking? A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

Refer to the exhibit The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1 What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4? A. Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry. B. Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales1. C. Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame. D. Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

Question 318

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable B. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop C. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses? A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240 B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240 C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224 D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

Question 320

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network? A. TKIP encryption B. AES encryption C. scrambled encryption key D. SAE encryption

SAE encryption

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged B. It drops the traffic C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? A. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured. B. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active" C. When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication? A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

Refer to the exhibit Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Question 325

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two) A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them. D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding E. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment? A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management B. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management C. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

``` A corporate office uses four floors in a building • Floor 1 has 24 users • Floor 2 has 29 users • Floor 3 has 28 users •Floor 4 has 22 users ``` Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor D. l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? A. Exchange B. 2-way C. Full D. Init

Full

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two) A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails D. to support load balancing via static routing E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration? A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration B. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established C. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords D. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right ``` APPLICATION PROTOCOLS DHCP FTP SMTP SSH SNMP TFTP ``` TRANSPORT PROTOCOLS TCP UPD

TCP FTP SMTP SSH UDP DHCP SNMP TFTP

Refer to the exhibit Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16? A. It uses a route that is similar to the destination address B. It discards the packets. C. It floods packets to all learned next hops. D. It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Question 333

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem? A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched B. Router2 is using the default hello timer. C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured. D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched

question 334

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices. B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

Refer to the exhibit If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond? A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed B. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route C. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes D. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernetO/1

Question 336

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API? A. OpenFlow B. Java C. REST D. XML

OpenFlow

Refer to the exhibit An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two) ``` A. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5 C. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2 D. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5 E. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5 ```

Question 338

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks? A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function? A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port B. Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table. C. The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses D. It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

Refer to the exhibit R1# show ip route D 192.168.16.0/26 [90/2679326] via 192.168.1.1 R 192.168.16.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.1.2 O 192.168.16.0/21 [110/2] via 192.168.1.3 i L1 192.168.16.0/27 [115/30] via 192.168.1.4 ``` Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2? A. 192.168.16.0/21 B. 192.168.16.0/24 C. 192.168 26.0/26 D. 192.168.16.0/27 ```

192.168.16.0/27

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation? A. 802.1x B. IP Source Guard C. MAC Authentication Bypass D. 802.11n

802.1x

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points? A. Re- Anchor Roamed Clients B. 11ac MU-MIMO C. OEAP Split Tunnel D. Client Band Select

Client Band Select

Refer to the exhibit Which command must be executed for Gi1/1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode? A. switchport mode trunk B. switchport mode dot1-tunnel C. switchport mode dynamic auto D. switchport mode dynamic desirable

switchport mode dynamic auto

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet? A. global unicast B. unique local C. link-local D. multicast

unique local

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two) A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Refer to the exhibit An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements? A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4

question 347

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network? A. connect wireless devices to a wired network B. support secure user logins to devices or the network C. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

connect wireless devices to a wired network

What is a function of TFTP in network operations? A. transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password B. transfers files between file systems on a router C. transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link D. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped? A. Device(Config)#lldp run B. Device(Config)#cdp run C. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable D. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Device(Config)#lldp run

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable C. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode D. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported? A. Unicode B. base64 C. decimal D. ASCII

ASCII

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right ``` TCP/IP PROTOCOLS dns smtp snmp http rtp telnet ``` TRANSMISSION PROTOCOLS TCP UDP

TCP smtp http telnet UDP dns snmp rtp

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message? A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

Refer to the exhibit ``` What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? A. 10.10.1.10 B. 10.10.10.20 C. 172.16.15.10 D. 192.168.0.1 ```

question 355

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch? A. Internet Group Management Protocol B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol C. Cisco Discovery Protocol D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Cisco Discovery Protocol

Refer to the exhibit ``` To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165? A. Router2 B. Router3 C. Router4 D. Router5 ```

question 357

Which networking function occurs on the data plane? A. forwarding remote client/server traffic B. facilitates spanning-tree elections C. processing inbound SSH management traffic D. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

forwarding remote client/server traffic

Refer to the exhibit ``` Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process. Branch-1 priority 614440 Branch-2: priority 39082416 Branch-3: priority 0 Branch-4: root primary ``` Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5? A. Branch-1 B. Branch-2 C. Branch-3 D. Branch-4

question 359

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two) ``` A. Enable NTP authentication. B. Verify the time zone. C. Disable NTP broadcasts D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server E. Set the NTP server private key ```

Enable NTP authentication Specify the IP address of the NTP server

Refer to the exhibit Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue? A. Interface errors are incrementing B. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA C. High usage is causing high latency D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

question 361

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information? A. in the MAC address table B. in the CAM table C. in the binding database D. in the frame forwarding database

in the binding database

Refer to the exhibit ``` SW1#show run int gig 0/1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport access vlan 1 switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-10 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk native vlan 5 switchport mode trunk speed duplex full ``` Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface? A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5. B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11 C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1 D. The frame is dropped

The frame is processed in VLAN 5

Refer to the exhibit ``` Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured? A. passive B. mode on C. auto D. active ```

question 364

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit

question 365

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. C. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down D. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

What is the primary difference between AAA authentication and authorization? A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform. D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

A network administrator must configure SSH for remote access to router R1. The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements? R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 2048 R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048 R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 1024 R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key encrypt rsa name myKey

R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 1024

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface? A. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B B. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

Refer to the exhibit A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration? A. Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation B. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation C. Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing. D. Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

question 370

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network? A. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure B. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks D. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops B. It provides variable latency C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Each device is separated by the same number of hops

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? A. cost B. adminstrative distance C. metric D. as-path

metric

Refer to the exhibit SW10 Gi1/1 | | VLAN 300 - Data | VLAN 400 - Voice | IP Phone--------------------------------------------------PC An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task? Interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 300 switchport voice vlan 400 Interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk vlan 300 switchport voice vlan 400 Interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport trunk vlan 300 switchport trunk vlan 400 Interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 300 switchport access vlan 400

Interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 300 switchport voice vlan 400 (question 374)

Refer to the exhibit The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured? A. The interface is not participating in OSPF B. A point-to-point network type is configured C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

Refer to the exhibit An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25? A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table question 376

Refer to the exhibit With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

question 377

Refer to the exhibit R1# show ip route .... D 172.16.32.0/27 [90/2888597172] via 20.1.1.1 O 172.16.32.0/19 [110/292094] via 20.1.1.10 R 172.16.32.0/24 [120/2] via 20.1.1.3 Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1? A. longest prefix B. metric C. cost D. administrative distance

longest prefix

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) ``` A. reduced operational costs B. reduced hardware footprint C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security ```

reduced operational costs faster changes with more reliable results

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request? A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10 B. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10 C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10 D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

Which function does an SNMP agent perform? A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS B. it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events. C. it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network D. it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration? A. No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run. B. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID. C. The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID. D. The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID

Refer to the exhibit The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue? A. Add the default-information originate command onR2 B. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1 C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2 D. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

Question 383

Refer to the exhibit ``` SW2 vtp domain cisco vtp mode transparent vtp password ciscotest interface fastethernet0/1 description connection to sw1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q ``` How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports. B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports ports C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports. D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent? A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap. B. The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent C. The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval D. The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue? A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24 B. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2 C. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Question 386

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap? A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis. C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels. D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data? A. IKEv2 B. IKEv1 C. IPsec D. MD5

IPsec

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Question 389

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? A. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet B. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts C. to pass traffic between different networks D. forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

to pass traffic between different networks

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 115

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets? A. backup B. standby C. listening D. forwarding

standby

DRAG DROP Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right DESCRIPTIONS OF DEVICE MANAGEMENT implements changes via SSH terminal manages device configurations on a per-device basis monitors the cloud for software updates security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS uses CLI templates to apply a consistent configuration to multiple devices at an individual location uses NetFlow to analyze potential security threats throughout the network and take appropriate action on that traffic DEVICE MANAGEMENT Cisco DNA Center Device Management Traditional Device Management

Cisco DNA Center Device Management - monitors the cloud for software updates - uses CLI templates to apply a consistent configuration to multiple devices at an individual location - uses NetFlow to analyze potential security threats throughout the network and take appropriate action on that traffic Traditional Device Management - implements changes via SSH terminal - manages device configurations on a per-device basis - security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two ) A. Telnet B. SSH C. HTTP D. HTTPS

Telnet | HTTP

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Question 395

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network? A. The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination B. The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination C. The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination D. The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping? A. propagates VLAN information between switches B. listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding C. provides DDoS mitigation D. rate-limits certain traffic

propagates VLAN information between switches

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP? A. DHCP relay agent B. DHCP server C. DHCPDISCOVER D. DHCPOFFER

DHCP relay agent

What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards? A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats B. Both cable types support LP connectors C. Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors D., Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone is lost or stolen? A. The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval. B. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor. C. The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted. D. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

DHCP relay agent

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards? A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats B. Both cable types support LP connectors C. Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors D., Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen? A. The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval. B. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor. C. The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted. D. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server? A. DTP B. FTP C. SMTP D. TFTP

FTP

Refer to the exhibit Switch#show etherchannel summary [output omitted] Group Port-channel Protocol Ports --------------------------------------------------------------------------- 10 Po10 LACP Gi0/0(P) Gi0/1 (P) 20 Po20 LACP Gi0/2(P) Gi0/3(P) Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two ) int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode active int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode passive int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode active int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode passive

Refer to the exhibit ip arp inspection vlan 2 interface fastethernet 0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 2 What is the effect of this configuration? A. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted B. The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch C. Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing D. The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used? A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 B. switchport trunk native vlan 10 C. switchport mode trunk D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport trunk native vlan 10

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two) A. The packets fail to match any permit statement B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined D. The ACL is empty E. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports? A. The frame has zero destination MAC addresses. B. The source MAC address of the frame is unknown C. The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same D. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Refer to the exhibit Loopback0: 172.17.0.1 | | Router1----------------------------------------------Router2 192.168.0.2 192.16.0.3 The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock? A. Router2(config)#ntp passive B. Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1 C. Router2(config)#ntp master 4 D. Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically? A. enable dynamic MAC address learning B. implement static MAC addressing. C. enable sticky MAC addressing D. implement auto MAC address learning

enable sticky MAC addressing

Refer to the exhibit The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.) A. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router. B. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router. C. Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router. D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router. E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router

Question 409

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture? A. control layer and the infrastructure layer B. application layer and the infrastructure layer C. application layer and the management layer D. control layer and the application layer

application layer and the management layer

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right DESCRIPTIONS fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements uses SSH for remote device communication uses TCP 8140 for communication uses YAML for fundamental configuration elements CONFIGURATION-MANAGEMENT TECHNOLOGIES Ansible Chef Puppet

Ansible - uses SSH for remote device communication - uses YAML for fundamental configuration elements Chef - uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs - uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements Puppet - fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest - uses TCP 8140 for communication

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two ) A. Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state B. Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately C. Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications. D. Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications E. Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two) A. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN B. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN C. It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN D. It is at most 32 characters long. E. It provides secured access to a WLAN

It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN It provides secured access to a WLAN

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right ``` AAA TERMS accounting authentication authorization CoA ``` ``` DESCRIPTIONS tracks activity updates session attributes verifies access rights verifies identity ```

tracks activity -accounting updates session attributes -CoA verifies access rights -authorization verifies identity -authentication

Which plane is centralized by an SON controller? A. management-plane B. control-plane C. data-plane D. services-plane

control-plane

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task? A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

question 416 access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects D. Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table? A. IS-IS B. RIP C. Internal EIGRP D. OSPF

Internal EIGRP

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex D. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

when the cable length limits are exceeded when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

``` Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic? A. FIFO B. WFQ C. PQ D. WRED ```

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers C. It moves the control plane to a central point. D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions E. It uses Telnet to report system issues

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers It moves the control plane to a central point.

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface? A. After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type B. After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data C. The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch. D. Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled ``` interface Gi1/0 description HQ_DC3978-87297 duplex full speed 100 negotiation auto lldp transmit llpd receive ``` Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party network device? A. Enable LLDP globally B. Disable autonegotiation C. Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface D. Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines? A. hypervisor B. router C. straight cable D. switch

hypervisor

An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the access port of the IP phone. Which configuration must be used? interface fastethernet0/1 switchport priority extend cos 7 interface fastethernet0/1 switchport voice vlan untagged interface fastethernet0/1 switchport voice vlan dot1q interface fastethernet0/1 switchport priority extend trust

interface fastethernet0/1 | switchport priority extend cos 7

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used? A. between the SDN controller and PCs on the network B. between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network C. between the SON controller and services and applications on the network D. between network applications and switches and routers on the network

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address? A. DTP B. STP C. VTP D. 802.10

STP

Refer to the exhibit R1# show ip route D 192.168.10.0/24 [90/2679326] via 192.168.1.1 R 192.168.10.0/27 [120/3] via 192.168.1.2 O 192.168.10.0/23 [110/2] via 192.168.1.3 i L1 192.168.10.0/13 [115/30] via 192.168.1.4 How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16? A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address. B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance. C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost. D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

Which type of traffic Is sent with pure IPsec? A. broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites B. multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location C. spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites D. unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol? A. bridge B. route C. autonomous D. lightweight

lightweight

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration? A. access ports B. Layer 3 main Interfaces C. Layer 3 subinterfaces D. trunk ports

access ports

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.) A. They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network. B. They allow encrypted traffic. C. They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth D. They enable automatic failover of the default gateway. E. They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway. They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Where does wireless authentication happen? A. SSID B. radio C. band D. Layer 2

Layer 2

What is the purpose of an SSID? A. It provides network security B. It differentiates traffic entering access posits C. It identifies an individual access point on a WLAN D. It identifies a WLAN

It identifies an individual access point on a WLAN