Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is a participating life insurance policy?

A

Contract that allows the policy owner to receive a share of surplus in the form of policy dividends

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2
Q

During the underwriting process for a group health policy, it was discovered that 15 out of 50 members of the group have major health issues. How would the insurer handle this?

A

Accept or reject the whole group

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3
Q

Which of the following is a type of insurance where an insurer transfers loss exposures from policies written for its insureds?

A

Reinsurance

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4
Q

What percentage of eligible employees must participate in a noncontributory group health plan before it can be put in effect?

A

100%

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5
Q

Which of the following is an insurer established by a parent company for the purpose of insuring the parent company’s loss exposure?

A

Captive insurer

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6
Q

Who is financially liable for the payment of covered claims in a fully insured group health plan?

A

Insurer

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7
Q

Life insurance surplus must be distributed to policy owners at what frequency?

A

Annually

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8
Q

Minimum participation standards exist for group health insurance plans in order to

A

prevent adverse selection

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9
Q

Business Overhead Expense Insurance pays for

A

business expenses when a business owner becomes disabled

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically covered under vision care insurance?

A

Retina surgery

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11
Q

The problem of overinsurance is addressed in which health insurance provision?

A

Coordination of benefits

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12
Q

Buy-sell plans are typically funded by which two types of insurance?

A

Life insurance and disability insurance

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13
Q

A participating company is also referred to as which type of insurer?

A

Mutual insurer

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of insurance?

A

Losses due to fraud are eliminated

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15
Q

Which of the following would NOT be accomplished with the purchase of an insurance policy?

A

Risk is eliminated

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16
Q

Which of the following is a contract that involves one party which indemnifies another when a loss arises from an unknown event?

A

Insurance contract

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17
Q

John has an insurance policy that gives him the right to share in the insurer’s surplus. What kind of policy is this?

A

Participating

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18
Q

Which of the following refers to a condition that may increase the chance of a loss resulting from a given cause of loss?

A

Hazard

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19
Q

An employee for XYZ Corp is injured on the job. Where does coverage for the employee’s injuries come from?

A

Workers’ Compensation

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20
Q

Individuals become eligible for Medicare Part A benefits at what age?

A

65

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21
Q

A situation in which there is ONLY a chance of loss or no loss is a

A

pure risk

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22
Q

Disabled workers are covered under Workers’ Compensation medical expense benefits for how long?

A

No limit

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23
Q

All of the following circumstances must be met for loss retention to be an effective risk management technique EXCEPT

A

Probability of loss is unknown

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24
Q

Medicare Part B has an initial enrollment period. How many months after an individual’s 65th birthday month does this enrollment period end?

A

3 months

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25
Q

Restoring an insured to the same condition as before a loss is known as

A

Principle of indemnity

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26
Q

Coverage for care received from a network provider pays more than care received from a non-network provider in what type of health plan?

A

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

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27
Q

Moral hazard is described as the

A

increased chance of a loss because of an insured’s dishonest tendencies

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28
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding Workers’ Compensation coverage

A

Employer pays the entire premium for Workers’ Compensation coverage

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29
Q

Medicare Part A covers what type of care?

A

Skilled nursing facility care

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30
Q

Which of the following describes the increase in the probability of a loss due to an insured’s dishonest tendencies?

A

Moral hazard

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31
Q

How is a Medicare claim submitted?

A

Expenses are submitted to Medicare by the health provider

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32
Q

Which of the following describes the statement “The more times an event is repeated, the more predictable the outcome becomes”?

A

Law of large numbers

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33
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a definition of the term “loss”?

A

Probability that an event will occur

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34
Q

Which of the following does Medicare Part A NOT provide coverage for?

A

Doctor’s services

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35
Q

Which of these statements correctly describes risk?

A

Pure risk is the only insurable risk

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36
Q

Which type of risk is gambling?

A

Speculative risk

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37
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a definition of risk?

A

The cause of a loss

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38
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element of an insurable risk?

A

Loss must be catastrophic

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39
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes a contract of indemnity?

A

One party is restored to the same financial position the party was in before the loss occurred

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40
Q

Which of the following contracts is defined as “one that restores an injured party to the condition that was present before the loss”?

A

Indemnity contract

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41
Q

Which principle is accurately described with the statement “Insureds are entitled to recover an amount NOT greater than the amount of their loss”?

A

Indemnity

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42
Q

A unilateral contract is one in which

A

only one party (the insurer) makes any kind of legally enforceable promise

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43
Q

The importance of a representation is demonstrated in what rule?

A

Materiality of concealment

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44
Q

Which course of action is the insurer entitled to when deliberate concealment is committed by the insured?

A

Rescinding the contract

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45
Q

Which of the following is NOT required in the content of a policy?

A

Probability of loss

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46
Q

John and Mary have a handicapped child that is financially dependent upon them. The death of one of the parents would not be financially disastrous, however the death of both likely would be. Which policy would be best suited for them?

A

Second-to-die policy

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47
Q

An insurance policy written after 1988 that fails to pass the seven-pay test is known as

A

a modified endowment contract

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48
Q

In a renewable term life insurance policy, the contract will usually

A

require a higher premium payable at each renewal

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49
Q

Which of the following is NOT a true description of non-medical life insurance?

A

Applicants are not required to answer medical questions on the application

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50
Q

A life insurance policy’s limit of liability would be

A

the policy’s face amount

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51
Q

A life insurance policy where the insured can choose where the cash value can be invested is called

A

variable life

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52
Q

A life insurance policy that pays the face amount if the insured survives to a specified period of time is called

A

endowment insurance

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53
Q

Mark, age 45, has a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC). What is the tax penalty for taking a loan against this policy prior to age 59 1/2?

A

10%

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54
Q

In a modified endowment contract, the penalty tax imposed on withdrawals is

A

10%

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55
Q

Which of the following types of life insurance combines a savings element along with a flexible premium option?

A

Universal life

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56
Q

Which of the following is a life insurance policy that does NOT require a physical exam?

A

Non-medical

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57
Q

Which of the following types of life insurance is normally associated with a mortgage loan?

A

Decreasing term

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58
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding a family policy that covers children?

A

Conversion of child’s coverage to permanent insurance requires evidence of insurability

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59
Q

What does the grace period allow a life insurance policyowner to do?

A

Make a premium payment after the due date without any loss of coverage

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60
Q

Which of these is NOT a valid policy dividend option?

A

Monthly income payments

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61
Q

If an insured dies because of an accident, which type of life insurance rider will provide additional coverage?

A

Accidental death rider

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62
Q

What time period allows an insured’s life insurance policy to remain in force even if the premium was not paid on the due date?

A

Grace period

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63
Q

In a life insurance policy, the entire contract consists of the

A

policy and attached application

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64
Q

What are collateral assignments normally associated with?

A

Bank loans

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65
Q

After a policy has lapsed, which provision allows the insured to continue coverage?

A

Reinstatement provision

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66
Q

When an accidental death benefit is added to a whole life policy, how does this affect the policy’s cash value?

A

Policy’s cash value is not affected

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67
Q

Jerry is an insured who understated his age on his life insurance application, paying $12 per $1,000 of insurance instead of $15 per $1,000. If he dies, how will the adjusted death benefit be calculated?

A

12/15th of the policy’s face amount

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68
Q

Which policy provision protects the policyowner from unintentional lapse of the contract?

A

Grace period

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69
Q

An insurer can be protected from adverse selection with which policy provision?

A

Suicide clause

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70
Q

Which statement is true regarding policy dividends?

A

A dividend option is selected by the insured at the time of policy purchase

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71
Q

How are acts of war considered under a group life insurance policy?

A

Policy exclusion

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72
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common life insurance policy rider?

A

extended term

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73
Q

When does a life insurance policy’s waiver of premium take effect?

A

Insured becomes totally disabled

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74
Q

Pam is the primary beneficiary of a life insurance policy and wants to let the death benefit accumulate and receive only the monthly investment proceeds. Which settlement option should she choose?

A

Interest Option

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75
Q

A creditor would be allowed rights to life insurance policy proceeds if which of the following beneficiaries is chosen?

A

The insured’s estate

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76
Q

Which of the following is NOT a life insurance settlement option?

A

Extended term option

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77
Q

When calculating life insurance premium rates, which component would an agent’s commission fall under?

A

Insurer’s expenses

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78
Q

Premiums are best described as

A

money paid by the insured to acquire a policy’s benefits

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79
Q

When calculating life insurance premium rates, which component is affected by an insured’s age and gender?

A

Mortality

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80
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of determining policy premiums?

A

Dividends

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81
Q

Which of the following describes the number of deaths in a year compared to the number of people in a select group?

A

Mortality rate

82
Q

The probability of death, listed by year, are demonstrated in

A

mortality tables

83
Q

When an insurance company requests an attending physician’s report, the request must be accompanied by a

A

copy of the signed authorization

84
Q

Most U.S. life insurance companies belong to the

A

Medical Information Bureau

85
Q

How does a conditional receipt differ from a binding receipt?

A

Binding receipts always provide insurance which starts from the date of receipt

86
Q

Which of the following life insurance classifications charges the highest premium?

A

Substandard

87
Q

Which of the following types of information is NOT required for a life insurance application?

88
Q

When an applicant applies for insurance, the process by which the insurer determines whether to issue a policy is called

A

underwriting

89
Q

Tim was recently terminated from his employment and opted to change his existing group term life insurance to individual permanent life insurance. What is this process called?

A

Conversion

90
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a terminated employee that has exercised the conversion privilege?

A

Provide proof of insurability

91
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the conversion privilege?

A

Employer pays the premium for the converted policy

92
Q

All of the following are considered characteristics of group life insurance EXCEPT

A

individual policies

93
Q

A terminated employee that has exercised the conversion privilege is able to convert

A

term group life coverage into permanent insurance

94
Q

Which of the following describes a contributory group insurance plan?

A

Part of the premium is paid by the employee

95
Q

Who is issued a certificate of insurance with a group insurance policy?

A

Participant

96
Q

How does underwriting differ between group life and individual life insurance?

A

Medical questions must be answered on individual life insurance

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of equity-indexed annuities?

A

Offers a maximum interest rate that increases annually

98
Q

The systematic liquidation of a sum of money is provided by a(n)

99
Q

An annuity which is backed by a life insurer’s separate account is called a(n)

A

variable annuity

100
Q

At what age is a surviving spouse without dependents eligible for Social Security survivor benefits?

101
Q

Which Social Security status does a worker with 6 quarters of coverage during the last 13-quarter period have?

A

Currently insured

102
Q

A worker is entitled to Social Security disability benefits if all of the following are true EXCEPT for

A

worker cannot perform his or her current job, but is actively seeking other employment

103
Q

Who is eligible for retirement benefits under Social Security?

A

Fully insured workers

104
Q

How long is a person expected to be disabled in order to receive Social Security disability benefits?

105
Q

Which of these factors affects the Social Security normal retirement age?

A

Year in which worker was born

106
Q

In order to be considered “currently insured” under Social Security, an individual must be credited with

A

6 quarters of coverage during the last 13-quarter period

107
Q

What is considered to be the definition of disability, according to Social Security?

A

Unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity

108
Q

According to Social Security, an individual with 6 credits of coverage during the previous 13-quarter period is considered to be

A

currently insured

109
Q

An individual that has 40 quarters of coverage, for Social Security purposes, is considered to be

A

fully insured

110
Q

What area of group health insurance is regulated under the Employee Retirement Security Act of 1974 (ERISA)?

A

Disclosure and reporting

111
Q

How are Roth IRAs treated for tax purposes?

A

Non-deductible contributions and tax-free distributions

112
Q

What does ESOP stand for?

A

Employee Stock Ownership Plan

113
Q

Retirement plans are prevented from favoring highly compensated employees under which government regulation?

A

Nondiscrimination

114
Q

“Life insurance creates an immediate estate”. This phrase means

A

when the insured dies, a death benefit is paid

115
Q

Key person insurance is intended to

A

cover business losses due to the death of a key employee

116
Q

Which of the following pieces of information is NOT gathered during the personal financial planning process?

A

An individual’s civic organization memberships

117
Q

Which statement regarding Medicare is true?

A

Benefits for diagnostic tests and X-rays performed on an outpatient basis are provided by Part B

118
Q

Allen has a disability income policy with a $2,500 monthly benefit and a 30-day elimination period. He is unable to work 90 days following an automobile accident. What will the policy pay?

119
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in comprehensive major medical plans?

A

First-dollar coverage

120
Q

Medical expense policies will typically cover which of the following?

A

Injuries caused by accidents

121
Q

When does an insured qualify for stop-loss coverage?

A

When claims exceed a specified limit in a set period of time

122
Q

Which of these statements is NOT true concerning recurrent disabilities?

A

The insurer continues coverage after a new elimination period

123
Q

Which of the following terms is NOT associated with a Major Medical policy?

A

Capitation

124
Q

What portion does an insured pay for covered expenses under Medicare Part B after the deductible?

125
Q

Which of the following would be considered an activity of daily living under a long term care policy?

126
Q

Periodic increases in policy benefits are allowed in which long-term care policy provision?

A

Inflation protection

127
Q

All of these statements concerning Medicare are true EXCEPT

A

Long-term care is covered by Medicare Part C

128
Q

Which of the following plans will cover medical costs that Medicare doesn’t cover?

A

Medicare supplement

129
Q

Which of the following is NOT a required uniform provision in individual health policies?

A

Change of occupation

130
Q

The misstatement of age provision in a health policy states that if an insured gives the wrong age at the time of application, what action can the insurance company take

A

Benefits can be adjusted

131
Q

The conditions, times, and circumstances under which an insured is NOT covered by a health policy are called

A

exclusions

132
Q

Under a health insurance policy, the provision that states the kind of benefits provided and the circumstances under which they will be paid is called the

A

insuring clause

133
Q

In what situation does a waiver of premium provision keep a health insurance policy in force without premium payments?

A

When an insured becomes totally disabled

134
Q

Under the Payment of Claims provision, when are benefits typically payable after proof of loss is received?

A

Immediately

135
Q

The insurer has the option of terminating a health insurance policy on a date stated in the contract. What type of policy is this?

A

Optionally renewable

136
Q

Which type of health insurance policy cannot be canceled by the insurer nor increase the premiums?

A

Noncancellable

137
Q

Christine has a health insurance policy that has been in force beyond the incontestable period. The insurer has discovered that a fraudulent statement was made on the application. What would the insurer have to pay on a claim, assuming this wasn’t a guaranteed renewable policy?

138
Q

A health insurance policy paid on a quarterly basis has a grace period of

139
Q

What type of changes can be made to a guaranteed renewable health insurance policy?

A

The premium rates of the policyowner

140
Q

Which of these factors do NOT affect the rates of medical insurance?

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be insurer expenses?

A

Policy premiums

142
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the morbidity of a group of individuals?

143
Q

Jim is the insured on a health insurance policy and holds 2 jobs. If “occupation” is used to classify the risk, the insurer will most likely classify Jim according to the occupation that

A

is most hazardous

144
Q

Who acts as the gatekeeper in a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)?

A

Primary care physician

145
Q

The California Insurance Code defines “policy” as a(n)

A

written contract

146
Q

The cost of services charged by the Health Insurance Counseling Advocacy Program (HiCap) is

147
Q

Which of the following is NOT covered by the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)?

A

Traveling overseas with a spouse

148
Q

The California Insurance Code allows an individual how many days to cancel a life policy for a full-refund?

A

Between 10 and 30 days

149
Q

Which of the following acts is NOT a Federal offense committed by an insurance agent?

A

Misrepresentation on an insurance application

150
Q

The California Life and Health Insurance Guarantee Association covers all of these types of policies EXCEPT

A

Self-funded plans

151
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of insurance regulation?

A

Interpret policy provisions

152
Q

MRMIP is a

A

state program that offers health coverage to California residents who are not able to obtain coverage due to pre-existing conditions

153
Q

Both the Federal and state governments jointly finance which health insurance entitlement program?

154
Q

Where must you specifically reside to qualify for MRMIP?

A

California

155
Q

What is the purpose of the Pre-Existing Condition Insurance Plan (PCIP)?

A

PCIP was created by the PPACA for people rejected by private health insurers due to pre-existing conditions

156
Q

MRMIP stands for

A

Major Risk Medical Insurance Program

157
Q

In what order are people on the MRMIP waiting list allowed to enroll?

A

Based on the date an individual’s application is received

158
Q

What type of license is required for an individual who charges a fee to review an insured’s existing life insurance policy?

A

Life and disability analyst

159
Q

What effect did the Pregnancy Discrimination Act have on the health industry?

A

Pregnancy must be treated as any other medical condition

160
Q

Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of Access for Infants and Mothers Program (AIM)?

A

Only women who have private insurance plans with a maternity-only deductible or copayment greater than $1,500 are eligible

161
Q

Which of the following does the California Department of Insurance (CDI) have NO jurisdiction over?

162
Q

According to PPACA, what is a health benefits exchange?

A

An entity to which individuals and small businesses can have access to affordable health coverage

163
Q

An agent has advertised that the insurer to which the agent is appointed with is a member of the Insurance Guarantee Association. This agent has committed a(n)

A

unfair method of competition

164
Q

In California, an insurer organized under the state laws of Oregon is called a(n)

A

foreign insurer

165
Q

Who does a life settlement broker represent?

A

Individual wanting to sell their life policy to a third party

166
Q

How is an agent’s first year commission calculated for a replacement long-term policy?

A

Based on the difference between the new and original policy annual premiums

167
Q

According to the California Insurance Code, how is the word “may” interpreted?

A

Permissive

168
Q

What is an insurance solicitor authorized to do?

A

Help an agent or broker sell insurance

169
Q

An insurance company entitled to transact business in California is called a(n)

A

admitted carrier

170
Q

Which word implies permissiveness according to the California Insurance Code?

171
Q

An individual who transacts life, disability, or life and accident and health insurance on behalf of an insurer is called a(n)

A

life agent

172
Q

What is the insurance term the State of California uses for an insurer that is eligible to transact business in this state?

173
Q

When selling a long term care insurance rider to an applicant, a life agent must take into consideration all of these factors EXCEPT

A

Attending physician’s statement

174
Q

Which of the following does the California Insurance Code NOT require an insurance policy to specify?

A

Insurer’s financial rating

175
Q

A representation may be altered or withdrawn

A

only before the insurance is in effect

176
Q

How many “activities of daily living” must an insured be UNABLE to perform in order to meet the chronically ill requirement of a Long-Term Care policy?

A

Minimum of two activities of daily living

177
Q

A person who asserts a right of recovery under an insurance policy is called

178
Q

When intentional concealment is involved, what course of action is the injured party entitled to?

A

Rescission of the contract

179
Q

What is required after a life agent sells an insurance policy to an applicant without being appointed by the insurer?

A

Notice of appointment must be submitted to the Commissioner

180
Q

Which of the following does NOT have to be included on life insurance policy illustrations?

A

Statement that all values and benefits are guaranteed

181
Q

According to the California Insurance Code, what term is used to describe a fact so important it could affect the policy premium?

A

Materiality

182
Q

Which of the following actions is NOT allowed by Health Insurance Counseling and Advocacy Program (HiCAP) counselors?

A

Charge a fee

183
Q

According to the PPACA, the medical enrollment tier that has 80% actuarial value is called

184
Q

Pete is a life agent who has misappropriated fiduciary funds to his own use. What is Pete guilty of?

185
Q

According to the PPACA, an adult can be covered by a parent’s health care plan until what age?

186
Q

What does the term “indemnity” mean as it pertains to insurance?

A

To make whole

187
Q

According to the California Insurance Code, what is “insurance”?

A

A contract

188
Q

The free-look period for life insurance policyowners age 60 or older is

189
Q

In California, the elderly can receive information about health related issues from

A

Health Insurance Counseling and Advocacy Program (HiCAP)

190
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be an act of insurance solicitation?

A

Publishing a magazine where one of the advertisers is an insurer

191
Q

How long must a policy be in force before an insurer is prohibited from denying claims based on misstatements made on the health policy application?

192
Q

Kimberly is an employee on leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA). What will happen to her group health coverage?

A

She continues to be enrolled during the leave

193
Q

Paul has an existing annuity and is sold a new one, in which the new policy holds no greater financial benefit to him than the existing contract. This is considered a(n)

A

unnecessary replacement

194
Q

The California Insurance Code requires that an insurer must have enough assets to cover its liabilities and for reinsurance of all outstanding risks. To remain solvent, it must also possess additional assets equal to what amount?.

A

Its paid-in capital

195
Q

When an insurer has met the qualifications necessary to transact business in California, it is said to be

196
Q

Anyone employed in California to assist an insurance agent in transacting insurance is called an insurance

197
Q

According to the California Insurance Code, what is the maximum penalty per violation for anyone who unwillfully commits an unfair method of competition?

198
Q

How long must life agents keep their transaction records?

199
Q

Life insurance surplus must be distributed to policyowners at what frequency?

200
Q

What does the term coinsurance refer to?

A

After the deductible is satisfied, the percentage paid by the insured for the remaining covered expenses