TEST 1 REVIEW

Question 1

T/F: the majority of pharmaceuticals are produced synthetically so that we have a safer product

Answer 1

TRUE

Question 2

what is the key factor which differentiates a “drug” from a “poison”?

Answer 2

the amount of the compound needed to harm

Question 3

how many methods will veterinarians use to come to a diagnosis? what are they?

Answer 3

1. diagnostic
2. empirical
3. symptomatic

Question 4

what is the correct order of processes which happen to a drug once it has been administered?

Answer 4

1. absorption
2. distribution
3. localisation
4. metabolization/biotransformation
5. excretion

Question 5

if a drug becomes protein-bound while in plasma, what does it become?

Answer 5

inactive

Question 6

“the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches systemic circulation” describes what part of a drug’s role in the body?

Answer 6

its bioavailability

Question 7

where does most drug excretion occur?

Answer 7

kidneys

Question 8

define potency

Answer 8

the amount of drug needed to produce a desired response

Question 9

define efficacy

Answer 9

the degree to which a drug binds/produces desired effect

Question 10

define affinity

Answer 10

the tendency of a drug to combine with a receptor

Question 11

T/F: the majority of drugs are highly selective and result in a single effect

Answer 11

false

Question 12

will a drug with a “narrow” margin of safety have a high or low therapeutic index?

Answer 12

will have a high therapeutic index; takes a higher dose/concentration of the drug to reach MIC so there is a more narrow margin of safety associated

Question 13

do multidose vials contain preservatives?

Answer 13

yes

Question 14

the vet asks you to get the largest gauge needle available at your work station; you find a 20 gauge and a 16 gauge - which do you bring to the vet?

Answer 14

the 16 gauge; as bore size increases, the number of the gauge decreases

Question 15

what route of administration has the fastest onset of action?

Answer 15

intravenous

Question 16

how much does a tuberculin syringe hold?

Answer 16

1.0 mL of medication

Question 17

enrofloxacin is a drug compound commonly known as __________

Answer 17

Baytril

Question 18

ampicillin is a drug compound commonly known as _______

Answer 18

Ampilean

Question 19

Polymixin B + neomycin are drug compounds commonly known as ____

Answer 19

Aerosporin

Question 20

cefazolin is a drug compound commonly known as _______

Answer 20

Kefzol

Question 21

how does inflammation affect the opportunity for a drug to cross into a site of infection?

Answer 21

inflammation increases the opportunity

Question 22

which penicillin must NEVER be administered intravenously?

Answer 22

Penicillin G Procaine (+/- Penicillin G Benzathine)

Question 23

T/F: Amoxicillin drugs have excellent absorptive action from GI tract

Answer 23

true

Question 24

do penicillins administered IV have a short or long half life? how many times would you have to administer per day?

Answer 24

short half life; 4-6 times per day

Question 25

what type of byproduct are cephalosporin drugs?

Answer 25

fungal

Question 26

T/F: cephalosporins are susceptible to beta-lactamase

Answer 26

true

Question 27

which two generations of cephalosporins are intended for parenteral use ONLY?

Answer 27

1st generation | 3rd generation

Question 28

T/F: an animal that is known to be sensitive to penicillin drugs may be safely treated with a cephalosporin class drug

Answer 28

true

Question 29

T/F: Cefa-tabs are a 1st gen cephalosporin best administered with food

Answer 29

true

Question 30

T/F: chloramphenicols can be used safely in food-producing animals

Answer 30

false; chloramphenicols are 100% synthetic and may not be used in food production animals

Question 31

why must chloramphenicols be handled with caution by humans?

Answer 31

they can cause problems that lead to kidney failure (nephrotoxic!!)

Question 32

what does it mean when a drug has the ability to chelate? which class of antimicrobials has this ability?

Answer 32

the drug becomes bound (to ions) in the solution and will precipitate out; tetracyclines

Question 33

what may happen if tetracyclines are given to young animals?

Answer 33

yellowing of the teeth

Question 34

which category of drug is considered to be nephrotoxic, ototoxic AND neurotoxic?

Answer 34

bacitracins

Question 35

what is the active ingredient in Antirobe?

Answer 35

clindamycin

Question 36

which common drug product should not be used in young animals due to its interference with cartilage/joint growth?

Answer 36

Baytril

Question 37

what is the advantage of using the antifungal medication Panalog?

Answer 37

it is effective in 3 ways; anti-inflammatory, antipruritic and antibacterial

Question 38

what is the active ingredient in Flagyl?

Answer 38

metrondiazole

Question 39

what does an antagonist drug do?

Answer 39

blocks another drug from combining with a receptor

Question 40

99.9% of ________ occurs in the liver

Answer 40

biotransformation

Question 41

T/F: a drug with a HIGH therapeutic index is very unsafe

Answer 41

FALSE; a high therapeutic index means that a much higher dose would need to be administered to reach a toxic concentration (this creates a larger margin of safety)

Question 42

T/F: scored tablets do not have uniform drug content

Answer 42

false

Question 43

T/F: after completely depressing the plunger of an insulin syringe, there will be no dead space containing excess drug

Answer 43

true! insulin syringes have no dead space

Question 44

T/F: a lipid soluble drug tends to move out of the plasma and into the interstitial fluid

Answer 44

true

Question 45

what problems can occur when a drug mobilizes back into blood from a storage site?

Answer 45

potential threat for toxicity; no way to know the concentration of the metabolite that exited storage - this would add to the concentration of any successive doses

Question 46

T/F: a drug with high bioavailability will be found in low concentrations in general circulation

Answer 46

false; the concentration would also be high in general circulation because it is easily dispersed/absorbed

Question 47

what are 3 natural barriers for pharmacokinetics?

Answer 47

1. placenta 2. blood/brain barrier 3. eye

Question 48

define an agonist drug

Answer 48

a drug with a high level of affinity and a high level of efficacy

Question 49

what is the first pass effect?

Answer 49

drugs administered orally are absorbed in the GI tract and sent to liver to metabolize via the hepatic portal vein; after the liver, the metabolized drug reenters the GI

Question 50

why should we be cautious about concurrent medications that share the same route of excretion?

Answer 50

potential for a toxic level accumulation due to overloaded kidney and "traffic jam" in tubules

Question 51

define therapeutic index

Answer 51

the amount of drug it takes to reach toxic levels of concentration

Question 52

T/F: it is better to have a low therapeutic index

Answer 52

false; high is better

Question 53

how would you calculate therapeutic index?

Answer 53

lethal dose/effetive dose

Question 54

what 3 factors contribute to antimicrobial resistance?

Answer 54

1. incorrect dose 2. incorrect duration of treatment 3. incorrect choice of antimicrobial

Question 55

what clinical state hinders a drug's ability to reach a desired site?

Answer 55

abscess

Question 56

T/F: inflammation does not aid a drug reaching the desired site

Answer 56

false; inflammation AIDS a drug in reaching the desired site

Question 57

what is a beta-lactamase resistant penicillin?

Answer 57

penicillin is resistant to the enzyme produced by bacteria in attempt to inactivate the drug

Question 58

T/F: Ampicillin is a potentiated penicillin

Answer 58

false; Clavamox is a potentiated penicillin

Question 59

what is the most common route of administration for cephalosporins?

Answer 59

parenteral (injection)

Question 60

what is the key step in order for potentiated antibiotics to be effective?

Answer 60

both the drug and potentiating compound must reach the desired site at the same time to reach proper MIC

Question 61

sulfasalazine is an antimicrobial drug; what other effect does it have? what area of the body does this apply to?

Answer 61

antiinflammatory effect; colon - when given orally only 1/3 of the drug is absorbed and 2/3 remain in the colon producing an antiinflammatory effect

Question 62

T/F: bacitracins are similar to penicillins and are susceptible to beta-lactamase

Answer 62

false

Question 63

bacitracins are usually reserved for one route of administration - what is it and why?

Answer 63

topically; very nephrotoxic

Question 64

it is not safe to administer fluoroquinolones to dogs of what age?

Answer 64

8 months or less

Question 65

what is the unique feature of fluoroquinolones?

Answer 65

they exhibit a post-antibiotic effect

Question 66

T/F: depending on the dose, chloramphenicals can be both bacteriostatic and bactericidal

Answer 66

true

Question 67

why is Neomycin only administered orally?

Answer 67

it is toxic if given systemically (aminoglycoside)