Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMY (me) > TEST 1 REVIEW > Flashcards

TEST 1 REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: the majority of pharmaceuticals are produced synthetically so that we have a safer product

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the key factor which differentiates a “drug” from a “poison”?

A

the amount of the compound needed to harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how many methods will veterinarians use to come to a diagnosis? what are they?

A
  1. diagnostic
  2. empirical
  3. symptomatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the correct order of processes which happen to a drug once it has been administered?

A
  1. absorption
  2. distribution
  3. localisation
  4. metabolization/biotransformation
  5. excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

if a drug becomes protein-bound while in plasma, what does it become?

A

inactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

“the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches systemic circulation” describes what part of a drug’s role in the body?

A

its bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where does most drug excretion occur?

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define potency

A

the amount of drug needed to produce a desired response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define efficacy

A

the degree to which a drug binds/produces desired effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define affinity

A

the tendency of a drug to combine with a receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F: the majority of drugs are highly selective and result in a single effect

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

will a drug with a “narrow” margin of safety have a high or low therapeutic index?

A

will have a high therapeutic index; takes a higher dose/concentration of the drug to reach MIC so there is a more narrow margin of safety associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

do multidose vials contain preservatives?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the vet asks you to get the largest gauge needle available at your work station; you find a 20 gauge and a 16 gauge - which do you bring to the vet?

A

the 16 gauge; as bore size increases, the number of the gauge decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what route of administration has the fastest onset of action?

A

intravenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how much does a tuberculin syringe hold?

A

1.0 mL of medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

enrofloxacin is a drug compound commonly known as __________

A

Baytril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ampicillin is a drug compound commonly known as _______

A

Ampilean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Polymixin B + neomycin are drug compounds commonly known as ____

A

Aerosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

cefazolin is a drug compound commonly known as _______

A

Kefzol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how does inflammation affect the opportunity for a drug to cross into a site of infection?

A

inflammation increases the opportunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which penicillin must NEVER be administered intravenously?

A

Penicillin G Procaine (+/- Penicillin G Benzathine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: Amoxicillin drugs have excellent absorptive action from GI tract

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

do penicillins administered IV have a short or long half life? how many times would you have to administer per day?

A

short half life; 4-6 times per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what type of byproduct are cephalosporin drugs?

A

fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F: cephalosporins are susceptible to beta-lactamase

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which two generations of cephalosporins are intended for parenteral use ONLY?

A

1st generation

3rd generation

28
Q

T/F: an animal that is known to be sensitive to penicillin drugs may be safely treated with a cephalosporin class drug

A

true

29
Q

T/F: Cefa-tabs are a 1st gen cephalosporin best administered with food

A

true

30
Q

T/F: chloramphenicols can be used safely in food-producing animals

A

false; chloramphenicols are 100% synthetic and may not be used in food production animals

31
Q

why must chloramphenicols be handled with caution by humans?

A

they can cause problems that lead to kidney failure (nephrotoxic!!)

32
Q

what does it mean when a drug has the ability to chelate? which class of antimicrobials has this ability?

A

the drug becomes bound (to ions) in the solution and will precipitate out; tetracyclines

33
Q

what may happen if tetracyclines are given to young animals?

A

yellowing of the teeth

34
Q

which category of drug is considered to be nephrotoxic, ototoxic AND neurotoxic?

A

bacitracins

35
Q

what is the active ingredient in Antirobe?

A

clindamycin

36
Q

which common drug product should not be used in young animals due to its interference with cartilage/joint growth?

A

Baytril

37
Q

what is the advantage of using the antifungal medication Panalog?

A

it is effective in 3 ways; anti-inflammatory, antipruritic and antibacterial

38
Q

what is the active ingredient in Flagyl?

A

metrondiazole

39
Q

what does an antagonist drug do?

A

blocks another drug from combining with a receptor

40
Q

99.9% of ________ occurs in the liver

A

biotransformation

41
Q

T/F: a drug with a HIGH therapeutic index is very unsafe

A

FALSE; a high therapeutic index means that a much higher dose would need to be administered to reach a toxic concentration (this creates a larger margin of safety)

42
Q

T/F: scored tablets do not have uniform drug content

A

false

43
Q

T/F: after completely depressing the plunger of an insulin syringe, there will be no dead space containing excess drug

A

true! insulin syringes have no dead space

44
Q

T/F: a lipid soluble drug tends to move out of the plasma and into the interstitial fluid

A

true

45
Q

what problems can occur when a drug mobilizes back into blood from a storage site?

A

potential threat for toxicity; no way to know the concentration of the metabolite that exited storage - this would add to the concentration of any successive doses

46
Q

T/F: a drug with high bioavailability will be found in low concentrations in general circulation

A

false; the concentration would also be high in general circulation because it is easily dispersed/absorbed

47
Q

what are 3 natural barriers for pharmacokinetics?

A
  1. placenta
  2. blood/brain barrier
  3. eye
48
Q

define an agonist drug

A

a drug with a high level of affinity and a high level of efficacy

49
Q

what is the first pass effect?

A

drugs administered orally are absorbed in the GI tract and sent to liver to metabolize via the hepatic portal vein; after the liver, the metabolized drug reenters the GI

50
Q

why should we be cautious about concurrent medications that share the same route of excretion?

A

potential for a toxic level accumulation due to overloaded kidney and “traffic jam” in tubules

51
Q

define therapeutic index

A

the amount of drug it takes to reach toxic levels of concentration

52
Q

T/F: it is better to have a low therapeutic index

A

false; high is better

53
Q

how would you calculate therapeutic index?

A

lethal dose/effetive dose

54
Q

what 3 factors contribute to antimicrobial resistance?

A
  1. incorrect dose
  2. incorrect duration of treatment
  3. incorrect choice of antimicrobial
55
Q

what clinical state hinders a drug’s ability to reach a desired site?

A

abscess

56
Q

T/F: inflammation does not aid a drug reaching the desired site

A

false; inflammation AIDS a drug in reaching the desired site

57
Q

what is a beta-lactamase resistant penicillin?

A

penicillin is resistant to the enzyme produced by bacteria in attempt to inactivate the drug

58
Q

T/F: Ampicillin is a potentiated penicillin

A

false; Clavamox is a potentiated penicillin

59
Q

what is the most common route of administration for cephalosporins?

A

parenteral (injection)

60
Q

what is the key step in order for potentiated antibiotics to be effective?

A

both the drug and potentiating compound must reach the desired site at the same time to reach proper MIC

61
Q

sulfasalazine is an antimicrobial drug; what other effect does it have? what area of the body does this apply to?

A

antiinflammatory effect; colon - when given orally only 1/3 of the drug is absorbed and 2/3 remain in the colon producing an antiinflammatory effect

62
Q

T/F: bacitracins are similar to penicillins and are susceptible to beta-lactamase

A

false

63
Q

bacitracins are usually reserved for one route of administration - what is it and why?

A

topically; very nephrotoxic

64
Q

it is not safe to administer fluoroquinolones to dogs of what age?

A

8 months or less

65
Q

what is the unique feature of fluoroquinolones?

A

they exhibit a post-antibiotic effect

66
Q

T/F: depending on the dose, chloramphenicals can be both bacteriostatic and bactericidal

A

true

67
Q

why is Neomycin only administered orally?

A

it is toxic if given systemically (aminoglycoside)

PMY (me) (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions