TEST 1 - PICTURE DECK Flashcards

1
Q
A
  1. Inion
  2. Vertebral border of Scapula
  3. Inferior Angle of Scapula
  4. Spine of Scapula
  5. Acromion Process
  6. Clavicle
  7. Coracoid Process
  8. Brachial Pulse
  9. Lateral Epicondyle of the humerus
  10. Olecranon process of the ulna
  11. T12 Spinous Process
  12. Sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A
  1. Inion
  2. Vertebral border of Scapula
  3. Inferior Angle of Scapula
  4. Spine of Scapula
  5. Acromion Process
  6. Clavicle
  7. Coracoid Process
  8. Brachial Pulse
  9. Lateral Epicondyle of the humerus
  10. Olecranon process of the ulna
  11. T12 Spinous Process
  12. Sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A
  1. Inion
  2. Vertebral border of Scapula
  3. Inferior Angle of Scapula
  4. Spine of Scapula
  5. Acromion Process
  6. Clavicle
  7. Coracoid Process
  8. Brachial Pulse
  9. Lateral Epicondyle of the humerus
  10. Olecranon process of the ulna
  11. T12 Spinous Process
  12. Sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A
  1. Inion
  2. Vertebral border of Scapula
  3. Inferior Angle of Scapula
  4. Spine of Scapula
  5. Acromion Process
  6. Clavicle
  7. Coracoid Process
  8. Brachial Pulse
  9. Lateral Epicondyle of the humerus
  10. Olecranon process of the ulna
  11. T12 Spinous Process
  12. Sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A
  1. Inion
  2. Vertebral border of Scapula
  3. Inferior Angle of Scapula
  4. Spine of Scapula
  5. Acromion Process
  6. Clavicle
  7. Coracoid Process
  8. Brachial Pulse
  9. Lateral Epicondyle of the humerus
  10. Olecranon process of the ulna
  11. T12 Spinous Process
  12. Sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
  1. Inion
  2. Vertebral border of Scapula
  3. Inferior Angle of Scapula
  4. Spine of Scapula
  5. Acromion Process
  6. Clavicle
  7. Coracoid Process
  8. Brachial Pulse
  9. Lateral Epicondyle of the humerus
  10. Olecranon process of the ulna
  11. T12 Spinous Process
  12. Sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define and explain a lever and an anatomic lever.

A

Lever - two forces (effort and resistance) around a pivot. 1st, 2nd, and 3rd class levers.

Most body levers are third class levers - example, swimming. Shoulder is fulcrum and arm is lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List, give examples of, and identify types of bones in relation to structure bony shape.

A

Long bone - longer than it is wide, tube with a bulb. Femur, humerus

Short bone - Cube shape (equal dimensions) Carpals, Tarsals

Flat bone - Broad surface, not thick, curved surface Ileum, Scapula

Irregular bone - Mixed shapes, don’t fit into any other category vertebrae

Sesamoid - Shaped like seame seeds, encased in tendons where they change pull angles Patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Idenitfy/recognize and define all generic terms related to to surface structures (bony markings) found on bones

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List and identify the stuctural components of bone and identify the function for each.

A

epiphysis is the area at each end of a long bone. Longitudinal growth occurs here
through the manufacturing of new bone.

diaphysis - main shaft, gives bone strength

medullary canal - is hollow, which decreases the weight of the bone. This canal contains marrow and provides passage for nutrient arteries.

endosteum - a membrane that lines the medullary canal. It contains osteoclasts, which are mainly responsible for bone resorption.

periosteum - the thin fibrous membrane covering all of the bone except the articular surfaces that are covered with hyaline cartilage. The periosteum contains nerve and blood vessels that are important in providing nourishment, promoting growth in diameter of immature bone, and repairing the bone. It also serves as an attachment point for tendons and ligaments.

metaphysis - the flared part at each end of the diaphysis, made up mostly of cancellous bone and functions to support the epiphysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the mechanical axis of bone

A

Straight line connecting proximal/distal joints.

  • Always straight line in sagittal/frontal plane
  • Can be from 1 joint to another or multiple joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List the functions of the skeletal system (6)

A
  1. Rigid framework for the human body
  2. Gives support and shape to the body
  3. Protects vital organs
  4. Assists in Movement by serving as the structure for attachment and leverage
  5. Manufactures blood cells (ilium, vertebra, sternum and ribs)
  6. Stores calcium and mineral salts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

KYPHOSIS - Define and Discuss

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define and discuss Lordosis

A

Abnormally increased cruve of the lumbar spine. Layman’s term is “swayback”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define and discuss scoliosis

A

Pathological condition - any amount of lateral curve in the spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Discuss intervertebral discs

A

Intervertebral discs articulate and separate the vertebra. Their main function is to transmit shock and maintain flexibility. The disks make up 25% of the vertebral column length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define Arthrokinematics and how it can be observed

A

The study of movement occurring within the joints and between the articular surfaces of the bones.

It can be observed by knowing the shape of the articular surfaces and observing the direction of movement of the bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Regardless of join classificaiton, the shape of all articular surfaces of synovial joints is..

Give Example.

A

To varying degrees, either concave or convex, even if the articiulations are classified as a plane.

Example: Acetabulum is concave and femur is convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Two types of articular motion

A

Glide (car sliding on an icy surface)

Roll (car tire rolling on the ground)

40
Q

Decreased motion at a joint is due to _______.

With _______ being more significant.

A

decreased glide and rolll.

Decreased glide being more significant

41
Q

The therapist determines the normal direction of glide at a joint for a specific movement by the following 3 things:

A
  1. Knowing the shape of the moving articular surface (described at the beginning of each chapter).
  2. Observing the direction of movement of the bone during the assessment of the PROM.
  3. Applying the concave–convex rule.
42
Q

The Concave-Convex rule states that:

A

a. When a convex joint surface moves on a fixed concave surface, the convex joint surface glides in the opposite direction to the movement of the shaft of the bone.
b. When a concave joint surface moves on a fixed convex surface, the concave joint surface glides in the same direction as the movement of the shaft of the bone

43
Q

Discuss Spin:

A

the third type of movement that occurs between articular surfaces is a rotary motion that occurs around an axis.

During normal joint ROM, spin may occur alone or accompany roll and glide.

Spin occurs alone during flexion and extension at the shoulder and hip joints, and pronation and supination at the humeroradial joint.

Spin occurs in conjunction with roll and glide during flexion and extension at the knee joint.

44
Q

When are the AROM and PROM assessment techniques contraindicated if?

Given an example.

A

where muscle contraction (i.e., in the case of AROM) or motion of the part (i.e., in the case of either AROM or PROM) could disrupt the healing process or result in injury or deterioration of the condition.

EXAMPLES: 1. If motion to the part will cause further damage or interrupt the healing process immediately after injury or surgery. 2. If the therapist suspects a subluxation or dislocation or fracture.

45
Q

Take extra care when assessing AROM and PROM when:

A
  1. In painful conditions. 2. In the presence of an inflammatory process in a joint or the region around a joint. 3. In patients taking medication for pain or muscle relaxants, because the patient may not be able to respond appropriately and movement may be performed too vigorously. 4. In the presence of marked osteoporosis or in conditions where bone fragility is a factor, perform PROM with extreme care or not at all. 5. In assessing a hypermobile joint. 6. In patients with hemophilia. 7. In the region of a hematoma, especially at the elbow, hip, or knee. 8. In assessing joints if bony ankylosis is suspected. 9. After an injury where there has been a disruption of soft tissue (i.e., tendon, muscle, ligament). 10. In the region of a recently healed fracture. 11. After prolonged immobilization of a part.
46
Q

Assessment of the AROM can provide the following patient information:

A
  • Willingness to move
  • Level of consciousness
  • Ability to follow instructions
  • Attention span
  • Coordination
  • Joint ROM
  • Movements that cause or increase pain
  • Muscle strength
  • Ability to perform functional activities
47
Q

AROM may be decreased due to the following patient factors:

A
  • Unwillingness to move
  • Inability to follow instructions
  • Restricted joint mobility
  • Muscle weakness
  • Pain
48
Q

Assessment of AROM is followed by:

A

An assessment of PROM and muscle strength.

49
Q

Assessment of the PROM provides information about the following:

A
  • Amount of movement possible at the joint
  • Factors responsible for limiting movement
  • Movements that cause or increase pain
50
Q

PROM is usually _________ than AROM, becuase…

A
  • Greater
  • due to the decreased bulk of relaxed muscles - also the presence of muscle weakness
51
Q

To assess the PROM…

A

stabilize the proximal joint segment(s) and move the distal joint segment(s) through the full PROM (Fig. 1-25) and do the following:

  • Visually estimate the PROM
  • Determine the quality of the movement throughout the PROM
  • Determine the end feel and factors that limit the PROM
  • Note the presence of pain
  • Determine whether a capsular or noncapsular pattern of movement is present
52
Q

The factors that normally limit movement and determine the range of the PROM at a joint include:

A
  • The stretching of soft tissues (i.e., muscles, fascia, and skin)
  • The stretching of ligaments or the joint capsule
  • The apposition of soft tissues
  • Bone contacting bone
53
Q

The end feel is…

A

the sensation transmitted to the therapist’s hand at the extreme end of the PROM that indicates the structures that limit the joint movement.18 The end feel may be normal (physiological) or abnormal (pathological).19

54
Q

Facet

A

Small, flat surface on a bone. Facets are found on the thoracic vertebraeat the rib attacment point.

55
Q

The skull is made of how many bones?

56
Q
  1. Using descriptive terminology, complete the
    following:
    a. The sternum is ___________________ to the vertebral column.
    b. The calcaneus is on the ___________________
    portion of the foot.
    c. The hip is ___________________ to the chest.
    d. The femur is ___________________ to the tibia.
    e. The radius is on the ___________________ side
    of the forearm.
A

a. Anterior
b. inferior
c. posterior
d. proximal
e. lateral

57
Q
  1. When a football is kicked through the goalposts,
    what type of motion is being demonstrated by the
    football? By the kicker?
A

Football = curvilinear

Kicker = angular

58
Q
  1. Looking at a spot on the ceiling directly over your
    head involves what joint motion?
A

Neck Hyperextension

59
Q

Putting your hand in your back pocket involves
what shoulder joint rotation?

A

Shoulder medial rotation

60
Q

Picking up a pencil on the floor beside your chair
involves what trunk joint motion?

A

Picking up a pencil on the floor beside your chair
involves what trunk joint motion?

61
Q

Putting your right ankle on your left knee involves
what type of hip rotation?

A

Hip lateral rotation

62
Q

What is the only difference between anatomical
position and fundamental position?

A

Anatomical - Palms are supinated

Fundamental - Palms are neutral

63
Q
  1. If you place your hand on the back of a dog, that is
    referred to as what surface? If you place your hand
    on the back of a person, that is referred to as what
    surface?
A

Back of dog = dorsal

Back of person = posterior

64
Q
  1. A person wheeling across a room in a wheelchair
    uses both linear and angular motion. Describe
    when each type of motion is being used.
A

Angular includes the shoulder, elbow, and wrist movement of the person wheeling the chair.

Linear movement is the movement of the wheelchair across the floor.

65
Q
  1. A person lying on a bed staring at the ceiling is in
    what position?
66
Q
  1. When touching the left shoulder with the left
    hand, is a person using the contralateral or ipsilateral hand?
A

Ipsilateral (same side)

67
Q

Refer to Figure 1-15 below.
12. Identify the three main positions of the left hip.
13. What is the position of the left knee?
14. What is the position of the right forearm?
15. Identify the two main positions of the neck
(not the head).

A
  1. Left Hip Flexion, Adduction, Lateral Rotation
  2. Left Knee Extension
  3. Right Foremarm Supination
  4. Neck extension, rotation to the left
68
Q
  1. What are the differences between the axial and
    appendicular skeletons?
A

The axial skeleton contains no long or short bones,
whereas the appendicular skeleton contains no
irregular bones.

The bones of the axial skeleton are
particularly important in providing support and
protection; the appendicular skeleton provides the
framework for movement.

69
Q

Give one example of compact bone and one of cancellous bone.

A

Compact bone is found in the diaphysis of long
bones, and cancellous bone is found in the metaphysis and epiphysis.

In other types of bone, cancellous bone is found sandwiched between layers of compact bone.

70
Q

Which is heavier, compact bone or cancellous
bone? Why?

A

Compact bone is heavier than cancellous bone
because it is less porous.

71
Q

What type of bone is mainly involved in an individual’s growth in height?

In what portion of the bone does this growth occur?

A

An individual’s height growth occurs mainly in
long bones. The growth occurs at the epiphysis of
long bones.

72
Q

What is purpose of sesamoid bone?

A

Sesamoid bones protect tendons from excess wear.
The patella has the additional function of increasing the angle of pull of the quadriceps muscle.

73
Q
  1. Name the bone markings that can be classified as
    a. depressions and openings;
    b. projections or processes that fit into joints;
    c. projections or processes that attach connective
    tissue.
A

a. Foramen, fossa, groove, meatus, sinus
b. Condyle, eminence, facet, head
c. Crest, epicondyle, line, spine, trochanter,
tuberosity, tubercle

74
Q

In Questions 7–9, classify the bone markings.

  1. Bicipital groove
  2. Humeral head
  3. Acetabulum
A
  1. Bicipital groove: ditchlike depression
  2. Humeral head: rounded articular projection that
    fits into a joint
  3. Acetabulum: deep depression
75
Q
  1. What is the name of the membrane that lines the
    medullary canal?
76
Q

The main shaft of bone is called what?

77
Q

In children, does long bone growth occur at a traction epiphysis or at a pressure epiphysis?

A

Pressure epiphysis

78
Q

Is the humerus part of the axial or appendicular
skeleton?

A

Appendicular Skeleton

79
Q

Is the clavicle part of the axial or appendicular
skeleton?

A

Appendicular

80
Q
  1. Is the sternum part of the axial or appendicular
    skeleton?
81
Q
  1. You are handed a cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
    vertebra. What identifying features help you distinguish among them?
A

The cervical vertebra has a bifid spinous process,
and there is a foramen in the transverse process. Thethoracic vertebra has a long slender, downwardpointing spinous process with rib facets on thebody and transverse processes; the superior articular processes face posteriorly. The lumbar vertebra has a large spinous process pointing straight back; the superior articular processes face medially.

82
Q
  1. If a person had an excessive cervical lordosis, would you expect the cervical extensors or flexors to be tight?
A
  1. Cervical extensors
83
Q
  1. Which position—side, front, or back—would be best to assess the condition in question 1?
A

The side view

84
Q

List the five functions of the skeletal system

A
  1. Gives support and shape to the body
  2. Protects vital organs
  3. Assists in movement
  4. Manufactures blood cells
  5. Stores calcium and mineral salts
85
Q

Are following parts part of Appendicular or Axial Skeleton?

  1. Arms
  2. Head
  3. Vertebrae
  4. Lower extremity
A
  1. Appendicular
  2. Axial
  3. Axial
  4. Appendicular
86
Q

Describe Compact Bone

A

Hard, dense oouter shell on a bone. Thick on the long shaft or a bone, thin on the ends.

87
Q

Describe cancellous bone

A

Pourous and spongy - arrnged in a pattern to resist stresses and strains.

88
Q

Bone is made of up of how much _______ organic material and __________ inorganic material.

89
Q

Where are osteoclasts located?

A

In the endosteum (lines the medullary canal).

90
Q

Label the parts below:

91
Q

Which of the following is located at the ends of long bones?

A

Pressure epiphysis

92
Q

What covers most of a bone’s surface, and what is it’s purpose?

A

Periosteum - it provides nourishment, and aids in growth and repair.

93
Q

Where does longitudinal bone growth occur?

A

Epiphyseal plate

94
Q

What are the characteristics of compact bone? Of cancellous bone?

A
  1. Hard and dense, covers outside of bone
  2. Porous and spongy, inside portion of bone
95
Q

Discuss Intervertebral disk

A
  1. Articulates adjoining vertebrae
  2. 23 of them between C2 and tail bone
  3. Absorb/transmit shock, and provide flexibility
  4. 25% of spine length
96
Q

How should you describe joint motion?

What is an exception?

A

Don’t use body segments to describe joint motion. Flexion occurs at shoulder, not arm. Arm just along for the ride.

Exception: Forearm pronation and supination