Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NUR 150 > Test 1 Pharm > Flashcards

Test 1 Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

PCA Pump

4 medications used

A

Morphine sulfate
Fentanyl
Diluadid
Narcan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PCA Pump

Medications side effects

A 
Nausea
Itching
Drowsiness
Urinary retention 
Constipation
Hallucinations
Slow rate of breathing 
OVERSEDATION
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HCTZ

A

Increased BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fish oil

A

Increased risk of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Motrin

A

Increased risk of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ETOH

A

Increased risk of bleeding, withdrawal symptoms during post op period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Coumadin

A

Increased risk of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Metaformin

A

Hypo or hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Plavix

A

Increased risk of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Insulin

A

Hypo or hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ginseng

A

Increased BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prednisone

A

Decreased wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Benzodiazepine

What is it used for?

A

Used for amnesia and anxiety reduction

Commonly used for procedural sedation or adjunctive anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Benzodiazepine

Examples

A

Versed/Midazolam
Valium/Diazepam
Ativan/Lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anticholinergic

What is it used for/side effects?

A 
Inhibit secretions
Dilate pupils
Decrease GI motility 
May cause urinary retention 
Caution with glaucoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antiemetic

Medications

A

Reglan/Metoclopramide
Zofran/ondansetron
Phenergan/Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Antiemetic

Reglan/Metoclopramide Side effect

A

Extrapyramidal effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antiemetic

Zofran/ondansetron Side effects

A

Dysrhythmia, hypotension, fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Antiemetic

Phenergan/Promethazine Side effects

A

Burning at site, sedation, bradycardia, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonists

Medication

A

Pepcid/famotidine
Zantac/ranitidine
Tagamet/cimetidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Narcotics

What is it used for?

A

Decrease pain during pre- operative procedures
May reduce anesthesia required
Adjunctive to sedation or induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Narcotics

Medications

A

Fentanyl sulfate
Demerol/Meperidine
Morphine Sulfate
Dilaudid/ Hydromorphone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

General anesthesia

What is it used for?

A

Loss of sensation, consciousness, reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anesthesia - IV Induction agents

What is it used for?

A

Rapid and pleasant sleep

Short acting and facilitates intubation and inhalation agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anesthesia - IV Induction agents

Medications - Barbiturates

A

Pentothal/Sodium
Thiopental
Brevital/Methohexital Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Anesthesia - IV Induction agents

Medications - Hypnotics

A

Propofol and Amidate

27
Q

Inhalation agents

Administration

A

Anesthesia equipment essentially mixes and vaporizes inhalation agents

28
Q

Inhalation agents

Actions

A

Absorption-Excretion: alveoli

Bronchodilate, vasodilate, myocardial depressant, muscle relaxant

29
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents

A

Paralysis of diaphragm

MUST also give sedative

30
Q

TIVA

A 
Use Propofol (or other agent) IV infusion
Start with an induction loading dose and switch to
maintenance
31
Q

Local anesthesia

What is it used for?

A

Loss of sensation without loss of consciousness

32
Q

Local anesthesia

Medications

A

Lidocaine
Novacaine
Marcaine-longer acting (12 hrs)
EMLA (topical agent)

33
Q

Regional anesthesia

What is it used for?

A

Injected into and around nerve group that supplies sensation to an area of the body

34
Q

Spinal and epidural anesthesia

What is it used for?

A

Loss of sensation to a region following nerve block without loss of consciousness

35
Q

Spinal anesthesia

A

Injection of local anesthesia agent into CSF via subarachnoid space
Numbs and paralyzes

36
Q

Epidural anesthesia

A

Inject local anesthesia into extradural space

Numbs

37
Q

IV Moderate sedation

A

Given with or without local
Minimally depresses consciousness
Patient responds to verbal stimulation and maintains airway and respirations and can respond to simple commands

38
Q

Malignant hyperthermia antidote

How it works

A

Dantrium or Dantrolene

Drives calcium back into cells

39
Q

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory

Drugs (NSAIDS)

A 
Salicylates (aspirin)
Indomethacin (Indocin)
Ibuprofen (Motrin)
Ketorolac (Toradol)
Naproxen (Naprosyn)
Piroxicam (Feldene)
COX-2 inhibitors (Celebrex)
40
Q

Aspirin

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation

41
Q

Aspirin

Adverse effects

A

Nausea and vomiting
GI bleeding
Bleeding
Thrombocytopenia

42
Q

Anticoagulants

Vitamin K antagonists

A

Warfarin (Coumadin)

43
Q

Anticoagulants

Thrombin inhibitors

A

Heparin

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

44
Q

Anticoagulants

Factor Xa inhibitors

A

Fondaparinux (Arixtra)
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
Apixaban (Eliquis)

45
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

What does it do?

A

Inhibit bone resorption by osteoclasts

46
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Estrogen

A

No longer primary treatment due to risks

47
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Estrogen receptor modulators

A

Raloxifene (Evista)
Calcitonin (Calcimar)
Denosumab (Prolia)

48
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Raloxifene (Evista)

A

Mimics effects of estrogen with fewer side effects

49
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Calcitonin (Calcimar)

A

Usually given by nasal spray

Thyroid hormone

50
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Denosumab (Prolia)

A

Antibody that binds to protein involved in function of osteoclasts

51
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Bisphosphonates side effects

A

Significant GI effects
Challenges with absorption
Jaw osteonecrosis (rare)

52
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate (Fosamax)
Risedronate (Actonel)
Ibandronate (Boniva)
Zoledronic acid (Reclast)

53
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Alendronate (Fosamax)

A

Slows down function of osteoclasts and inhibits breakdown of bone

54
Q

Osteoporosis Drug Therapy

Teriparatide (Forteo)

A

Stimulate new bone formation by osteoblasts

SQ injection, once daily

55
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Drug Therapy
Disease modifiying anti- rheumatic drugs
How do they work?

A

Suppress inflammation and immune system
Potential to lessen permanent effects (as opposed to NSAIDs, which only relieve pain)
Birth defects

56
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Drug Therapy (DMARDs)

A

Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)

Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)

57
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Drug Therapy (DMARDs)

Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)

A

Usually first choice

Bone marrow suppression - CBC

58
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Drug Therapy (DMARDs)

A

May be used in mild disease

Retinol degreneration

59
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Drug Therapy (DMARDs)

Biologic Therapy

A

If no response to DMARDs or part of combination therapy

60
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis Drug Therapy (DMARDs)

Biologic Therapy Medications

A

Etanercept (Enbrel)
Infliximab (Remicade)
Adalimumab (Humira)
Anakinra (Kineret)

61
Q

Gout Management

Prevention of future attacks

A

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

62
Q

Gout Management

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

A 
Reduces uric acid levels
Weight reduction, as needed
Avoid alcohol and foods high in purines (red and organ meats)
Prevent kidney stones
Adequate urine output
63
Q

Gout Management

Acute attacks

A

Colchicine (Colcrys)

NSAID for pain relief

64
Q

Gout Management

Colchicine (Colcrys)

A

Antiinflammatory

No analgesic properties

NUR 150 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions