Test 1

Question 1

Guillain-Barre syndrome is often associated with ____ infection. This bacteria is a Gram-__ organism with a characteristic curved-___ shape. Diagnosis is confirmed with culture, and further testing will be ____ for catalase and oxidase

Answer 1

Campylobacter jejuni/ negative/ rod/ positive

Question 2

A Gram-negative, oxidase-negative rod which does not ferment lactose (white colonies on MacConkey agar) or produce hydrogen sulfide (no blackening on TSI) is ____, a extremely virulent bacteria. It invades via the ….. cells found in the Peyer patches of the small intestine, spreading between cells by actin ……

Answer 2

Shigella/ M/ rockets

Question 3

Liver abscess and toxic megacolon result from …… infection

Answer 3

Entamoeba histolytica

Question 4

Meningitis is a complication of invasive ……., caused by ……. Listeriosis causes a self-limiting diarrheal illness in healthy individuals, but can also manifest as neonatal or pediatric …… and …… Symptoms in pregnant women may also include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. It does not cause …… diarrhea. Listeria is a Gram-……, ….-shaped bacteria with ….. motility under light microscopy.

Answer 4

listeriosis/ Listeria monocytogenes/ meningitis/ sepsis/ bloody/ positive/ rod/ tumbling

Question 5

Both _____ and _____ are gram ⊝rods, non-lactose fermenters, oxidase ⊝, and can invade the GI tract via M cells of Peyer patches

Answer 5

Salmonella/ Shigella

Question 6

Li-Fraumeni syndrome is characterized by an autosomal ____ mutation in ____ that is associated with multiple malignancies at an early age. Commonly-associated malignancies can be remembered with the mnemonic __ cancer syndrome: ____, ____, _____, and ____ cancers. In Li-Fraumeni syndrome, one abnormal copy of ____ is inherited, leading to heterozygosity of p53. If the other copy becomes mutated or deleted, there is loss of function of p53. While loss of function of one copy increases cancer risk, both alleles must be lost for expression of the disease.

Answer 6

dominant/ P53/ SBLA/ Sarcoma/ Breast/ Leukemia/ Adrenal gland/ P53

Question 7

In any adult with more than _____ cases of consolidated pneumonia in 1 year, or more than ___ upper respiratory infections (URIs) in 1 year, the physician should consider an immunodeficiency. _____ deficiency is the most common immunodeficiency. Although most patients with this deficiency are asymptomatic, patients are at risk for the development of anaphylactic reactions following ____ or administration of intravenous _____.
IgA is involved in preventing invasion by pathogenic organisms and has a crucial role in maintaining the homeostatic balance between the host and the commensal microbiota. Thus, patients with selective IgA deficiency are particularly susceptible to ____ infections, especially ____.

Answer 7

two/ four/ Selective IgA/ blood transfusions/ immunoglobulin (IVIG)/ gastrointestinal/ giardiasis

Question 8

Risk factors for N. meningitidis infections include living in ____ spaces, or having a history of ____ procedure.

Answer 8

close contact/ splenectomy

Question 9

Positive Stool guaiac test result means …….

Answer 9

blood in stools

Question 10

Celiac disease is an autoimmune-mediated intolerance of ….., which is a gluten protein found in wheat.

Answer 10

gliadin

Question 11

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy manifests with an …. gallop and ……. murmur along the left sternal border. It can be treated with ….. or with non-dihydropyridine ……..

Answer 11

S4/ systolic/ β-blockers/ calcium-channel blockers

Question 12

Septic arthritis is a finding in patients with ____ infection. It presents with fever, migratory joint pain, and synovial inflammation.

Answer 12

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 13

Doxorubicin is commonly used in the initial stage of _____ treatment. It inhibits DNA synthesis through the generation of free radicals that cause strand breaks. It also has the ability to intercalate (insert) between DNA base pairs, and therefore acts during ____ phases of the cell cycle.

Answer 13

acute lymphoblastic leukemia/ multiple

Question 14

___ and _____ are plant alkaloid derivatives that act on cells specifically during the M phase of the cell cycle. They bind to tubulin and block polymerization of microtubules, preventing mitotic spindle assembly and promoting cell cycle arrest in M phase.

Answer 14

Vincristine/ vinblastine

Question 15

Broad-based budding yeast refers to ____. It is found in wooded areas east of the _____ River.
Budding yeast with pseudohyphae refers to ____, which can cause thrush, vulvovaginitis, and numerous other mucocutaneous infections. Mold with hyphae that branch at 45-degree angles refers to ____, which more commonly infects individuals with underlying pulmonary disease or those working in construction (due to inhalation exposure).
Small intracellular yeast refers to ____, a fungus found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys.

Answer 15

Blastomyces/ Mississippi/ Candida albicans/ Aspergillus fumigatus/ Histoplasma

Question 16

Lead inhibits ______, preventing ____ formation. Lead also disrupts the incorporation by ___ of iron into ____, which is the final step in heme synthesis. Inhibition of either of these steps results in ineffective heme synthesis and subsequent __ (hemoglobin-poor) anemia.

Answer 16

δ-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) dehydratase/ porphobilinogen/ ferrochelatase/ protoporphyrin IX/ microcytic

Question 17

Mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis is associated with ____ toxicity, as the acidic metabolites trigger the brain to hyperventilate and blow off the excess acid in the form of CO2.

Answer 17

aspirin

Question 18

Pain over the anatomic snuff box is pathognomonic for _____ fracture. This fracture is usually due from a fall on an _____ hand. It presents with persistent pain the anatomical snuff box. It may take up to ______ or more for the fracture to be seen on radiology imaging. The scaphoid bone has tenuous blood supply fed by retrograde flow, so it can be vulnerable to avascular necrosis after fracture

Answer 18

scaphoid/ outstretched/ 3 weeks

Question 19

A patient with a prescription for tetracycline antibiotic for acne can use Demeclocycline, a tetracycline that impairs the action of _____ at its receptor, causing ______, which manifests as urinary frequency and polydipsia. A water deprivation test would reveal inappropriately _____ urine in the context of decreased water intake as a result of nonfunctional ADH.

Answer 19

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)/ nephrogenic diabetes insipidus/ dilute

Question 20

______ are common, benign central nervous system tumors that arise from arachnoid cells outside of the brain parenchyma, and they may have a dural attachment.

Answer 20

Meningiomas

Question 21

_____ is the most common primary brain tumor in adults and is typically found within the cerebral hemisphere. It can cross the corpus callosum, forming a “_____.” Histologic examination reveals pleomorphic tumor cells and central areas of necrosis and hemorrhage. Prognosis is extremely poor.

Answer 21

Glioblastoma multiforme/ butterfly glioma

Question 22

Hemangioblastomas are more common in ____ and are often located in the _____. The cells tend to be “foamy,” and the tumors display a high degree of ____. These tumors are associated with ____ syndrome

Answer 22

children/ cerebellum/ vascularity/ von Hippel-Lindau

Question 23

Pathology specimens of ____ reveal “fried egg” cells. These cells have round nuclei amidst a halo of clear cytoplasm. It is a ____ brain tumors found in the cerebral hemispheres. They tend to have areas of calcification that can be detected radiographically.

Answer 23

oligodendrogliomas/ benign

Question 24

Schwannoma is the third most common primary brain tumor. It has a Schwann cell origin and is often localized to ____. A schwannoma is usually found at the cerebellopontine angle. Histologically, schwannomas are characterized by densely cellular ____ areas and loosely cellular ______ areas. Both areas are composed of spindle-shaped tumor cells, which are _____ positive.

Answer 24

cranial nerve VIII/ Antoni A/ Antoni B/ S-100

Question 25

The most common genetic condition responsible for SCID is a mutation of the _____, shared by the receptors for ___, ____, ___, ____, ____ and ___. Since this protein is encoded on the ___ chromosome, this variant of SCID is __-linked, which makes it more common in ____. These patients account for approximately 50% of all patients with SCID. All other causes of SCID are ____, and thus equally present in females and males. _____ is one of the more common autosomal recessive genetic defects in SCID, which causes T, B, and natural killer cells to dysfunction.

Answer 25

common γ chain of the interleukin (IL) receptors/ IL-2/ IL-4/ IL-7/ IL-9/ IL-15/ IL-21/ X/ X/ males/ autosomal recessive/ Adenosine deaminase deficiency

Question 26

Bilateral lesions of the amygdala cause ____ syndrome, which is characterized by ____, ____, and _____. Hyperorality means placing inappropriate objects into one’s mouth. This may be caused by _____.

Answer 26

Klüver-Bucy/ hyperorality/ hypersexuality/ behavioral disinhibition/ herpes encephalitis

Question 27

Gaucher disease is an ____ condition characterized by the deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme ____, leading to the accumulation of _____ in the reticuloendothelial system and causing organomegaly and infiltration of bone marrow. These patients can present at __ age with ____, ___ pain, ____, ____, and fatigue. More than 50% have bony changes seen on radiograph, most commonly manifesting as abnormal cortex of the distal femur described as having an “_____” appearance.

Answer 27

autosomal recessive/ β-glucocerebrosidase/ glucocerebroside/ any/ organomegaly/ bone/ anemia/ thrombocytopenia/ Erlenmeyer flask

Question 28

Tay-Sachs disease, an ____ condition common in Ashkenazi Jews, is characterized by the deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme ____, leading to the accumulation of ____ within cells. These patients present around 4 years of age with decreased ____, increased ____, ____, _____, ____, and _____. Neurologic degeneration and death occur within several years of diagnosis.

Answer 28

autosomal recessive/ hexosaminidase A/ gangliosides/ eye contact/ startle/ macrocephaly/ seizures/ ataxia/ cherry-red spots on the macula

Question 29

____ disease, also called hepatolenticular degeneration, is caused by an ____ mutation in the hepatocyte ___-transporting ATPase (___ gene; chromosome 13) gene. This gene prevents excretion of copper from the body. Thus, there is a decrease in copper incorporation into apoceruloplasmin, and a decrease of copper excretion into the bile, causing ____ in serum ceruloplasmin. The Parkinsonian-like movement are a direct result of copper accumulation in the ____. Lab findings include ____ and possible indications of renal disease. Treatment includes chelation with either ___, ____, or oral __.

Answer 29

Wilson/ autosomal recessive/ copper/ ATP7B/ decrease/ basal ganglia/ hemolytic anemia/ penicillamine/ trientine/ zinc

Question 30

The maintenance dose is calculated as: ______. Drugs administered intravenously have a bioavailability of __.

Answer 30

Target plasma concentration (Cp) × Drug clearance [CL] × Dosage interval [τ])/ Bioavailability [F]; 1

Question 31

India ink is a negative stain that can help to identify some ___ organisms with a gelatinous capsule, which do not pick up other more common stains. India ink is used to identify ___ species

Answer 31

fungal/ cryptococcal

Question 32

Drugs that can induce folate deficiency are ____, ____, and ____

Answer 32

phenytoin/ sulfonamides/ methotrexate

Question 33

The Toll-like receptor 4 recognises ……

Answer 33

LPS

Question 34

The Toll-like receptor 2 recognises ……

Answer 34

Peptidoglycan

Question 35

The autosomal dominant diseases are: ______ (type 2A), ______, _______, ______ type 1 and ______

Answer 35

Familial hypercholesterolemia/ Huntington disease/ Neurofibromatosis/ Marfan syndrome/ acute intermittent porphyria

Question 36

The autosomal recessive diseases are: ______, ______, _______, ______ and ______

Answer 36

sickle cell anaemia/ cystic fibrosis/ phenylketonuria (PKU)/ Tay Sachs disease

Question 37

The autosomal dominant diseases are: ______ (type 2A), ______, _______, ______ type 1 and ______

Answer 37

Familial hypercholesterolemia/ Huntington disease/ Neurofibromatosis/ Marfan syndrome/ acute intermittent porphyria

Question 38

The autosomal recessive diseases are: ______, ______, _______, ______ and ______

Answer 38

sickle cell anaemia/ cystic fibrosis/ phenylketonuria (PKU)/ Tay Sachs disease

Question 39

NF-1 gene is a …… gene, and when mutated give rise to …….

Answer 39

tumor supressor/ Neurofibromatosis type 1

Question 40

The X-linked dominant diseases are: ______ and ______

Answer 40

Fragile X syndorme/ Hypophosophatemic rickets (vitamin D resistant ricket)

Question 41

NF-1 gene is a …… gene, and when mutated give rise to …….

Answer 41

tumor supressor/ Neurofibromatosis type 1

Question 42

Rb gene is a …… gene, and when mutated give rise to …….

Answer 42

tumor supressor/ retinoblastoma

Question 43

Diseases that can result from mRNA splicing defect are: ….., ……., ……., …… and …….

Answer 43

B-talassemia/ LES/ Tay Sachs/ Gaucher/ Marfan

Question 44

INF alpha is used in the treatment of __, ___, ____, ____ and _____

Answer 44

Hepatitis B/ Hepatitis C/ CML/ hairy B cell leukemia/ kaposi sarcoma

Question 45

IFN Beta is used to treat ____

Answer 45

Multiple Sclerosis

Question 46

Blood tests done to detect Down syndrome in uterus are: ____, _____ and _____

Answer 46

AFP/ estriol/ ach

Question 47

Microdeletions of chunks of chromosomes cause the following pathologies: _____ (chromosome __), _____ (chromosome __), _____ (chromosome __), and _____ (chromosome __),

Answer 47

Cri-Du-Chat/ 5/ alpha-thalassemia/ 16/ Di George/ 22/ William Syndrome/ 7

Question 48

Blood tests done to detect Down syndrome in uterus are: ____, _____ and _____

Answer 48

AFP/ estriol/ ach

Question 49

The cytokine ___ stimulate the isotope switch to IgG, while the cytokines __ and __ stimulate the isotope switch to IgE, and the cytokines __ and __ stimulate the isotope switch to IgA

Answer 49

IFN gamma/ IL 4/ IL 13/ IL 5/ TGF Beta

Question 50

IgM has ___ affinity and ____ avidity compared to IgG

Answer 50

lower/ higher (related to valency)

Question 51

Fibrinoid necrosis is typically seen in ____ and ____

Answer 51

acute immune diseases/ malignant hypertension

Question 52

Dry gangrene has ____ necrosis, wet gangrene has ____ necrosis

Answer 52

coagulative/ liquefactive

Question 53

Systolic interval is a marker of _____, while diastolic interval is a marker of _____. Decrease systolic interval _____ (increase or decrease) in ______. Ejection fraction is a marker of _____.

Answer 53

contractility/ heart rate/ increase/ contractility/ contractility