Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pop Health > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

population health

A

the outcomes of groups of people; socio-ecological framework; geographical; why are some ppl healthy and others not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

population management

A

claims and beneficiary management; clinical integration, analytics, care coordination; reporting and measuring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

population medicine

A

concerned with how care is designed, delivered and paid for to try and reach the triple aim aka high quality, cost effective, accessible health care for a defined patient population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

medical model

A

focuses on individual, explores patho, attempts to find a cure, views risk factors of diseases, considers biology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

public health model

A

focuses on populations, disease prevention and health promotion, views risk factors in terms of an individual social and ecological environment in addition to genetic make up, considers how political, economical, social, ecological and regulatory systems interact, proactive, well or preventative care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

population health model

A

policies and programs; health factors (physical environment, social and economical factors, clinical care, health behaviors), health outcomes (length of life and quality of life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

synergistic approaches that integrate clinical and population models

A

accountable care organizations, patient centered medical homes, health ppl 2020, leading health indicators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is healthy ppl 2020

A

national agenda that communicates a vision for improving health and achieving health equity; grounded in science and data used for developing health budgets and allocating resources to achieving national health priorities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

goals of heathy ppl 2020

A

attain higher-quality, longer lives free of preventable diseases, disability, injury, premature death; achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve the health of all groups, create social and physical environments that promote good health for all, promote quality of life, healthy development, and healthy behaviors across all life stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

leading health indicators

A

a subset of healthy ppl measures, critical health issues that will dramatically reduce the leading cause of preventable deaths and illnesses, intended to motivate action and improve health of the entire population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

practice guidelines

A

statements that include recommendations intended to optimize patient care that are informed by a systematic review o evidence and an assessment of the benefits with alternative care options; directions of principles presenting current or future rules of policy for assisting health care practitioners in patient care decisions regarding diagnosis therapy or related clinical circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why are practice guidelines needed

A

to improve quality of healthcare (encouraging appropriate use of therapies), provide direction for disease state treatment based upon available evidence; reduce professional liability, identify alternative treatments, provide consistent treatment across environments, decrease costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how are practice guidelines developed

A

a topic is identified for publication (high prevalence, high frequency / severity of associated morbidity or mortality, high quality evidence for the efficacy of treatments that reduce morbidity and mortality, feasibility of implementation of the treatment based on expertise and other resources required, potential cost effectiveness, evidence that current practice is not optimal, availability of personnel, expertise, and resources to develop and implement the practice guideline); solicitation of individual group or organization to draft a guideline, define the clinical question, determine criteria, systematic literature analysis conducted, synthesis of evidence, consensus, grade recommendations, draft and review panels evaluate draft, approval of practice guidelines, revise, create tools for implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

level 1 practice guideline

A

systematic review or meta analysis of all randomized controlled trials or evidence based clinical practice guideline based on systematic review of randomized clinical trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

level 2 practice guideline

A

evidence from at least one well designed randomized clinical trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

level 3 practice guideline

A

evidence from a well designed controlled trial without randomization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

level 4 practice guideline

A

evidence from a well designed case control and cohort studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

level 5 practice guideline

A

evidence fro a systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

grade of practice guidelines

A

grades of recommendations, assessment, development and evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

gold guideline

A

A, B, C, D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

agree practice guideline

A

the appraisal of guidelines for research and evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how do you locate practice guidelines

A

pubmed, national guideline clearinghouse, agency for healthcare research and quality, cochrane database of systematic reviews, american college of chest physicians, american heart association, american diabetes association, infectious disease society of america

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

single payer health insurance

A

one institution purchases all of the care, but the institution (government) does not pay the providers, own the hospitals, or the technology (ex. France and the US)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

socialized medicine

A

the institution (government) owns the means of providing health care. a government pays the providers, owns the hospitals, or the technology. (UK national health service and US veterans health administration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the two different heath care payment models

A

single payer health insurance and socialized medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why does the US healthcare system need to change

A

high mortality rate despite huge amount of GDP on healthcare; increasing health costs, medications (adherence, suboptimal prescribing, drug administration and diagnosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why are we moving from volume to value based healthcare system

A

value based programs reward health care providers with incentive payments for the quality of care in medicare; part of the quality strategy to reform how healthcare is delivered and paid for through the triple aim- better care for individuals, better health for populations, lower costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the 7 CMS value based programs

A

end stage renal disease quality incentive program; hospital value based purchasing program, hospital readmission reduction program, physician value based modifier, hospital acquired conditions reduction program, skilled nursing facility value based program, home health value based program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how can pharmacists engage in value based programs

A

new value based payment models reward providers for the outcomes of their care instead of for the volume of patients they see

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe PQA’s role in defining pharmacy engagement in value based healthcare

A

“optimizing health by advancing the quality of medication use”; adherence, appropriate medication use, medication safety, medication therapy management, quality improvement indicators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

know the 3 CMS guidelines for comprehensive medication review

A

patient has multiple chronic diseases with choices set by sponsor; patient is taking multiple part D drugs with choices set by the sponsor; patient is likely to incur annual drug costs above defined threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe electronic quality management system (eQMS)

A

a way to track product, patients, and outcomes in a single non-paper environment; there are many vendors and room to develop your own system based on systems by common databases like Access and Sharepoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

statistics

A

the science concerned with developing and studying methods for collecting, organizing, summarizing, and interpreting empirical data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

biostatistics

A

statistics of biology and health science

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

population

A

all observations or all theoretically conceivable observations concerning a phenomenon of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

sample

A

a subset of the population or universe of interest and conveys information that is of administrative usefulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

descriptive statistics

A

summarize the information in a collection of data; frequency, graphs, central tendency, dispersion, distribution, tells you numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

inferential statistics

A

provide predictions about a population, based on data from a sample of that population; parametric and non-parametric tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

parameter

A

value that describes a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

variable

A

attribute, characteristics, or measures property that can vary fro observation to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

qualitative

A

data in which the classification of objects is based on attributes and properties (gender, ethnicity, race)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

quantitative

A

type of data which can be measured and expressed numerically (age, height, weight, BMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

nominal

A

data that doesn’t represent an amount or quality - names, no numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ordinal

A

represents and order or series - high school vs college, disease severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

interval

A

measured on an interval scale having equal units but an arbitrary zero point - temperature in F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ratio

A

variables such as weight for which we can compare meaningfully one weight vs another - height, weight, Kelvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

absolute frequency

A

number of times a value appears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

relative frequency

A

the result of dividing the absolute frequency of a certain value by the total number of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

cumulative frequency

A

calculated by adding each frequency from a frequency distribution table of the sum of its predecssors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

pie charts

A

distributions of nominal data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

bar graphs

A

distributions of ordinal or nominal data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

histograms

A

frequency distributions of discrete or continuous data; no natural separation between rectangles of adjacent classes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

scatter plot

A

typically used to display the relationship between two different continuous measurements

54
Q

box and whisker plot

A

summarizes data using the median, upper and lower quartiles, and extreme values

55
Q

line graphs

A

display info that changes overtime; points connecting the data to show a continuous change

56
Q

purpose of central tendency and measures of dispersion

A

determines a single value that accurately describes the center of the distribution and represents the entire distribution of scores; goal is to determine the single value that is best representative for the entire set of data

57
Q

mean

A

average of all values; denoted by X bar

58
Q

weighted mean

A

grades

59
Q

median

A

middle

60
Q

mode

A

frequency

61
Q

if the data is symmetrical and normally distributed

A

the mean and median are about the same; pick the one that fits the need

62
Q

skewed data to the left is negative

A

skewedness pulls the mean in the direction of the tail
mean < median
median should be used to describe the center

63
Q

skewed data to the right is positive

A

skewedness pulls mean in direction of the tail
mean > median
median should be used to describe the center

64
Q

outliers pull the mean in their direction

A

large outlier: mean > median

small outlier: mean < median

65
Q

variation

A

measures of variation give information on the spread or variability or dispersion of the data values

66
Q

range

A

simplest measure of dispersion; difference between the largest and smallest values

67
Q

quartiles

A

determining the value in the appropriate position in the ranked data

68
Q

first quartitle position =

A

(n + 1)/4

69
Q

second quartile position =

A

(n + 2)/2

70
Q

third quartile position =

A

3(n + 1)/4

71
Q

interquartile range

A

Q3 - Q1
measures the spread of the middle 50% of the data
not influenced by outliers and extremes

72
Q

resistant measures

A

measures that are not influenced by outliers and extremes (Q1, Q3, IQR)

73
Q

sample variance

A

average (approximately) of squared deviations of values from the mean

74
Q

standard deviation for a sample

A

most commonly used measure of variation; shows variation about the mean; square root; same units as original data

75
Q

standard deviation for a population

A

most commonly used measure of variation; shows variation about the mean; the square root of the population variance

76
Q

coefficient of variation

A

measure of relative variation; always a percentage; shows variation relative to mean; used to compare variability of 2 or more groups

77
Q

statistical inference

A

drawing conclusions about a population parameter using information from a sample; 2 ways to make an inference: estimation of parameters (point estimation and interval estimation) and hypothesis testing

78
Q

confidence interval

A

reports a range of numbers in which we hope the true population parameter will lie; the probability that this procedure produces an interval that contains the actual true parameter value is known as the confidence level

79
Q

point estimate

A

the sample statistic estimating the population; parameter of interest

80
Q

critical value

A

the table value based on the sampling distribution of the point estimate and the desired confidence level; this is controlled by the z or t score

81
Q

standard error

A

standard deviation of the point estimate

82
Q

confidence interval for mu (sigma known)

A

assumptions: population is normally distributed

confidence interval estimate

83
Q

construct a confidence interval

A

point estimate of the population; level of confidence; standard deviation of the sample mean

84
Q

confidence interval for mu (sigma unknown)

A

if the population standard deviation is unknown, we can substitute the sample standard deviation S
this introduces extra uncertainty since S is variable from sample to sample
use the t distribution instead of the normal distribution

85
Q

describe the components of hypothesis testing

A

can be used to determine whether a statement about the value of a population parameter should or should not be rejected

86
Q

two types of hypothesis testing

A

null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis
together both cover all possible values of mu
one of the statements must be true

87
Q

null hypothesis

A

the claim you are trying to test; hypothesize that the population parameter mu is equal to some value mu sub zero

88
Q

alternative hypothesis

A

the claim we are gathering evidence; this is a statment that contradicts the null hypothesis

89
Q

process

A

develop the null and alternative hypothesis
specify the level of significance (alpha)
compute the value of the test statistic
compare p values with alpha values
reject or fail to reject null hypothesis

90
Q

type 1 error

A

occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is in fact true (denoted by alpha)

91
Q

type 2 error

A

occurs when the null hypothesis is not rejected when it is in fact false (denoted by beta)

92
Q

p-value

A

the probability computed using the test statistic that measures the support or lack of support provided by the sample for the null hypothesis

93
Q

p > .1

A

non significant evidence against H0

94
Q

.05 < p < or equal to .1

A

marginally significant evidence

95
Q

.01 < p < or equal to .05

A

significant evidence against H0

96
Q

P < or equal to .01

A

highly significant evidence against H0

97
Q

if p-value is less than alpha we can say

A

there is enough evidence against the null hypothesis to reject it

98
Q

if p-value is more than alpha we can say

A

there is not enough evidence against the null hypothesis to reject it

99
Q

relative risk

A

ratio of risk of an event occurring in the exposed group vs the unexposed group; the number of times higher or lower the risk is among exposed as compared with risk among unexposed population

100
Q

RR =

A

risk(exposed) / risk(unexposed)

101
Q

RR<1

A

suggest exposure being considered is associated with a reduction in risk in the exposed group to the unexposed group (protective effect)

102
Q

RR=1

A

suggest no or little difference in the risk between exposed and unexposed groups (no effect)

103
Q

RR>1

A

suggests an increased risk of the outcome in the exposed group compared to the unexposed group (harmful effect)

104
Q

odds ratio

A

ratio of odds of the disease in the group exposed to the factor, to the odds of the disease in the unexposed group; when the risk of disease in the unexposed is low, the OR approximates to the risk ratio

105
Q

OR

A

odds (exposed) / odds (unexposed)

106
Q

OR=1

A

no association

107
Q

OR > 1

A

odds of disease in exposed are greater than in unexposed, possibly casual

108
Q

OR < 1

A

odds of disease in exposed are lower than in unexposed, possibly protective

109
Q

hazard ratio

A

measure of the effect of an exposure on an outcome of interest in two population samples over time; commonly reported in time-to-event or survival analysis; outcome could be positive (cure) or negative (death), ratio of risk in group 1 to risk in group 2

110
Q

HR =

A

Hazard (exposed) / Hazard (unexposed)

111
Q

HR = .5

A

half as many patients in the exposed group are experiencing an event proportionally to the unexposed group

112
Q

HR = 1

A

event rates are the same in both groups

113
Q

HR = 2

A

twice as many ppl in the exposed group are experiencing an event proportionally to the unexposed group

114
Q

epidemiology

A

the science of public health and examines the distribution and frequency of disease in populations, as opposed to studying disease at the individual level

115
Q

descriptive epidemiology

A

determining the distribution of disease; identifying what populations or subpopulations do or don’t develop disease; what geographic areas are most or least common to have outcome of interest; frequency of disease occurrence and how it varies over time, develop hypothesis

116
Q

analytical epidemiology

A

identify determinants of disease/health by testing hypothesis; determine whether exposure causes or prevents disease, examine associations, identifying or measuring effects of risk factors

117
Q

descriptive examines disease occurrence

A

counts, prevalence, cumulative incidence, odds, risk, incidence rate

118
Q

analytical examines exposure of diease

A

ratios, differences, attributable risk

119
Q

counts

A

tells us how many events/cases; provides absolute number or the burden of disease
limitations: burden of disease is relative to population size; need to know those at risk and the pop size

120
Q

prevalence

A

number of existing cases of disease / total population; number of existing cases in the population; focuses on the disease state and measures the proportion of the population who has the disease of interest; provides a single snapshot of the population at one point in time; period prevalence provides a series of snapshots of population within a specified period of time

121
Q

measures of association / risk

A

risk difference, risk ratio, risk rate ratio, odds ratio

122
Q

indicidence proportion

A

number of new cases of disease / total number at risk for developing disease measures the proportion of the population at risk that develops the disease of interest over a specified period of time; usually reported as 1 year time period; measure of risk in group of people, used in fixed populations, also referred to as cumulative incidence or risk

123
Q

incidence rate

A

number of new cases during a specific period of time / total person-time of observation in population at risk during that period; used when different individuals are followed for different lengths of time; numerator is the same as that of cumulative incidence; person time

124
Q

clinical trial

A

to evaluate novel treatments for a disease or condition; carried out in hospital clinics among ppl who have already developed the disease; disadvantages: very expensive; not appropriate to answer certain types of questions; it may be unethical to assign certain persons to certain treatment or comparison groups

125
Q

case reports

A

detailed presentation of a single case or hand full of cases; generally report a new or unique finding

126
Q

case series

A

experience of a group of patients with a similar diagnosis, assess prevalent disease, cases may be identified from a single source or multiple sources, generally report a new/unique condition; may be only realistic design for rare disorders

127
Q

cross sectional study

A

a sample of individual is selected from a defined population at .a particular point in time; simultaneously collect information on both the exposures and outcomes of interest; used to determine the distribution and determinants of know or potential risk factors; good for descriptive purposes, not appropriate for inference

128
Q

cohort study

A

to investigate the association between an exposure and an outcome / disease; to learn abut the natural history of a disease to calculate measures of association; retrospective and prospective

129
Q

case control study

A

an observational study; identify cases and identify controls, compare the groups to determine any differences in past exposures, comparing the frequency of exposure among cases vs controls, cannot estimate disease rates

130
Q

pharmacoepidemiology

A

study of the use and effects of drugs in populations; combine pharmacology with epidemiology, postmarketing surveillance

131
Q

strengths and weaknesses of US drug approval process

A

based on clinical trails, may exclude important groups of patients, small sample sizes, short duration, postmarketing surveillance, adverse event reporting, spontaneous event reporting limitations, outcomes of postmarket ADE reporting

132
Q

how do pharmacists or other healthcare professionals contribute to pharmacoepidemiology

A

drug experts, help identify issues or problems, perform ADE reporting, interpret PE studies and make recommendations to various committees, contract drug use evaluations, develop guidelines, medication adherence proponents, conduct pharmacoepidemiological research

Pop Health (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions