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RUSVM Pathology I > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 pathological processes?

A
  1. Degeneration/ Necrosis
  2. Inflammation and repair
  3. Circulatory disorders
  4. disorders of Growth
  5. Deposits and Pigmentation
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2
Q

Define etiology

A

Cause

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3
Q

Define Pathogenesis

A

Sequence of events from initial stimulus to ultimate expression of disease

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4
Q

Define Molecular and morphologic changes

A

biochemical and structural alterations induced in cells and organs of the body

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5
Q

Define Clinical manifestations

A

clinical signs resulting from functional abnormalities of affected tissues

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6
Q

What is general pathology

A

the main pathological processes incited by various injurious stimuli. applies to cells/tissues/organs

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7
Q

what is systemic pathology

A

System-specific disease processes

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8
Q

what is the difference between morphologic diagnosis and etiologic diagnosis

A

Morphologic- includes pathological process, location, distribution, duration and severity.
Etiologic - includes pathological process, location and cause

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9
Q

what are areas to avoid when doing a necropsy?

A
  1. areas accessible to animals
  2. areas which may contain food
  3. high traffic areas
  4. areas difficult to disinfect
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10
Q

what is the most common route of exposure to pathogens during a PM?

A

oral

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11
Q

what is BSL?

A

biosafety levels

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12
Q

What are the steps for doing a PM for any species?

A
  1. external examination
  2. open the body cavities
  3. collect microbiologic samples
  4. remove and dissect organs
  5. collect histologic samples
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13
Q

Which organ do you sample last?

A

intestines

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14
Q

How do you confirm sepsis with culture?

A

culture multiple organs

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15
Q

What would you use a red top or plain sterile tube for?

A

Culture

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16
Q

What would you use an EDTA tube for?

A

fluid analysis and cytology

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17
Q

What is the formalin:tissue ratio?

A

10:1

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18
Q

How far does formalin penetrate tissue?

A

no more than 1/2 cm

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19
Q

Define autolysis

A

self-digestion or degradation of cells and tissues by the hydrolytic enzymes normally present in tissues

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20
Q

Define Putrefaction

A

process by which post mortem bacteria break down tissues

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21
Q

which tissues autolyze the quickest?

A

Gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, gall blader

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22
Q

what does the rate of decomposition depend on?

A
  1. cause of death
  2. environmental and body temp
  3. microbial flora
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23
Q

The presence of _____ is the most likely to be microscopically obscured by decomposition:

a) cell injury (necrosis)
b) foreign material
c) infectious agents
d) inflammation
e) neoplasia

A

A. cell injury (necrosis)

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24
Q

What is rigor mortis

A

Contraction of the muscles after death

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25
Q

What is livor mortis

A

discoloration of organs from blood being pulled by gravity after death. effects the side of the animal facing the ground

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26
Q

What are the differences between antemortem blood clot and post mortem blood clot?

A 
antemortem clot:
attached to vessel of walls
dry and dull
lamellated
friable
Postmortem clot:
unattached
shiny and wet
elastic
perfect cast of vessel lumen
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27
Q

Hemoglobin imbibition is caused by what?

A

freezing

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28
Q

what is hemoglobin imbibition?

A

red staining of tissue, especially the intima of heart, arteries and veins

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29
Q

what is bile imbibition?

A

bile in the gallbladder starts to penetrate the wall and stains the adjacent tissues

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30
Q

what is bloat?

A

postmortem bacterial gas formation in the lumen of the GI tract

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31
Q

Who will bloat faster: Herbivores or carnivores?

A

herbivores

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32
Q

What is pseudomelanosis?

A

greenish-black discoloration of tissues post mortem.

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33
Q

What is the difference beetween a description and morphological Dx?

A 
Description: 
describes what you see
precise word picture
MDx:
interprets the description and makes subjective conclusions
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34
Q

What does No SLo DiSCo CoMas stand for?

A

Number, size, location, distribution, shape, color, consistency, margins/surface

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35
Q

Define focal

A

One isolated lesion

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36
Q

Define Multifocal

A

numerous similar lesions that can be of variable size

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37
Q

Define diffuse

A

throughout a large portion of the effected tissue

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38
Q

Define multifocal- coalescing

A

Multiple lesions that are touching

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39
Q

what can well demarcated tissue tell you?

A
  1. The lesions represents a different tissue (tumors)
  2. Infarcts
  3. chronic lesion with fibrous capsule
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40
Q

What can poorly demarcated tissue tell you?

A
  1. the lesion and adjacent tissue may be similar

2. the process is gradually infiltrating into the normal tissue; is poorly contained

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41
Q

Define Atrophy

A

decrease in size and/or number of the cells and their metabolic activity after normal growth has been reached

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42
Q

Define Hypoplasia

A

incomplete development or underdevelopment of an organ or tissue

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43
Q

Define Hypertrophy

A

increased size of cells and their functions

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44
Q

Which cells exhibit hypertrophy?

A

Stable or permanent cells: cardiomyocytes, neurons

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45
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

increase in the number of cells of an organ

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46
Q

Which cells exhibit hyperplasia?

A

cells capable of replication: ie epidermis, respiratory mucosa

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47
Q

Define metaplasia

A

change in phenotype of a differentiated cell

48
Q

Metaplasia is most often in which type of cells?

A

epithelial

49
Q

Define dysplasia

A

alteration in shape, size and organization

50
Q

What are the most common causes of acute cell swelling?

A

hypoxia and toxic agents

51
Q

Histological appearance of cellular swelling

A
  1. H2O uptae dilutes the cytoplasm making the cells enlarged with pale cytoplasm.
  2. May show increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia
    nucleus in normal position, with no morphological changes
52
Q

What are the ultrastructural changes of cellular swelling?

A
  1. plasma membrane alterations
  2. mitochondrial changes
  3. dilation of the ER
  4. nuclear alterations
53
Q

Define fatty change

A

sub-lethal cell damage characterized by intracytoplasmic fatty vaculation

54
Q

What are the main causes of fatty change?

A

hypoxia, toxicity, metabolic disorders

55
Q

Histological appearance of fatty change

A

Well delineated, lipid-filled vacuoles in the cytoplasm, , may displace the cell nucleus to the periphery

56
Q

what causes cell death after irreversible cell injury?

A

hypoxia, ischemia, and direct cell membrane injury

57
Q

Gross appearance of necrosis

A

pale, soft, friable and sharply demarcated from viable tissue by a zone of inflammation

58
Q

histological appearance of necrotic cells

A
  1. increase binding of eosin
  2. loosing basophilia
  3. glassy homogeneous
  4. vacuolation and moth eaten appearance
  5. calcification may be seen
59
Q

Coagulative necrosis is common caused by ____ in all solid organs except _____

A

ischemia; brain

60
Q

Which form of necrosis has dead cells that are “digested”

A

liquefactive necrosis

61
Q

Liquefactive necrosis occurs in which kind of tissues

A
  1. Tissue with high neutrophil recruitment & enzymatic release with digestion of tissue
  2. tissues with high lipid content
62
Q

What prefix do you use for describing white matter?

A

Leuko

63
Q

What prefix do you use for describing gray matter?

A

polio

64
Q

Leukoencephalomalacia affects which species?

A

horse, chicken and pig

65
Q

Polioencephalomalacia can be caused by?

A 
1 Thiamine deficiency diet
2 increased ruminal thiaminase activity
3 administration of thiamine analogs
4 high levels of sulfur in diet or water
5 lead toxicity
6 thiaminase containing plants
66
Q

Pus is associated with which necrosis?

A

liquefactive

67
Q

What is a localized collection of pus in a cavity formed by disintegration of tissues surrounded by fibrous connective tissue

A

Abscess

68
Q

What are the two types of abscesses?

A

Septic and sterile

69
Q

histological appearance of liquefactive necrosis

A 
1 loss of cellular detail
2 cells are granular
3 eosinophilic and basophilic debris
4 neutrophil nuclei may dominate nuclear debris
5 no tissue architecture is preserved
70
Q

Which form of necrosis begins mostly as coagulative necrosis?

A

Gangrenous necrosis

71
Q

what is the difference between “dry” and “wet” gangrene?

A

Dry gangrene- no bacterial superinfection; tissue appears dry
Wet gangrene- Bacterial superinfection has occurred; tissue looks wet and liquefactive

72
Q

What necrosis looks cheese like?

A

caseous necrosis

73
Q

Caseous necrotic debris represents _______

A

dead WBCs

74
Q

What are the 3 types of fat necrosis?

A

1 enzymatic necrosis
2 traumatic necrosis of fat
3 necrosis of abdominal fat

75
Q

Enzymatic necrosis is also known as?

A

pancreatic necrosis of fat

76
Q

Which form of necrosis is usually seen in immune reactions involving blood vessels?

A

fibrinoid necrosis

77
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis occurs when _____ are deposited in the walls of arteries

A

Ag-Ab complexes

78
Q

Define apoptosis

A

a pathway of cell death

induced by a tightly regulated suicide program

79
Q

True/ False

Apoptosis causes inflammation

A

False:

there is no inflammation associated with apoptosis

80
Q

What are the functions of the plasma membrane?

A

selective barrier

structural base for enzymes and receptors

81
Q

Which phospholipid sends signals to phagocytes for ingestion?

A

Phosphatidylserine

82
Q

What are the functions of proteins and glycoproteins?

A
  1. ion and metabolite transport
    2 fluid phase and receptor-mediated uptake of macromolecules
    3 cell-ligand, cell-matrix, and cell-cell interactions
83
Q

What are the 4 general arrangements of proteins and glycoproteins?

A

1 integral/ transmembrane
2 protein sysntehsized in cytoplasm and linked inot membrane via lipids or cholesterol
3 inserted through GPI-linked proteins
4 non-covalent associations

84
Q

Define passive transport

A

molecules move down a concentration or electrical gradient

85
Q

Define active transport

A

molecules move against a gradient, requires ATP

86
Q

Which types of molecules can passive diffuse across the plasma membrane?

A

1 Small non-polar molecules
2 hydrophobic molecules
3 polar molecules <75 Daltons

87
Q

What are ways to transport larger molecules across the plasma membrane?

A

Channels

Carriers

88
Q

What are the two major forms of endocytosis?

A

potocytosis

pinocytosis

89
Q

What are the 3 major classes of the cytoskeleton?

A

1 actin microfilaments
2 intermediate filaments
3 microtubules

90
Q

Which is the thinnest filament of the cytoskeleton?

A

actin microfilament

91
Q

What are the functions of actin microfilaments?

A

In muscle cells: muscle contraction via association with myosin
In non-muscle cells- control cell shape and movement

92
Q

What are the functions of microtubules?

A

connecting cables for molecular motor proteins
participate in sister chromatid separation during mitosis
adapted to form motile cilia of flagella

93
Q

What are the functions of tight junctions?

A

create a continuous barrier that is highly resistant to paracellular ion movement
helps maintain cell polarity by allowing the segragation of apical and basolateral domains of cells

94
Q

What are the functions of desmosomes?

A

mechanically attach cells and their intracellular cytoskeletons to other cells of the extracellular matrix

95
Q

What are the functions of gap junctions?

A

mediate the passage of chemical or electrical signals from one cell to another
pores that permit passage of small molecules
critical in cell-cell communication

96
Q

what is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

site of synthesis of all transmembrane protein and lipids

initial site for the synthesis of all exported molecules

97
Q

Which endoplasmic reticulum has no ribosomes?

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

98
Q

what is the function of ribosomes?

A

translate mRNA into proteins

99
Q

What part of the cell is responsible for sequestering intracellular calcium?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

100
Q

Proteins and lipids destined for other organelles or extracellular export are shuttled to the ________

A

Golgi apparatus

101
Q

Which enzyme degrade cytosolic proteins, denatured or misfolded proteins, and other macromolecules?

A

Proteasomes

102
Q

What are the functions of mitochondria?

A

Site of aerobic metabolism

regulator of apoptosis

103
Q

Define euchromatin

A

uncoiled, transcriptionally active

104
Q

Define Heterochromatin

A

coiled, transcriptionally inactive

105
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

synthesis of rRNA

106
Q

What is anoxia?

A

no O2 delivery to a tissue

107
Q

What are the 6 major mechanisms of cell injury?

A 
1 decrease ATP
2 mitochondrial damage
3 entry of Ca2+
4 increase ROS
5 membrane damage
6 protein misfolding, DNA damage
108
Q

What are the 2 primary metabolic pathways in which ATP is produced?

A

aerobic: TCA cycle and ETC
anaerobic: Glycolysis

109
Q

What are the 3 major consequences of mitochondrial damage?

A

1 Formation of the mitochondrial permeability transition pore
2 increased production of reactive oxygen species
3 activation of apoptotic pathways

110
Q

what enzyme are activated during accumulation of calcium?

A
  1. Phospholipases
  2. protease
  3. endonuclease
  4. ATPase
111
Q

what are the major forms of damage from accumulation of calcium?

A
  1. membrane damge
  2. nuclear damage
  3. ATP depletion
112
Q

In what ways are reactive oxygen species formed?

A
  1. normal metabolic processes
  2. absorption of radiant energy
  3. inflammation
  4. transition metals
  5. nitric oxide
113
Q

How are free radicals removed?

A
  1. spontaneous decay
  2. antioxidants: Vit E, Vit A, gluthathione
  3. storage and transport proteins
  4. enzymes
114
Q

What are the pathological effects of free radicals?

A
  1. lipid peroxidation in membranes causes extensive membrane damage
  2. oxidative modification of proteins causes damage to active sites, change conformation, and enhance degradation
  3. lesions in DNA causes cell aging, malignant transformation
115
Q

What are the consequences of membrane damage?

A
  1. mitochondrial membrane damage- open the MPTP, decreases ATP
  2. plasma membrane damage- loss of osmotic balance
  3. injury to lysosomal membrane- leakage of enzymes into the cytoplasm

RUSVM Pathology I (1 decks)

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