Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral Histology > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Diff b/t formation, growth, development

A

F: organization and spatial arrangement
G: increase in weight and shape
D: maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Crown-rump measurement at 3rd embryonic week and at 8th week (start of fetal stage)

A

3mm

30mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 parts of the stomodeum at 3rd emb. Week

A

Frontal prom. (Sup.)
Cardiac plate (inf)
Buccopharyngeal membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rathke’s pouch is the precursor of what

A

Anterior lobe of pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The branchial arches appear and disappear in what week

A

4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Br. Arch 1 becomes what

A

Maxillary and mandibular facial processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ectomesenchyme:

Diff b/t that and normal mesenchyme

What does it form

A

Mesenchyme originating in the ectoderm germ layer

Arises from neural crest cells (from ectoderm)

Hard and soft tissues in head and neck: bones, muscles, tooth tissues (dentin, cementum, pulp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The place where the upper maxillary and lower mandibular processes meet at either side of the stomodeum

A

Commissura labiorum oris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With the formation of nasal pits, the frontal prominence becomes what three facial processes

A

Median nasal facial process

R/L lateral nasal facial process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nasal pits do what eventually

A

Deepen to become nasal ducts
Open into stomodeum
Eventually become nostrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Frontal prominence becomes what 3 facial prominences

Branchial arch I becomes what 4 facial processes

A

F: median/ R lateral/L lateral nasal processes
B I: R/L maxillary
R/L mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Branchial cleft I becomes

A

External auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maxillary processes become

Mandibular processes become

A

Upper part of cheeks
Lateral parts of upper lip

Lower part of cheeks
Lower lip
Chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Arch II becomes what

A

Operculum
(Sides of neck below auditory meatus)
Eventually, tissue that covers molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F facial processes FUSE in 4th week

A

FALSE - they merge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maxillary/ mandibular processes should merge by what week

A

5th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to the cardiac plate

A

Replaced by mandibular facial processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens to the buccopharyngeal membrane

A

Ruptures in 4th week
Becomes opening to foregut (nasal/oropharynx)
Membrane is the site of the pillar of fauces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tongue forms from what 4 lingual swellings

Which form which part of the tongue

A

L/R lateral lingual swellings
Tuberculum impar
Copula

Ant 2/3 = tub impar and lat swellings
Post 1/3 = copula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The stomodeum divides into oral/nasal cavities when

A

6th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do the following arise from:
Primary palate
Nasal septum
Palatine folds

A

Pp: from inner surface of median nasal facial process
Ns: from primary palate
Pf: from inner surface of maxillary facial processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F palatine folds merge

A

FALSE - they fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Palate epithelial fusion begins when

A

Sixth week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mesenchymal union occurs between what 3 parts

A 
Palatine folds (2)
Nasal septum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Odontogenesis begins when

A

6th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Two tissues from ectoderm primary germ layer involved in tooth development

A

Epithelium

Mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Formation of dentin, enamel, cementum, is called

A

Dentinogenesis
Amelogenesis
Cementogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The 4 epithelial stages of odontogenesis

A
  1. Epithelial dental lamina
  2. Epithelial bud stage
  3. Epithelial cap stage
  4. Epithelial bell stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the 4 epithelial stages is the enamel organ

A

Epithelial bell stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The two histologic stages of odontogenesis are

A

Epithelial

Tooth germ stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Three parts of the tooth germ

A

Enamel organ
Dental papilla
Dental follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The two invaginations that occur in the 6th week are the _ (facial) and _ (more lingual)

A

Vestibular lamina

Primary dental lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The vestibular lamina becomes:

The primary dental lamina becomes:

A

Vestibule

Epithelial part of a tooth germ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Epithelial buds form where

A

In deep end of dental lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Each epithelial bud is surrounded by

A

Mesenchymal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Epithelial bud cells are continuous with _

A

Cells of primary dental lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Primary Central incisors time in utero

Primary Second molars?

A

6 weeks

8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
Permanent buds times:
First molar
Central incisor
Second molar
Third molar
A

4 months
5 months
10 months
5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Primary dental lamina gives rise to _ epithelial buds _ primary and _ permanent molars

A

16

10, 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Each Secondary lamina arises from what

A

A succedaneous tooth, lingual side of primary dental lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The 4 layers of the enamel organ

A
  1. Inner epithelial layer
  2. Stratum intermedium epithelilal layer
  3. Stellate reticulum epithelial layer
  4. Outer epithelial layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

2˚ dental lamina arises from the _ NOT THE _

A

Primary dental lamina

Not the oral epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 parts of a tooth germ

A 
Enamel organ (epithelium)
Dental papilla (ectomesenchyme)
Denta follicle (ectomesenchyme)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Inner epithelial cells differentiate into _ as a part of _

A

Ameloblasts

Enamel organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is reduced enamel epithelium

A

Enamel with ameloblasts and other layers of enamel organ that come together over the surface of the enamel as a protective structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Dental papilla layer becomes what

A

Odontoblast
Fibroblast
Reserve cells

Ultimately becomes pulp tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Dental follicle layer becomes what

A

Cementoblast
Fibroblast
Osteoblast
Reserve cells

Eventually becomes periodontal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The enamel organ is attached to both mesenchymal parts of a tooth germ by _

A

A basal lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the cervical loop

A

Site where inner and outer epithelial layers meet

51
Q

The cervical loop forms a double epithelial layer called _ that serves 2 main functions

A

Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath

Determines root dentin outline
Determines number of root canals in tooth

52
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a type of _ condition, meaning:

A

Autosomal dominant

50% chance to show in offspring

53
Q

Supernumerary incisor is a _ type of condition, meaning what:

A

Autosomal recessive

Need 2 mutant alleles to change phenotype (2 carriers), 1/4 offspring affected

54
Q

Amelogenesis imperfecta is a _ type of disorder, meaning:

A

X-linked
Affected father passes to daughter 100% of time
Affected mother passes to either son/daughter

55
Q

Induction:
Competence:
Differentiation:

A

Initiating differentiation

Ability of cell to receive and respond to molecular signal

Specialization of a cell

56
Q

3 inducers in lecture

A

BMP
Vit. D
Wnt signal

57
Q

What do TF’s do

A

Control whether genes will be transcribed into mRNA

58
Q

DLX3 mutations lead to _ because they regulate what 3 things

A

TDO syndrome

  1. Hair follicle differentiation
  2. Enamel genes
  3. Bone
59
Q

Gastrulation is:

A

Conversion to trilaminar embryo (3rd week)

60
Q

The mouth arises from _ folding

A

Rostral-caudal folding

61
Q

_ cells form most of the connective tissues of the head, incl. teeth and supportive tissues

A

NCC ectomesenchymal

62
Q

_ forms 8 rhombomeres

A

Hindbrain

63
Q

NCCs from _ contribute to branchial arch 1

A

Midbrain

Rhombomeres 1,2

64
Q

NCCs from rhombomeres _ express hox TFs

A

≥3

65
Q

Hox TFs are a type of _ which are a type of _

A

Homeobox TF

TF

66
Q

HOM-C controls what

A

Formation of legs (where/how many)

67
Q

Hox genes in craniofacial region

A

NONE

68
Q

Head organizing TF genes

A

Otx2
Msx
Dlx
Barx

69
Q

What does branchial arch/groove/pouch 1 become

A

Mandible
Maxilla
Outer/middle ear

70
Q

Treacher collins syndrome

A

Underdevelopment of craniofacial region and mandible due to lack of NCC migration to facial region

71
Q

4 stages of odontogenesis

A

Dental lamina/Placode
Bud
Cap
Bell

72
Q

3 characteristics of Epithelial-mesenchymal signaling

A

Reciprocal - Back/forth EM signals
Reiterative - Same signaling pathways again and again
Sequential - orderly sequence of events

73
Q

Odontogenic potential is first in _ layer then _ layer later

A

Epithelium

Mesenchyme

74
Q

Dental papilla vs. dental follicle

A

Papilla: condensed ectomesenchyme

Follicle: surrounding ectomesenchyme

75
Q

Primary enamel knot is what, what does it do

A

Non-dividing enamel organ cells in cap stage

Directs proliferation of surrounding epithelial cells

76
Q

4 components of enamel organ at bell stage

A

Outer enamel epithelium (OEE)
Inner enamel epithelium (IEE)
Stratum intermedium (SI)
Stellate reticulum (SR)

77
Q

Secondary enamel knots are present in _ stage

They appear where/do what:

A

Late bell

Sites of cusps (except incisors)

Direct proliferation of surrounding epithelial cells

Stimulates terminal differentiation of ondontoblasts to begin dentinogenesis

78
Q

In the late bell stage, the _ appears

A

Zone of maturation

79
Q

Dental papilla become _

IEE become _

A

Odontoblasts

Ameloblasts

80
Q

Defects in tooth number result from _

A

Disruption in epithelial or mesenchymal functions in early stages of odontogenesis

81
Q

Hypodontia:
Oligodontia:
Anodontia:

A

1-5 missing teeth
6 or more missing teeth
Absence of all primary or secondary teeth

82
Q

Dentin is _ % mineral and _% organic matrix

A

50

30

83
Q

Microscopic zones in pulp

A

Pulpal core
(Odontoblastic Layer)
-Cell rich zone
-Cell-free zone

84
Q

Daily growth lines are also called _

A

Lines of von Ebner

85
Q

Dentin sensitivity is mediated by

A

Odontoblastic processes

86
Q

Dentin tubules in the crown have what shape?

A

S-shaped curvature

87
Q

There is a higher density of dentin tubules in the _ over the _ and near the _ instead of the _

A

Crown over the root

Near pulp than the surface

88
Q

Predentin is what

A

Fibrillar organic matrix before its calcification

89
Q

Primary dentin:”

A

Dentin made during tooth formation

Also called circumpulpal dentin

90
Q

Mantle dentin

A

Outer layer of 1˚ dentin

91
Q

3˚ dentin forms why:

A

Reaction to attrition, caries, or dental restoration

92
Q

What are the two types of tertiary dentin and what’s the difference b/t them

A

Reactionary: formed by preexisting odontoblasts

Reparative: formed by newly differentiated odontoblast-like cells

93
Q

Sclerotic dentin:

A

Transparent

94
Q

Globular vs. linear dentin deposition

A

G: faster and more irregular
L: slower and more uniform

95
Q

Interglobular dentin:

A

Areas of hypomineralized dentin where globular zones of mineral fail to fuse into a homogenous mass

96
Q

Peritubular vs. intertubular dentin

A

PTD surrounds the tubules and is lower in collagen and higher in DSPP and more mineralized than ITD

97
Q

ITD is harder at _ than at _

A

DEJ than at Pulp

PTD is equally hard

98
Q

DGI I occurs in people who have

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

99
Q

DGI symptoms

A

Discolored teeth
Attrition
Pulpal obliteration

100
Q

DGI-III

A

I: with osteogen. Imp.
Brown teeth, attrition, pulpal obliteration

II: only teeth affected
DSPP mutations
Blue-grey teeth or amber brown
Enamel can split

III: multiple pulp exposures in deciduous teeth
Can be like I or II

101
Q

DD I and II

A

I: mostly normal teeth but short roots
Many periapical radiolucencies

II: like DGI III
Pulp cavities show thistle tube deformity
Pulp stones

102
Q

T/F enamel is a connective tissue

A

FALSE - ectoderm derived specialized epithelial cell

103
Q

T/F enamel has an unmineralized or preenamel formation stage

A

FALSE - the stages of enamel are immature and mature

104
Q

T/F Enamel formation is finite

A

TRUE - ameloblast completes cycle when enamel thickness is at a certain point

105
Q

Enamel is the _ mineralized tissue to appear in a developing tooth

A

Second. Dentin is first

106
Q

T/F enamel contains collagen

A

FALSE

107
Q

Enamel hue depends on what 4 things

A

Location level
Surface conditions of enamel
Attraction to stain substances
Age changes

108
Q

Chemical makeup of enamel

A

96 - inorganic substance
1 - organic substance (amelogenin)
3 - water

109
Q

CEJ relationships
Most common:
Next most:
Least common:

A

Most: C overlaps E
Next: C meets E
Least: gap b/t C/E

110
Q

Each perikymata take _ to form

A

8-10

111
Q

Dimensions of enamel rod

A

5-6µm, length up to 2.5 mm

112
Q

Each rod is formed by _ ameloblasts

A

1

113
Q

Enamel Crystals of the _ are less dense than those of the _

A

Enamel sheath

Core

114
Q

Why are enamel rods segmented

A

They are secreted in a rhythmic manner (rest period)

115
Q

What are:
Enamel lamella
Enamel tuft
Enamel spindle

A

Lamella: Longitudinal ribbons of hypomineralized structure

Tuft: hypomineralized claw starting at DEJ

Spindle: from dentin, a little line into enamel

116
Q

Hunter schreager bands

A

Alternating dark/light bands starting at DEJ

Caused by different direction of enamel rods in adjacent layers

117
Q

Differentiation of _ into ameloblasts and of _ into ondontoblasts begins at _

A

Inner epithelial cells of enamel organ

Dental papilla

Coronal most site of the future DEJ

118
Q

Enamel stages

A

Secretory
Maturation
Erupted

119
Q

3 proteins and proteinase in the secretory stage of enamel formation

A

Amelogenin, ameloblastin, enamelin

Matrix metalloproteinase-20
Cleaves enamel matrix proteins

120
Q

Proteinase in maturation stage and what it does

A

Kallikrein-4

Cleaves enamel matrix proteins during late enamel development

121
Q

Define AI

A

Group designation for inherited conditions displaying enamel malformations

122
Q

3 types of AI and when the defect started

A

Hypoplastic (secretory stage defect)
Hypomaturation (maturation stage defect)
Hypocalcification

123
Q

Enamel proteins and abundance

A

Amelogenin (85-90%)
Ameloblastin (5-10%)
Enamelin (3-5%)

124
Q

Amelogenin does what

A

Organizes enamel rods during development

Oral Histology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions