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Pediatrics Test 1 > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

An appropriate motor test for a preterm infant at 34 weeks post menstrual age is the?

A

TIMP

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2
Q

What is assessed by measuring the distance between the medial femoral condyles when the child is in supine with the medial malleoli touching?

A

Genu Varus

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3
Q

What test assesses fine and gross motor skills and may be given to children through age 42 months

A

Bayley

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4
Q

What infant motor scale is a norm-referenced motor test for infants?

A

Alberta

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5
Q

What pediatric examination approach begins with the desired outcome?

A

Topdown

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6
Q

What is the difference between ant-eversion in a newborn and typical adult?

A

Larger

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7
Q

The SAFER gathers information about family routines including?

A

Diapering

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8
Q

What does SAFER stand for?

A

Scale for Assessment of Family Enjoyment within Routines

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9
Q

A torsional profile includes what measures?

A

foot progression angle; hip ROM; foot measurement (metatarsus adductus); and thigh-foot angle

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10
Q

What is used to assess leg length discrepancy?

A

Galeazis

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11
Q

What type of observation is essential for pediatric examinationn

A

naturalistic observation

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12
Q

What is the abbreviation for Routines-based interview tool

A

SAFER

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13
Q

The repeatability of a test is its’?

A

Reliability

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14
Q

The SATIRE gathers information about school routines including?

A

Circle?

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15
Q

what type of tests can be used for program planning?

A

Criterion

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16
Q

What does Craig’s test measure?

A

Anteversion

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17
Q

A test that has very few false positive would be considered as very?

A

Sensitive

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18
Q

Genu () peaks around the age of?

A

Three

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19
Q

What does thigh-foot angle measurement look at?

A

tibial torsion

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20
Q

The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale can be used until an age of?

A

72 months

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21
Q

The “sign of exit” is also known as what and is used to assess?

A

Barlow maneuver detects DDH

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22
Q

The “sign of entry” is also known as what and is used to assess?

A

Ortalani maneuver detects DDH

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23
Q

Standardized gross motor test express scores as a what? with 100 being an average

A

Quotient

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24
Q

A test that has very few false negatives is considered to be very?

A

specific

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25
Q

Most norm-referenced gross motor tests express results as a?

A

percentile

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26
Q

Subtests of the PDMS-2 include

A

stationary, object manipulation, locomotion

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27
Q

what is the angle of physiological flexion in neonates?

A

popliteal

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28
Q

Another name for criterion referenced standardized assessments is

A

evaluative

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29
Q

SATIRE stand for?

A

Scale for the Assessment of Teachers Impressions of Routines and Engagement

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30
Q

What are norm-referenced standardized assessments usually used to determine

A

Eligibility

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31
Q

What tests is appropriate for programming for a child with CP

A

GMFM

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32
Q

observation of a child in their normal daily routines is known as

A

Authentic Observation

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33
Q

The AIMS assesses children in what positions?

A

prone, supine, sitting, standing

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34
Q

How can we assess and measure participation?

A

An interview

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35
Q

When a child is under 24 months of age we must calculate an?

A

adjusted age

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36
Q

What does the foot progression angle look at?

A

In/out toeing during gait.

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37
Q

When was IDEA last reauthorized

A

2004

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38
Q

When can discussion about transition from Part C to B services begin?

A

6 months after the child’s third birthday

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39
Q

What act provided free and appropriate public education for school age children with disabilities?

A

Education for all Handicapped Children (1975)

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40
Q

Where will PT and other special education services be listed for an individual child?

A

in their IEP

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41
Q

Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act establishes what?

A

eligibility for related services even if the individual does not qualify for special education

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42
Q

Influences on intervention (family)

A

family structure, function, and resources

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43
Q

What does IFSP stand for?

A

Individualized Family Service Plan

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44
Q

Does IDEA Part C eligibility change or remain the same in each state?

A

each state has their own eligibility criteria

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45
Q

What type of team is able to maintain professional boundaries with minimal collaboration

A

Multidisciplinary

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46
Q

What type of goals should be included in an IEP

A

Annual Goals

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47
Q

IDEA Part C services must be provided in what type of environment

A

A natural environment

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48
Q

What is family centered care?

A

care made up from a set of values, attitudes, and approaches to services for children with special needs and their families

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49
Q

What characteristics should IEP goals have?

A

measurable; specific; educationally relevant

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50
Q

What ages can IDEA Part C be provided to?

A

from birth to 2 years of age

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51
Q

What states can influence development and provision of PT services for children and families?

A

Socioeconomic

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52
Q

What is the abbreviation for Free and Appropriate Public Education?

A

FAPE

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53
Q

Where is a Primary service provider (PSP) model often used

A

Transdisciplinary teaming

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54
Q

What does IEP stand for?

A

Individualized Education Program

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55
Q

Where are IDEA Part C services documented?

A

In the IFSP

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56
Q

Related services are intended to help a child benefit from his or her?

A

Special Education

57
Q

What does LRE stand for?

A

Least Restrictive Environment

58
Q

What involves cross training of disciplines and is a key concept of transdisciplinary teaming?

A

Role Release

59
Q

What is a requirement of Part B services?

A

must be educationally relevant

60
Q

what teams collaborate by merging goals, but maintain professional boundaries?

A

Interdisciplinary

61
Q

What is multi-disciplinary evaluation used for in IDEA Part C?

A

Eligibility

62
Q

How often is an IEP reviewed/rewritten

A

once a year

63
Q

What age can Part B services begin?

A

age 3

64
Q

PT is a what service according to Part B?

A

Related Service

65
Q

Part C services are centered how?

A

Family Centered

66
Q

How often is an IFSP reviewed?

A

every 6 months

67
Q

What is a common orthotic choice for children with Sacral level myelodysplasia?

A

SMO

68
Q

Children wth DMD typically display this when getting up from the floor

A

Gowers sign

69
Q

What is the classification system for children with CP based on performance of functional motor skills

A

GMFCS

70
Q

What results in severe progressive bowing of the tibia?

A

Blounts

71
Q

What is DCD often associated with?

A

ADHD

72
Q

What is another name for Trisomy 21

A

Down Syndrome

73
Q

What is injury or tightness to the SCM referred to as?

A

torticollis

74
Q

What is the focus of treatment for Leg-Calves-Perthes in children under the age of 6?

A

Pain management

75
Q

What is a Open spinal cord lesion known as

A

Myelomeningocele

76
Q

What is commonly associated with torticollis?

A

Plagiocephaly

77
Q

When does the terminal stage of DMD normally begin and what is a common side effect?

A

usually begins in early adulthood and has respiratory insufficiency

78
Q

What interventions are most effective for DCD

A

task specific

79
Q

What harness is used to treat DDH in babies

A

Pavlik harness

80
Q

Myelodysplasia is often associated with

A

sensory deficits and paralysis

81
Q

How is DDH diagnosed?

A

via Imaging

82
Q

An extra copy of a chromosome is known as an

A

Trisomy

83
Q

How is CP usually diagnosed

A

failure to meet motor milestones

84
Q

What is the cause of DCD

A

no actually cause, but due to lack of dystrophin

85
Q

Legg-Calves-Perthes is obstructed bloodflow to where

A

the femoral head

86
Q

Right Torticollis head tilt and rotation?

A

R torticollis has a right head tilt and a left rotation

87
Q

What orthopedic impairment is more common in African American males at puberty?

A

SCFE

presents with loss of IR, ABd, and flexion

88
Q

When should a PT prepare for mobility in a spina bifida child?

A

between 1-2 years

89
Q

What commonly effects motor performance in children with autism?

A

sensory deficits

90
Q

What position characterizes a clubfoot

A

Equinovarus

91
Q

The most common type of CP is

A

Spastic Diplegia

92
Q

What type of injection can be used to treat an unresponsive torticollis?

A

Botox

93
Q

Where is instability common for children with Down Syndrome

A

Atlantoaxial jt.

94
Q

what is hydrocephalus?

A

excess accumulation of fluid in the brain; is associated with myelodysplasia

95
Q

What type of impairments are genetic syndromes often associated with?

A

intellectual impairments

96
Q

What is a common allergy for a child with Spina Bifida

A

Latex allergy

97
Q

How is DCD defined?

A

motor coordination markedly below expected levels for the child’s age and intelligence

98
Q

What is cerepral palsy?

A

a permanent disorder caused for a nonprogressive disturbance in the fetal or infant brain

99
Q

A closed spinal cord lesion is known as

A

spina bifida occulta

100
Q

Bones size will increase before its?

A

Strength

101
Q

What does dynamical systems theory state?

A

that the environment is just as important as the organism

102
Q

what causes a newborn to have an unstable hip

A

a shallow acetabulum

103
Q

what form of righting occurs when the head is turned followed by the body and legs?

A

neck on body

104
Q

what are the building blocks of development according to neural maturationist theory?

A

Reflexes

105
Q

Moving on hands and knees is called?

A

creeping

106
Q

when the body it tilted in any direction the head will right to what position?

A

Vertical

107
Q

according to dynamical systems theory movements are?

A

self-organizing

108
Q

when does single leg standing normally begin?

A

by age three

109
Q

this form of reaction testing requires the surface the move under the body

A

tilting

110
Q

catching oneself is an example of what type of reaction

A

protective

111
Q

when does reflexive stepping and standing disappear

A

two months

112
Q

what position do a newborns LE go to in standing?

A

genu varus

113
Q

What theory states movements emerge as an interaction between subsystems and the environment?

A

Dynamical systems

114
Q

what drives development according to neural maturationist theory?

A

nervous system

115
Q

what is the food finding reflex known as?

A

Rooting

116
Q

When are most children able to jump off a small step

A

by age 2

117
Q

what is walking along furniture while holding on known as?

A

cruising

118
Q

are children able to walk up or down stairs first?

A

up stairs

119
Q

when are most infants able to roll from prone to supine?

A

by 6 months

120
Q

What is another name for ATNR?

A

Fencing reflex

121
Q

How long does reflexive standing persist?

A

2 months after birth

122
Q

When do infants normally achieve head control?

A

at 3 months

123
Q

How do most pre-schoolers walk?

A

with flat feet

124
Q

what organ reaches 90% of adult size by age 5?

A

the brain

125
Q

What position are backwards/sideways reactions normally tested?

A

in sitting

126
Q

what reaction testing requires the body to move over the surface?

A

postural fixation testing (perturbations)

127
Q

What happens to the size of the brain in the first year of life?

A

it doubles

128
Q

What part of the foot isn’t fully developed in toddlers?

A

the arches

129
Q

What is femoral ant-eversion at birth and what happens to it as we age?

A

it is 30 degrees at births and it decreases as we age/develop

130
Q

What drives development according to the cognitive theory?

A

Experience

131
Q

When are infants normally able to sit independently?

A

six months

132
Q

How do children learn to catch?

A

by extending their arms and trapping the ball against their chest

133
Q

What reflex is elicited by stroking the para-vertebral skin?

A

the galant reflex

134
Q

Tilting reactions and postural fixation both work on?

A

equilibrium

135
Q

What is asymmetry tell us

A

informs us of a gross motor red flag

136
Q

What does the cognitive theory assume about motor behavior?

A

that motor behavior is learned

137
Q

What does neural maturationist theory say about development?

A

that it is linear and occurs in a predictable order

138
Q

what is the falling reflex known as?

A

Moro

139
Q

When does creeping normally begin?

A

at 9 months

Pediatrics Test 1 (1 decks)

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