Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Cerebral cortex is divided into 52 ___ based on cytoarchitectural variation
A
Brodmann areas
[Lecture: Introduction]
2
Q
The primary motor cortex and primary somatosensory cortex are adjacent to one another and separated by the ___
A
Central/Rolandic sulcus
[Lecture: Introduction]
3
Q
A map of the body as represented in the cortex is a ___ ___
A
somatotopic homunculus
[Lecture: Introduction]
4
Q
The most extensive neural representation is in our ___ and ___
A
face and hands
[Lecture: Introduction]
5
Q
Communication between neurons is called a ___
A
synapse
[Lecture: Introduction]
6
Q
___ carry information toward the cell body (afferent)
A
Dendrites
[Lecture: Introduction]
7
Q
___ carry impulses away from the cell body (efferent)
A
Axons
[Lecture: Introduction]
8
Q
Experience sculpts synaptic connections to shape mental activity through ___
A
epigenetic mechanisms
[Lecture: Introduction]
9
Q
The neurologic exam will help determine lesion is at the level of ___________
A
muscle, the neuromuscular junction, the peripheral nerve,
the spinal cord, brainstem, subcortical structures (basal ganglia and cerebellum), or the cortex
[Lecture: Introduction]
10
Q
Organic disorder is one that decreases mental function due to ___
A
medical or physical disease
[Lecture: Introduction]
11
Q
Functional disorder is one that decreases mental function due to ___
A
psychological cause
[Lecture: Introduction]
12
Q
VITAMIN C
A
Vascular Infectious Tramautic Age-related Metabolic Inflammatory Neoplasm Congential
[Lecture: Introduction]
13
Q
White areas of the brain contain ___
A
myelinated axons, connecting the different processing areas
[Lecture: Introduction]
14
Q
Myelinated axons are mostly ___
A
fat sheaths veined with capillaries
[Lecture: Introduction]
15
Q
Gray (pinkish-tan really, due to capillaries) matter is collections of ___
A
cell bodies, dendrites, synapses; it’s where the neural processing occurs
[Lecture: Introduction]
16
Q
Axons ___ extend into the white matter
A
do
[Lecture: Introduction]
17
Q
Pathways connecting one part of the brain to another are given names according to ____ nomenclature
A
from-to, name tells you what is connected to what
[Lecture: Introduction]
18
Q
The CNS consists of two types of cells: ___ and ___
A
neurons and glia
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
19
Q
___ are distinctive, spindle shaped collections of rough ER in the neuron
A
Nissle bodies/substance
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
20
Q
The neuron cell body is also known as the ___
A
soma
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
21
Q
Glia are ___
A
non-neuronal cells that maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and provide support and protection for neurons in the CNS and
originally thought to be the connective tissue of the brain, hence the name, which means “glue”
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
22
Q
Examples of glia include ___, ___, ___, and ___ in the CNS, and ___ and ___ in the PNS
A
oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia
Schwann cells, satellite cells
23
Q
Synapses are where ___
A
One neuron passes information to another - can be at axon dendrite connection, or axon cell body, or even between axons…
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
24
Q
When an action potential reaches the terminal, ___ influx permits fusions of vesicle to the plasma membrane to dump the neurotransmitter in
A
Calcium
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
25
Ionotropic receptors are transmembrane molecules that ___ to allow ___
bind ligands to allow ions to travel in/out of the cell; they are quick and produce a specific response
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
26
Metabotropic receptors are transmembrane receptors that are ___
linked to G proteins; they are much slower and result in wider range of responses
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
27
Microglia are the ___ of the CNS and are signaled by ___
phagocytes; ATP (if a cell is damaged it will leak ATP, there is normally no ATP in the EC space)
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
28
Microglia arise embryonically from outside the ___
neural tube; from hematopoietic tissue
They do not originate embryonically from the nervous system
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
29
Oligodendrocytes form ___ in the CNS
myelin - one oligodendrocyte can myelinate several nearby axons
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
30
Schwann cells form ___ in the PNS
myelin - one Schwann cell can only form myelin around only one axon
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
31
Astrocytes are ___-shaped glia that ___, ___, and ___
star; have long processes to maintain ionic equilibrium by taking up the released K+; clear and recycle myelin debris in the CNS as well as neurotransmitters released extracellularly by converting it to glutamine; and maintain the BBB and regulate blood flow locally
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
32
PNS damage response is mediated by Schwann cells that ___ and then ___
clear the myelin debris and then line up to act as a substrate for outgrowth of axons
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
33
CNS damage response is mediated by oligodendroglia that ___ and ___ and ___ to ___ axonal regeneration
proliferating and up-regulating expression of molecules (e.g. chondrotin sulfate proteoglycans) to inhibit axonal outgrowth. They then active astrocytes to form a scar to block off axonal regeneration
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
34
CNS axons are ___ capable of re-growth
*they are capable, but are inhibited by the local CNS glia*
[Lecture: Neurons, Glia and Brain Tissue]
35
Capillaries of the brain are ___ fenestrated
not; the endothelial cells are zipped up by tight junctions
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
36
Endothelial cells of the brain have ___ junctions
tight; substances must diffuse or be transported through endothelium to enter ECF of brain
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
37
___ (glia) help maintain the blood-brain barrier
Astrocytes
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
38
T/F: there are small sites where there is no blood-brain barrier
True; here the CNS is linked to peripheral blood flow for various functions
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
39
___ wall off the "circumventricular organs" to maintain the separation of EC space from plasma
Astrocytes
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
40
Cerebral ischemia develops when blood flow falls below ___
20 mL/min per 100 g of tissue
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
41
Autoregulation of blood flow is performed by ___ in ___
calcium-activated potassium channels (Kca) of arterioles
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
42
Stretch of brain arteriole -> ___ -> depolarization -> ___
Inhibition of Kca such that K outflux is blocked and Ca influx is activated
increase vascular muscle tone to maintain vessel diameter
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
43
___ is an increase in local blood flow due to an increase in neuronal activity
Functional hyperemia
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
44
Functional hyperemia involves neurons producing ____ and astrocytes ___ arachidonic acid to ___ to ___, resulting in increased blood flow
neurons producing NO to dilate vessels, and astrocytes taking up the glutamate released by the overworked neurons, release arachidonic acid and convert it to EET via P450, which hyperpolarizes the arteriole membrane to dilate it
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
45
fMRI relies on intrisic properties of ___ to measure blood flow
hemoglobin
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
46
PET relies on an ___, a radioactive analog of ___
injected tracer; glucose
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
47
Neurons ___ glycogen reserve
lack
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
48
T/F: The blood supply of the brain carefully adheres to its embryonic organization
False, it invades the growing cerebrum after it has started to fold and bend
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
49
The brain's arterial supply arises from the ___ artery and the ___ arteries, such that a drop in flow in one system can be compensated by the other
internal carotid and vertebral arteries
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
50
The internal carotid artery supplies the ___ of the brain
anterior half
Recall, it divides into ophthalmic, and then anterior and middle cerebrals
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
51
The vertebral arteries supply the ___, ___, and ___ of the cortex
brainstem, cerebellum, and medial face of occipital lobe and inferior temporal lobe of the cortex
Recall, they divide into the anterior and posterior spinals
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles]
52
The ___ divides the two halves of the cerebral cortex
longitudinal fissure
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
53
The ____ artery enters the longitudinal fissure and supplies the ___ of the medial face of the cerebral hemisphere and orbital cortex
Anterior cerebral; anterior 2/3
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
54
The internal carotid branches to form the ___ and the ____ arteries
anterior cerebral, middle cerebral
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
55
The ___ supplies the lateral face of the cerebrum, including the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes
middle cerebral
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
56
Unnamed branches of the ____ supply the deep white and gray matter, these vessels are often involved in ___ symptoms
middle cerebral artery; stroke symptoms such as hemiplegia
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
57
The vertebral arteries fuse at the level of the pons to form the ____
basilar artery
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
58
The basilar artery bifurcates into the ___
posterior cerebral arteries
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
59
The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) branches off the ___ artery to supply the ____ part of the cerebellum
vertebral; most caudal
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
60
The anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) branches off the ____ artery to supply the ___ of the cerebellum
basilar artery; supplies the more anterior portion of the inferior face of the cerebellum
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
61
The superior cerebellar artery branches off the ___ artery, and enters the ___ to supply the superior cerebellum
basilar artery; posterior fossa
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
62
The Circle of Willis connects the ____ circulatory systems along the base of the brain
posterior and anterior circulation
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
63
The Circle of Willis is formed by the ____
anterior and posterior communicating arteries joining the anterior cerebral arteries, middle cerebral arteries, and posterior cerebral arteries
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
64
All of the sinuses merge at the ___
sinuses confluens
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
65
The sinus confluens drains into the ___
jugular vein
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
66
Cerebral veins empty into ___
dural sinuses
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
67
The ___ are enlarged fluid-filled lumens that are remnants of the embryonic tube that formed the brain
ventricles
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
68
Embryonically, the brain forms from a ___
neural tube
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
69
CSF is secreted by the ___, a modified vascular structure in the ventricles
chorioid plexus
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
70
The lateral ventricles are what used to be the first and second ventricles, and communicate with the third ventricle via the ___
intraventricular foramina (one for each lateral ventricle)
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
71
There are ___ ventricles in total
four - the lateral (1 and 2), third, and fourth
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
72
The ____ connects the third and fourth ventricles
cerebral aqueduct
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
73
Three apertures (two lateral and one caudal) connect the fourth ventricle with the ___
subarachnoid space
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
74
The ___ is a single layer of cells that lines the ventricles to form a leaky cell layer
ependyma
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
75
T/F: Substances in the CSF cannot move from the ventricle into the EC space of the brain
False, ependyma forms a leaky cell layer
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
76
In the choroid plexus, brain capillaries lose their ___ junctions and ependymal cells acquire ___ junctions
tight, tight
Here solutes diffuse out of capillaries and must be actively transported across ependymal cell to the CSF
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
77
Most of the CSF (100 mL) is in the ___
subarachnoid space
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
78
About 500 mL of ___ is made per day
CSF
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
79
The CSF is the extracellular fluid for neurons and also ____
buoys up the brain, dampens shock of blows to the head, and is tightly regulated in regard to ionic compisition
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
80
CSF returns to the blood primarily via ___, which line the principle dural sinuses
arachnoid granulations/arachnoid villi
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
81
If CSF resorbtion fails, ___ increases resulting in ___
intracranial fluid pressure, hydrocephalus
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
82
If the flow of CSF is interrupted, this is called a ___
non-communicating hydrocephalus (it's not communicating to the subarachnoid space)
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
83
If CSF gets to subarachnoid space but isn't resorbed properly, it is called a ___
communicating hydrocephalus
[Lecture: Vesicles to Ventricles/Blood Supply and CSF]
84
Excitatory postsynpaptic potential (EPSP) are results of neurotransmitters that cause ___
depolarization (inside becomes positive with respect to the outside of cell)
85
IPSPs cause ___
hyperpolarization
86
T/F: Cells cannot receive an EPSP from one source and an IPSP from another simultaenously
False, the can partially or totally cancel each other out
87
An action potential will occur if an ___ can cause the neuron to reach ___
EPSP, threshold
88
Steps of the action potential
First, voltage-gated sodium (Na+) channels pop open, allowing Na+ to rush from the
extracellular space into the cell, causing the interior of the cell to become even less negative with
respect to the outside. At some point, the membrane potential actually becomes positive instead
of negative.
When the membrane potential becomes positive enough, the voltage-gated Na+ channels
are inactivated and Na+ no longer enters the cell.
At this point, voltage-gated K+ channels pop open, K+ rushes out of the cell, and the
membrane potential becomes negative again (repolarizes).
The rapid efflux of K+ from the cell causes a slight undershoot (hyperpolarization).
Equilibrium is slowly restored through the action of the Na+/K+ pump.
89
The ___ period is the period during which another action potential cannot
be generated under any circumstances
absolute refractory
90
The ___ period is the period during which extra depolarizing current (an
extra large EPSP) is needed to generate an action potential
relative refractory
91
Synaptic transmission takes time, and thus there is a lag, called the ___, between the time a stimulus is present in the environment and when a neuron responds
response latency
92
___ was the methodology of studying the skull to make inferences about brain function
Phrenology
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
93
___ is a method of correlating brain regions and injuries to behavior
Lesion analysis
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
94
CT and MRI provide information of the ___ of the brain, at a resolution of ___ - higher resolution requires histologic analysis
structure; 2-3mm squared
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
95
Negative symptoms (i.e. weakness, loss of sensation) correspond to ___ lesions
loss of function due to destructive lesions
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
96
Measuring ___ noninvasively allows us to measure functions of neurons
electromagnetic potentials
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
97
Measurement of ___ provides an indirect measure of activity of populations of neurons
cerebral hemodynamics and regional cerebral blood flow (CBF)
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
98
Electrophysiologic techniques of measuring brain function include
EEG (electroencephalogram), ERP (event related potential), MEG (magnetoencephalogram)
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
99
Metabolic/hemodynamic techniques of measuring brain function include
PET (positron emission technology), fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging), SPECT (single photo emission computed topography)
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
100
EEG measures ___ as they are slow postsynaptic potentials, because ___ are very brief and thus contribute little
EPSPs and IPSPs; action potentials
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
101
Summation of electrical potential changes occurs at the vertically oriented neurons known as ___, and thus this gives the EEG signal off
pyramidal cells
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
102
EEG and MEG do not measure individual neurons (only single electrodes can), but rather capture ___, representing synchronized activity across many neuronal elements
field potentials
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
103
An event-related potential (ERP) is the average of multiple ___ recordings in response to a single stimulus
EEG
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
104
T/F: ERP waveforms can be compared to the norm to indicate pathology at specific loci within the known transmission pathways for these sensory modalities
True
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
105
Electromyography is usually performed in conjunction with ___
nerve conduction studies
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
106
EMG and nerve conduction studies are useful in identifying pathology affecting ___, ___, and ___ disease
muscle, peripheral nerve, and motor neuron disease
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
107
Increased glutamate in the synaptic cleft is taken up by ___
astrocytes
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
108
Glutamate is taken up by astrocytes, resulting in increased numbers of ___ along the foot process abutting the capillary and blood brain barrier, and the
release of ___ factors that increase local cerebral blood flow.
glucose transporters; vasodilatory
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
109
PET scans are obtained by injecting patients with ___ and then measuring ___
positron-emitting radionuclide; collisions with electrons to create photons
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
110
___, a tracer, can provide a map of glucose metabolism in the brain in PET scans
18-Fluorodeoxyglucose (18 FDG)
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
111
___, a tracer, can provide a map of water distribution in PET scans
H215O
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
112
BOLD (Blood-Oxygen Level Dependent) is a technique in fMRI that measures ____
inhomogeneities in the magnetic field due to
changes in the level of O2 in the blood - deoxyhemoglobin is paramagnetic and will distort the magnetic field
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
113
A connectome is ____
connections of all neurons
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
114
____ is the study of the organization of neural interactions within the brain
Connectomics
[Lecture: Interrogating the Nervous System]
115
A typical synapse occupies a volume of about ___
2 cubic micrometers
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
116
Presynaptic terminals are filled with ___, each with a diameter of about 40 nm and contain neurotransmitter
synpatic vesicles
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
117
When an action potential arrives in the
| presynaptic terminal, the depolarization causes ___ to open, which moves ___ into the cell.
voltage-gated calcium channels; Ca2+
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
118
Binding of calcium
ions to the protein ___ triggers the fusion of the
lipids of the vesicle and surface membranes, opening a fusion pore through which the
neurotransmitter diffuses out of the vesicle
synaptotagmin
This is called exocytosis
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
119
Neurotransmitter will bind to receptors at the ___ to initiate a response
postsynaptic membrane
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
120
Neurotransmitter is handled three different ways:
destroyed, diffuse into the EC space, or recycled back into the presynaptic terminal into vesicles
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
121
After dumping its neurotransmitter, the spent vesicle will be ___
reinternalized and refilled with neurotransmitter
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
122
NMJ synapses are generally ___ (speed), ___ (effect), ___ (strength), and use ___ (transmitter)
fast; excitatory; strong, ACh
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
123
CNS synapses can be ___ (speed), ___ (effect), ___ (strength), and use multiple different ___ including ACh
fast or slow; excitatory or inhibitory; weak; transmitters
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
124
The ANS controls ___ movement while the SNS controls ___ movement
involuntary (cardiac, smooth muscle); voluntary (skeletal muscle)
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
125
At each neuromuscular
junction, the motor axon loses its myelin sheath and splays out on a tiny ___ (about 30
micrometers in diameter) on the muscle surface
end plate
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
126
In ___ (uniquely) the postsynaptic membrane is thrown into numerous folds that increase the membrane area
skeletal muscle
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
127
A ___ is the number of muscle fibers innervated by one
| motor axon, and a single AP will cause all the fibers to twitch once
motor unit
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
128
The ACh receptor in skeletal muscle is a ___ as ACh binding will cause ___
ligand-gated ion channel; Na+ movement into the cell
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
129
The NMJ is located near the ___ of the muscle fiber and thus ___ get initiated
middle; two APs moving away from one another toward the tendons
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
130
The neuromuscular synapse acts like an ___ relay
| switch
all-or-none - if the action potential threshold is not reached in the muscle fiber there is no twitch at all, and if threshold is exceeded there is ordinarily a single twitch
regardless of the size of the stimulus
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
131
The neuron resting potential is ___ mV, and threshold is ___ mV
-80; -50
so must secrete 30 mV of depolarizing ACh
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
132
The action potential is propagated quickly to each tendon by ___ which let in ___, and are located everywhere on the muscle fiber
voltage-gated sodium channels, Na+
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
133
The nerve terminal is much smaller than the muscle it innervates, so there is a need for ___
amplification
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
134
Because each single synpatic vesicle products about one mV depolarization, to reach threshold the body has to ___ and ___
extend its length of contact with the muscle; and load it with a few hundred active zones and tens of thousands of synaptic vesicles
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
135
The motor nerve terminal secretes the contents of a few times more than the minimum number of synaptic vesicles needed to maintain a ___
safety factor
comes in handy during repetitive stimulation as number of vesicles exocytosed with each stimulus declines
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
136
Miniature End Plate Potentials (MEPP) are about 1 mV and reflect the ___
spontaneous exocytosis of a single synaptic vesicle
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
137
The ACh receptor is a ligand-gated ion channel and is permeable to ___
all cations; it is a Non-Selective Cation (NSC) channel
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
138
The ACh receptor is a pentamer of ___
four different subunits; alpha contributes two subunits
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
139
___ (number) of ACh must bind to the receptor to open it
Two molecules
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
140
In the NMJ, presynpatic delay is short but is due to the time between ___ and ___
membrane depolarization and fusion of vesicle and surface membranes
the entire thing takes about 1 millisecond
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
141
Cleaning up the NMJ synapse involves ___, ___, ___, and the muscle fiber must ___
pumping Ca++ out via Ca ATPase and NCX
retrieval of the exocytosed vesicle membrane
removal of ACh
muscle fiber must pump out Ca and Na, and pump back in K - done via Na/K ATPase and Ca pumps
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
142
Removal of ACh at the NMJ can be completed via ___, ___, or ___
simple diffusion out into EC medium [most important]
destruction by AChe (acetylcholinesterase) into acetate and choline
reuptake of choline by the presynpatic terminal [least important]
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
143
Two repetitive-use phenomena have been especially well characterized: ___ and ___
facilitation and synaptic depression
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
144
Facilitation occurs exclusively pre-synaptically, as increased (residual from the last EPSP) presynaptic ___ causes greater release of ___
Ca++, neurotransmitter-containing synaptic vesicles
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
145
Synaptic depression occurs exclusively pre-synaptically, and is due to depletion of ___
releasable synaptic vesicles
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
146
In myasthenia gravis, patients make antibodies to ___
ACh receptors, and thus diminishes the amplitude of MEPPs and EPP
This may not be a problem at first, but with repetitive stimulation and synaptic depression patient will have weakness on exertion
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
147
Myasthenic syndrome is ___-synaptic and patients will become ___, myasthenia gravis is ___-synaptic and patients will become ___. Both are autoimmune
pre-synaptic to Ca++ channels; stronger (myasthenic syndrome is like ongoing facilitation)
post-synaptic to ACh receptors; weaker (myasthena gravis is a little bit like ongoing synaptic depression)
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
148
Facilitation and depression are of more importance in the ___ rather than the ___
CNS, PNS - they are linked to learning and memory
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
149
CNS neurons typically receive synaptic inputs from many different neurons and has long dendrites from which
small protuberances called ___ make synaptic contact with incoming axon terminals
dendritic spines
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
150
CNS synapses are weak because the presynaptic terminal contains only a ___, thus facilitation (teamwork!) becomes more important
single active zone and only a few dozen
releasable synaptic vesicles
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
151
CNS transmitter action termination occurs via ___, ___, and ___
diffusion, reuptake, and destruction...
just as in the NMJ, though while the NMJ uses only ACh, there are many different transmitters, so the importance of each method is different here
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
152
While CNS synapses can be excitatory or inhibitory due to variation of the ion channel selectivity, most are ___
inhibitory
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
153
The ___ of an ion is the membrane potential at which there is no net/overall flow of that particular ion from one side of the membrane to the other.
reversal potential/Nernst potential
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
154
In the CNS the major excitatory transmitter is ___, and the main channel gated opened by that transmitter is a(n) ___ channel.
glutamate; Non-Selective Cation (NSC)
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
155
In the CNS the major inhibitory transmitter is ___, which acts by increasing ___ permeability in the postsynaptic membrane
GABA; chloride
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
156
The membrane potential is always determined by the relative ___ of each participating ion.
permeability
Chloride's equilibrium potential is near the resting potential, thus there is a huge Cl permeability change with a small IPSP
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
157
If Vion is +, then the ion's concentration is high ___ the cell. If Vion is -, then the ion's concentration is high ___ the cell.
outside; inside
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
158
CNS synapse inhibition can be ___ or ___
pre-synaptic, as inhibitory neurons synapse on excitatory ones, or post-synaptic, causing a decrease in membrane permeability
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
159
___ is the process of combining excitatory and inhibitory inputs to determine whether or not an AP will occur
Summation - can be temporal or spatial
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
160
Summation can be ___ or ___, based on algebraic summation of inputs or based on the time between one input
spatial or temporal, note that temporal summation occurs simultaneously with facilitation
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
161
___ summation is where two or more inputs contribute
Spatial
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
162
___ summation is where one input fires successively before the previous one can fully decay
Temporal
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
163
Indirect/slow synaptic transmission involves ___ as opposed to ligand-gated ion channels
G-protein coupled receptors which create second messengers
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
164
T/F: a first messenger can work on both fast/direct and slow/indirect pathways
True
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
165
Catecholamines, serotonin, and most peptide transmitters exert their effects through ___
G-protein coupled receptors
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
166
ACh acts on both ___ (ligand-gated ion channel, fast) and ___ (G-protein coupled receptor, slow) receptors
nicotinic; muscarinic
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
167
Toxins like strychnine and tetanus toxin selectively block ___ synaptic transmission and thus produce ___
inhibitory; powerful, persistent, involuntary skeletal muscle contractions
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
168
___ is the summation of excitatory and inhibitory potentials in neurons
Synaptic integration
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
169
___ always arise first at the trigger zone/axon hillock/initial segment, because threshold is lowest at this site
Action potentials
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
170
Because action potentials arise at the axon hillock first, excitatory inputs will be more effective ___
the closer they are to it, due to decremental spreading
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
171
___ is the property that CNS neurons are able to become potentiated in relation to the activity of the postsynaptic cell
Associative plasticity/spike-timing dependent plasticity
possible because of the NMDA receptor
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
172
Associative plasticity (temporal pairing/long term potentiation) is made possible by the ___ receptor
NMDA
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
173
The NMDA receptor is plugged by a ___ ion, and once that is released via glutamate binding and a subsequent postsynaptic action potential, ___ ions will enter the cell
Mg++; Ca++
This is how we learn
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
174
Ca++ entry through the NMDA receptor causes postsynaptic vesicle membrane insertion of ___ which increases the synaptic potential, as well as a ___ signal which strengthens the presynaptic signal
More NMDA receptors; a retrograde signal going presynaptically (e.g. NO diffusing back in and potentiating transmitter release)
This is how we learn
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
175
Silent synapses occur because NMDA receptors need to be activated (requiring glutamate and a postsynaptic potential) to insert ___ receptors into the postsynaptic membrane
AMPA
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
176
The main function of ___ is to couple, and thereby
| synchronize, cells that need to fire together
electrical synapse transmission
Electrical synapses are much faster than chemical ones
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
177
NMDA receptors require ___ signal strength than AMPA receptors to produce postsynaptic membrane depolarization
greater, so that the Mg++ ion in the core can be dislodged
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
178
Predominately Ca++ influx occurs at ___ receptors, while predominately Na++ influx occurs at ___ receptors in potentation
NMDA; AMPA
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
179
Vesicle fusion to the membrane involves ___ on the vesicle latching to ___ on the membrane, ___ ions triggering the fusion, and ___ unwinding the coils
v-SNARE (synaptobrevin); t-SNARE (syntaxin/SNAP-25) (t=target); Ca++; NSF
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
180
Botulinum toxin cleaves ___ to block exocytosis, tetanus toxin does the same but acts at inhibitory synapses
snare proteins
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
181
Review pages 28-31 of 2nd day's handout for examples of indirect synaptic transmission
DO PRIOR TO THE TEST!
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
182
___ is the causative agent of tetanus which is due to a plasmid that encodes tetanospasmin
Clostridium tetani
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
183
Tetanospasmin blocks the release of ___ neurotransmitters, such as glycine and GABA, by cleaving ___
inhibitory; synaptobrevin II
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
184
Botulinum toxin is specific for ___ nerve endings
peripheral
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
185
Botulinum toxin binds to the neuron and prevents the release of ___
acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
186
T/F: Extracellular fluid is always electrically neutral
True
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
187
Hyperkalemia causes ___ in neurons. Why?
depolarization.
Hyperkalemia makes the concentration of potassium on the two sides of the membrane more nearly equal, which moves the potassium equilibrium potential positively, ie towards zero.
Because neurons are relatively highly permeable to potassium, the membrane potential follows, and the neuron depolarizes.
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
188
What is the mechanism of the refractory
| period?
Inactivation gates are still closed and potassium
channels are still conducting immediately after the
AP finishes.
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
189
Slow depolarization can ___, essentially knocking out those sodium channels and blocking an AP
close inactivation gates
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
190
Nerve APs and skeletal muscle APs both last about ___, while a ventricular myocyte AP lasts about ___
1 ms; 250 ms
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
191
If the intracellular and extracellular fluids of an axon were switched, what would happen to the membrane potential?
The membrane potential would be positive (about +80 mV). This would close all inactivation gates, so it could not give an AP unless the membrane itself were also flipped inside out.
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission]
192
The ___ is the part of the nervous system responsible for control of the bodily functions not consciously directed, such as breathing, the heartbeat, and digestive processes.
autonomic NS
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
193
Sympathetic chain ganglia arise from the spinal level of ___ - ___ via the lateral horn and emerge via the ventral root
T1-L2 (thoracolumbar)
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
194
Parasympathetic chain ganglia arise from cranial nerves ___ (4 total) aka tectal region of brain stem, as well as S_-S_
III, VII, IX, X; S2-S4
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
195
Most of the clinically useful drugs affect ___ neurons
efferent (motor) rather than afferent (sensory)
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
196
Afferent neurons convey ___ information, efferent neurons convey ___ information
sensory; motor
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
197
Somatic NS regulates ___ activity and a single neuron connects CNS with peripheral tissues; Autonomic NS regulates ___ activity and pre- and post- ganglionic nerves connect at a ganglion
somatic: voluntary skeletal muscle; autononic: involuntary smooth and cardiac muscle and glandular secretions (divided into symp/parasymp)
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
198
The adrenal medulla can release the neurotransmitter ___
epinephrine
Adrenal medulla is embryologically and functionally a sympathetic ganglion; innervated by typical sympathetic preganglionic neurons
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
199
___ neurons synapse in terminal ganglia, either next to or within the organs innervated
Parasympathetic
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
200
Preganglionic parasympathetic ganglions are ___er than preganglionic sympathetic ganglions
Postganglionic parasympathetic ganglions are ___er than postganglionic sympathetic ganglions
longer; shorter
```
Parasympathetic ganglia (most) are located in the innervated organs
Sympathetic ganglia are located in two paravertebral chains along spinal cord (most), or in prevertebral ganglia in the abdomen (some)
```
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
201
Adrenergic receptors include ___ receptor subtypes while cholinergic receptors are divided into muscarinic (of which the subtypes are ___) and nicotinic
α and β
M
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
202
Nicotinic receptors are located in ___, ___, and ___
neuronal CNS, skeletal muscle, and ganglionic
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
203
Post ganglionic sympathetic neurons release the neurotransmitter ___ at effector organs, ___ at sweat glands, or ___ at renal VSMC, while post ganglionic parasympathetic release acetylcholine, although both release acetylcholine at the preganglionic neuron
norepinephrine (interacts with α and β receptors);
ACh (interacts with M receptors);
dopamine (interacts with D1 receptors)
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
204
Post ganglionic sympathetic neurons release the neurotransmitter norepi at effector organs, ACh at sweat glands, or dopamine at renal VSMC, while post ganglionic parasympathetic release ___
ACh (interacts with M receptors)
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
205
Preganglionic PS and S neurons release ACh which interacts with ___ receptors
nicotinic cholinergic
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
206
Most organs are dually innervated save for ___ which receive sympathetic innervation only
blood vessels
They have muscarinic cholinergic receptors that are not responsive to PS activation
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
207
Predominant neural control is almost always exerted by the ___ branch, save for blood vessels which receive ___ innervation only
parasympathetic; sympathetic
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
208
The ___ nervous system is considered essential for life, while the ___ NS is not in a controlled environment, though is also always active
parasympathetic; sympathetic
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
209
___ receptors exist at cardiac muscle and blood vessels, GI tract, bronchiole smooth muscle and glands, GU tract and the eye
Muscarinic
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
210
___ receptors in the cardiovascular system produce primarily sympathetic effects (vasoconstriction, tachycardia, elevated BP), and in the GU system produce primarily parasympathetic effects (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urination)
Nicotinic
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
211
α1 receptors at VSMC mediate ___ while β2 receptors mediate ___
vasoconstriction; vasodilation
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
212
Renal vasculature contains both ___ and ___ receptors to balance out constriction and dilation
α1 and dopamine receptors
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
213
Stimulation of what receptor causes each:
___: Vasoconstriction increases TPR and BP (reflex bradycardia occurs)
___: Increased heart rate and increased force of contraction increases CO and BP
___: Vasodilation decreases TPR and BP (reflex tachycardia occurs)
___: Decrease in SNS outflow (via action in CNS) decreases BP
α1
β1
β2
α2
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
214
Activation of baroreceptors ultimately results in ___, a short term compensatory mechanism
sympathetic inhibition and thus vasodilation and decreased HR
activation is due to increased arterial pressure
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
215
Relaxation of baroreceptors ultimately results in ___, a short term compensatory mechanism
sympathetic activation and thus vasoconstriction and increased HR
relaxation is due to decreased arterial pressure
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
216
RAAS activation is triggered by ___ and ultimately leads to ___, a long term compensatory mechanism
a decrease in renal blood flow; retention of Na+ and water to increase vascular volume and thus BP
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
217
___ innervates most everything parasympathetically upwards of the pelvis, save for the eyes and tear and salivary glands
Vagus/CN X
The eyes are innervated by CN III
Tear and salivary glands are innervated by VII, IX
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
218
The large intestine, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs are innervated parasympathetically by ___
S2-S4
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
219
The ___, ___, ___, and ___ organs are innervated parasympathetically by S2-S4
large intestine, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs
[Lecture: Peripheral NS Anatomy and Physiology]
220
Most drugs act at the ___ level to either mimic or block neurotransmitter
receptor
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
221
Drugs that act indirectly (not at the receptor level) alter ___, ___, or ___ of neurotransmitter
synthesis, storage, or inactivation
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
222
Cholinergic agonists produce the same effect as ___ (neurotransmitter) at muscarinic cholinergic receptors
ACh
they are known as parasympathomimetics/cholinomimetics
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
223
Cholinergic antagonists block ___ (neurotransmitter) and are thus known as ___
ACh
parasympatholytics at parasympathetic end organs/neuromuscular blockers if at NMJ/ganglionic blockers at ganglia
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
224
Adrenergic agonists produce the same effect as ___ at ___
NE at sympathetic end organs
known as sympathomimetics
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
225
Adrenergic antagonists block the effects of epi and norepi at ___
adrenergic synapse
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
226
___ blocks the reuptake of choline by the high-affinity choline transporter at the presynapse, this is the rate-limiting step of ACh synthesis
Hemicholinium/hemicholine
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
227
Choline uptake is dependent on contransport with ___ at the presynapse, this is the rate-limiting step of ACh synthesis
Na+
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
228
An acetyl group is removed from acetylCoA and added to choline via ___
choline acetyltransferase
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
229
ACh storage into vesicles is inhibited by ___, which thus reduces its release
vesamicol
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
230
ACh release is blocked by ___ toxin and increased by ___ toxin, and mostly depends on Ca influx
botulinum; black widow spider
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
231
The ___ of AChe attracts acetyl group [CH3-COO] of acetylcholine
esteratic site
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
232
At the catalytic site of AChe, ACh's acetyl group is covalently bound to the ___ of acetylcholinesterase while the choline group is released
serine [Ser-OH]
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
233
Acetyl-serine-enzyme bond is hydrolyzed rapidly (microseconds) at the catalytic site to yield ___ and free, active acetylcholinesterase enzyme
acetate
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
234
Stimulation of Gq GPCR (muscarinic) yields increased ___ activity
phospholipase C
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
235
Stimulation of Gi GPCR (muscarinic) yields decreased ___ activity
adenylyl cyclase
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
236
___ is a synthetic analog of acetylcholine and can be structurally modified to provide further selectivity for muscarinic receptors or resistance to AChe
Bethanecol
(Pilocarpine is the alkaloid)
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
237
___ is a naturally occurring alkaloid, but not a synthetic analog, that acts predominantly at muscarinic receptors to mimic ACh
Pilocarpine
(Bethanecol is the synthetic analog of ACh)
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
238
Nicotine at low doses acts as a PSN and SNS ___, but at higher doses will act as an ___
agonist; antagonist due to persistent depolarization rendering the membrane unresponsive
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
239
___ prevent acetylcholine breakdown and allow acetylcholine to accumulate in the synapse and exert increased effects at cholinergic receptors
Cholinesterase inhibitors (Oximes)
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
240
Antimuscarinics/anticholinergics are classified based on structure and are either ___ such as atropine, scopolamine, or ___ such as propantheline
alkaloids; synthetics
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
241
Antinicotinics act at either the ___, or the ___ by blocking the predominant tone at the effector site (symp/parasymp) though these are less useful than the first
NMJ; ganglia
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
242
DOPA (dihydroxyphenylalanine) is synthesized from tyrosine by ___, which is inhibited by ___, an analog of tyrosine (shares most of the name)
tyrosine hydroxylase; metyrosine
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
243
Dopamine is synthesized from DOPA (dihydroxyphenylalanine) by ___ in the cytosol, which is inhibited by ___, analogs of DOPA
1-AAD (L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase)
α-methyl dopa and carbidopa
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
244
phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase, the enzyme converting norepi to epi, is present in highest concentration in ___
adrenal medulla
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
245
___ is converted to norepinephrine by dopamine β-hydroxylase (DβH)
Dopamine
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
246
All catecholamine neurotransmitters (dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine) have the ___ nucleus and catechol ___ groups in common
phenylethylamine; hydroxyl (-OH)
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
247
Catecholamines and serotonin are a group known as ___
monoamines/"biogenic agents"
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
248
VMAT is a pump that transports norepi into vesicles, which packages it from release and protects it from degradation by ___, located on the mitochondria
monoamine oxidase
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
249
Most of norepinephrine is ___ by the norepinephrine transporter (NET), which is blocked by cocaine and tricyclic antidepressants
taken back up into presynaptic nerve terminals
[Lecture: Autonomic NS Neuropharmacology]
250
The prosencephalic vesicle segments from a single vesicle into three vesicles at week 5: paired enlargements cranially, the ___ vesicles, which expand off of the single, more caudal ___ vesicle.
telencephalic; diencephalic
telencephalic becomes cerebral hemispheres; diencephalic becomes all of the -thalamus shit
[Lecture: Embryology I]
251
At week 3 the neural tube grows enlargements at the ___ end, the primary cerebral vesicles. These are termed the ___ (forebrain), ___ (midbrain), and ___ (hindbrain)
rostral; prosencephalon; mesencephalon; rhombencephalon
[Lecture: Embryology I]
252
The Rhombencephalic vesicle segments into the more cranial ___ and the more caudal ___
metencephalon; myelencephalon
metencephalon becomes pons and cerebellum, myelencephalon becomes medulla
[Lecture: Embryology I]
253
The telencephalic vesicles correspond to the ___, each with its own lateral ventricle.
cerebral hemispheres
[Lecture: Embryology I]
254
The ___ will give rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, and epithalamus, as well as the retina and iris
diencephalic vesicle (all -thalamus)
its lumen gives rise to the third ventricle
[Lecture: Embryology I]
255
The ___ will give rise embryologically to the pons and cerebellum, and the ___ gives rise to the medulla
metencephalon; myelencephalon
lumen gives rise to the fourth ventricle
[Lecture: Embryology I]
256
The embryonic three-layered germ disc consists of an ___, ___, and ___
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
[Lecture: Embryology I]
257
Portions of the primitive/Hensen's ___ coalesce beginning just below the ___ and extending cranially to form the rod-like notochordal process, which is initially hollow.
mesoderm; primitive node
[Lecture: Embryology I]
258
The ___ is the point at which epiblasts near the amniotic cavity and the hypoblasts near the primitive yolk sac are connected, is the first determinant of rostral caudal orientation
It will become the mouth of the baby.
prechordal plate
[Lecture: Embryology I]
259
___ cells start growing towards the primitive streak and primitive/Hensen's node at the caudal end of the embryo opposite the prechordal plate, and grow towards the prechordal plate to form the ectoblast, the mesoblast (or chorda-mesoblast) and the intraembryonic endoblast.
Epiblast
[Lecture: Embryology I]
260
The epiblast cells that migrate down and ventrally from the primitive/Hensen's node towards the prechordal plate to form the ___
notochord
[Lecture: Embryology I]
261
The notochord is in the ___ layer, sandwiched between ___ and endoderm
mesoderm; ectoderm
[Lecture: Embryology I]
262
The notochord releases factors to promote ectodermal thickening, forming the ___
neural plate
Ectoderm is on the amniotic cavity side
[Lecture: Embryology I]
263
The center of the neural plate begins to depress and the edges start to raise (becoming the neural folds), after which it is referred to as the ___
neural groove
[Lecture: Embryology I]
264
The cells in the formation of the neural tube that are removed after neural fold fusion are ___ cells
neural crest cells
[Lecture: Embryology I]
265
The adult remnants of the notochord are the ___
nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs
[Lecture: Embryology I]
266
Anterior neural pore closes at day ___ due to maternal folic acid - if deficient in folic acid, anencephaly occurs
25
recall, folic acid (vitamin B9) in the adult is responsible for proper development of blood cells and a deficiency will cause megaloblastic anemia
[Lecture: Embryology I]
267
Failure of posterior neural pore closure manifests as ___
spina bifida
[Lecture: Embryology I]
268
The mesencephalon will become the ___encephalon
it remains as mesencephalon you dumbass
[Lecture: Embryology I]
269
Neurons growing into the alar plate, which becomes the dorsal horn, are ___
sensory axons
[Lecture: Embryology I]
270
Neurons growing into the basal plate, which becomes the ventral horn, are ___
motor axons
[Lecture: Embryology I]
271
In the brain stem, motor nuclei are located ___ while sensory nuclei are located ___
centrally; peripherally
[Lecture: Embryology I]
272
___ cells give rise to melanocytes, pia-arachnoid mater, sensory and autonomic ganglia of CN and peripheral spinal nerves, adrenal medulla, odentoblasts, and neuro-cranial bones, aorticopulmonary septum, and Schwann cells
Neural crest
[Lecture: Embryology I]
273
Neural crest cells give rise to ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___
melanocytes, craniofacial cartilage and bone, smooth muscle, peripheral and enteric neurons and glia
[Lecture: Embryology I]
274
The notochord releases ___, a signaling molecule, which induces the neurectoderm to form the neural plate
Shh (Sonic Hedgehog)
[Lecture: Embryology I]
275
Incidence of neural tube defects can be reduced by having pregnant women take 400 micrograms (0.4mg) of ___ daily, especially through the first trimester of pregnancy
folic acid/vitamin B9
Deficiency in the adult causes a megaloblastic anema
[Lecture: Embryology I]
276
Wnts, FGFs, and retinoic acid are secreted by the primitive node to promote ___ neural tube differentiation, helping give rise to cerebral vesicles
caudal
Wnt = butt
Cerebrus and dickkopf are secreted by the anterior visceral endoderm to promote rostral neural tube differention
[Lecture: Embryology I]
277
Cerebrus and dickkopf are secreted by the anterior visceral endoderm to promote ___ neural tube differention, helping give rise to cerebral vesicles
rostral
Cerebrus = head
Wnts, FGFs, and retinoic acid are secreted by the primitive node to promote caudal neural tube differentiation
[Lecture: Embryology I]
278
Early on the rhombencephalon consists of 8 morphologically distinct elements called ___, which each have unique combinations of Hox genes, but the boundaries eventually disappear
rhombomeres
each rhombomere has distinct cell morphology, NT synthesis and selectivity, other properties...
[Lecture: Embryology I]
279
It is the variation in ___ genes, a transcription factor, that results in the variance among the 8 rhombomeres of the rhombencephalon
Hox/Homeobox
[Lecture: Embryology I]
280
The walls of the neural tube are initially lined by pseudostratified ectoderm known as the ___ layer
neuroepithelial
[Lecture: Embryology I]
281
The cells of the ___ layer of the neural tube are initially ectoderm and form virtually all of the cellular elements of the CNS - save for ___, which originate from the reticuloendothelial system
neuroepithelial; microglia
[Lecture: Embryology I]
282
Primitive neuroepithelial cells migrate away from inner multiplication zone and to the outer edge of the growing wall of the ___, which thickens selectively to resemble the mature nervous system
neural tube
[Lecture: Embryology I]
283
As the neural tube becomes longer and thicker, neuroblasts (primitive nerve cells) start to use ___ ___ ___ cells as "rope ladders" to get where they need to go
radial glial guide
Chemical messages then signal where they need to get off at
[Lecture: Embryology I]
284
If migrating neuroblasts do not get off of the ___ ___ ___ cells (the "rope ladders"), then the next neuroblasts in line are blocked off and cannot migrate to where they need to go either
radial glial guide
[Lecture: Embryology I]
285
In the spinal cord, progenitors closer to the ___ aspect become motor neurons, while progenitors closer to the ___ aspect become sensory neurons - this is due to Shh from the notochord and BMPs
ventral; dorsal - just like the adult spine ya dumbass
the dorsal population is on the alar plate
the ventral population is on the basal plate
[Lecture: Embryology I]
286
The neural tube develops a crease - the ___ ___ - which separates the ventral population (THE BASAL PLATE) from the dorsal population (THE ALAR PLATE)
sulcus limitans
[Lecture: Embryology I]
287
The lateral surface of the telencephalic vesicle folds over itself to form the Sylvian fissure, which produces the ___ cortex
insular
[Lecture: Embryology I]
288
Curare works by blocking ___ receptors
ACh
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission II]
289
Neostigmine works by blocking ___ at the NMJ and is thus a treatment for myasthenia gravis and myasthenic syndrome
AChe
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission II]
290
Most neurogenesis occurs prior to ___
birth
[Lecture: Embryo II]
291
The nervous system begins as a flat epithelium known as the ___
neurectoderm
[Lecture: Embryo II]
292
Cells in the 3 secondary zones of neurogenesis share 3 characteristics: 1) they arise in a ___ zone; 2) they migrate before exiting the mitotic cycle to a ___ zone; 3) they proliferate postnatally in ___ zones
ventricular; non-ventricular; non-ventricular
they become secondary neurogenesis regions: external granulate layer; adult dentate gyrus; subventricular zone are the 3 zones, the latter two continue neurogenesis into adulthood
[Lecture: Embryo II]
293
The three secondary zones of neurogenesis include the ___, ___, and ___ - the latter two continue neurogenesis in adulthood
external granule layer; adult dentate gyrus; subventricular zone
however there is still net loss of neurons
[Lecture: Embryo II]
294
Once the first CNS cells exit the mitotic cycle, they migrate to the ___ region, which later separates into the MZ, CP, IZ, SP, and DVZ
preplate
[Lecture: Embryo II]
295
In the cerebral cortex, developing neurons use ___ ___ ___ cells, which span the entire cortex, as guides for migration
radial glial guide
[Lecture: Embryo II]
296
FilaminA (FLNA) is the gene responsible for the step of ___, mutations in this result in periventricular heterotopia (PH)
onset of neuronal migration
FLNA connects neurons to radial glial guide cells
[Lecture: Embryo II]
297
___ is the gene responsible for onset of neuronal migration via connection to radial glial guide cells, mutations in this result in periventricular heterotopia (PH), in which neurons can't leave the ventricular zone
FilaminA (FLNA)
[Lecture: Embryo II]
298
Filamin A (FLNA) is the gene responsible neuronal connections to radial glial guide cells and thus onset of neuronal migration; mutations in this result in ___, in which neurons can't leave the ventricular zone
periventricular heterotopia (PH)
Condition is X-linked dominant
[Lecture: Embryo II]
299
In type I lissencephaly (LIS1 gene) and double cortex syndrome (DCX gene), there is an issue with the ___ process of neurogenesis
migration
Both are microtubule genes
[Lecture: Embryo II]
300
In both ___ and ___, there is an issue with the migration process of neurogenesis
type I lissencephaly (LIS1 gene, Chr17); double cortex syndrome (DCX gene, XChr)
[Lecture: Embryo II]
301
The extracellular protein reelin from Cajal-Retzius cells is responsible for the step of ___ in neurogenesis
stopping migration
[Lecture: Embryo II]
302
Defects in the reelin gene in Cajal-Retzius cells, responsible for stopping migration in neurogenesis, results in ___
inversion of the normal inside-out pattern
[Lecture: Embryo II]
303
Neurons born at ___ end up together in the same layer and follow similar programs of differentiation
the same time
[Lecture: Embryo II]
304
___ migration, as opposed to tangential migration, accounts for the majority of migration trajectories in the cerebral cortex
Radial
Tangential migration accounts for inhibitory GABA-containing neurons
[Lecture: Embryo II]
305
___ migration accounts for a minority of migration trajectories in the cerebral cortex, which sets up inhibitory GABA-containing neurons
tangentially
Glutamate-containing neurons (pyrimidal cells) use radial glia (radial migration) to get to their position in the cortex
[Lecture: Embryo II]
306
The three types of migration in neurogenesis are radial, tangential, and ___
chain (the rostral migratory system)
[Lecture: Embryo II]
307
___ cells migrate quickly without cellular guides like radial glia to form the PNS, melanocytes, cartilage, sensory ganglia and other tissue based on their cellular location on the neural tube
Neural crest
[Lecture: Embryo II]
308
Neural crest cells migrate either ___ly (direction) or ___ly
ventrally or dorsally
[Lecture: Embryo II]
309
The ___ stream of neural crest cells give rise to pigment cells, the ___ stream gives rise to everything else it forms including neurons
dorsal; ventral
[Lecture: Embryo II]
310
___ is an important step in normal neural development and shapes pattern formation, brain morphogenesis, removal of unnecessary neurons, and matching neuronal populations in target fields
Cell death, both apoptosis and necrosis
[Lecture: Embryo II]
311
The ___ hypothesis states that post-synaptic organs provide limiting amounts of nutrient/trophic factors that are taken up by input nerve terminals
neurotrophic
[Lecture: Embryo II]
312
The neurotrophic hypothesis states that ___ organs provide limiting amounts of nutrient/trophic factors that are taken up by input nerve terminals
post-synaptic
[Lecture: Embryo II]
313
Neurotrophins interact with ___ membrane receptors, such as TrkA, TrkB, and TrkC to recruit intracellular signaling molecules to promote cell survival
tropomyosin-related kinase
[Lecture: Embryo II]
314
___ interact with tropomysin-related kinase membrane receptors, such as TrkA, TrkB, and TrkC to recruit intracellular signaling molecules to promote cell survival (by inhibiting apoptosis)
Neurotrophins
[Lecture: Embryo II]
315
Neurotrophic factors inhibit ___ pathways
apoptotic
[Lecture: Embryo II]
316
In addition to promoting neuron survival, ___, key signaling molecules, also induce programs of differentiation to permit process (read: axon) formation
neurotrophins
[Lecture: Embryo II]
317
Oligophrenin-1 is a protein that modulates the activity of an enzyme that regulates the ___, disruption of it leads to incomplete axon outgrowth and mental retardation
cytoskeleton
[Lecture: Embryo II]
318
Growth cone guidance molecules can be long-range in which they are ___, or short-range in which they are ___, and can be either attractive or repulsive
diffusible; contact-dependent
[Lecture: Embryo II]
319
Growth cone guidance molecules that act locally are ___, and can be either attractive or repulsive
contact-dependent
[Lecture: Embryo II]
320
Growth cone guidance molecules that act at long ranges are ___, and can be either attractive or repulsive
diffusible
[Lecture: Embryo II]
321
Three factors affecting CNS axonal regeneration include ___, and the presence of molecules that ___ and ___ growth
the ability of axons to grow; must have molecules that BOTH promote (NGF, FGF) and inhibit (Nogo) growth
[Lecture: Embryo II]
322
In ___, there is demyelination of CNS axons, with periods of remission with either some remyelination or addition of sodium channels to compensate for myelin loss
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
[Lecture: Embryo II]
323
Most synapses are formed relatively early in life in excess, and are reduced via ___
selective synapse inhibition
[Lecture: Embryo II]
324
During embryonic and early postnatal life, each muscle fiber is innervated by ___ motor neuron(s) and will ___ (increase/reduce) after birth
several (multiple/polyneural innervation)
[Lecture: Embryo II]
325
Selective synapse elimination involves correlated synapse firing and release of ___ or similar substance
neurotrophin
[Lecture: Embryo II]
326
T/F: the nervous system is mostly developed and most neural connections are made by birth
F, much of it occurs after birth
[Lecture: Embryo II]
327
Myelination begins during embryonic stages and is first present in the ___
periphery, it moves towards the spinal cord and continues after birth
[Lecture: Embryo II]
328
GABA in the embryonic CNS serves a ___ role because of the higher intracellular levels of chloride as compared to the adult cell
excitatory/depolarizing. In the adult it is inhibitory.
[Lecture: Embryo II]
329
GABA in the embryonic CNS serves an excitatory/depolarizing role because of the higher intracellular levels of ___ as compared to the adult cell
chloride
[Lecture: Embryo II]
330
The subventricular zone gives rise to the ___
olfactory bulb
[Lecture: Embryo II]
331
The external granule layer gives rise to the ___ in the cerebellum postnatally
the granule neurons
[Lecture: Embryo II]
332
The dentate gyrus is part of the ___, which is involved in learning
hippocampus
[Lecture: Embryo II]
333
The microglia originate from the ___ layer of the trilaminar germ disk
mesoderm
[Lecture: Embryo II]
334
Two fetal proteins measured as surrogates for neural tube defects include ___ and ___
acetylcholinesterase and alpha-fetoprotein
[Lecture: Embryo II]
335
The ___ layer of the trilaminar germ disk is responsible for development of all non-essential organs such as gut epithelium, pancreas, liver, lungs, etc
endoderm
[General Embryology]
336
The ___ layer of the trilaminar germ disk is responsible for development of connective tissue such as muscle and bone
mesoderm
[General Embryology]
337
In the CNS, myelin is made by ___ while in the PNS, myelin is made by ___
oligodendrocytes, many axons per 1; Schwann cells, 1 axon per 1 at a time
[General Embryology]
338
Guillian-Barre syndrome results from autoimmune destruction of ___ after infection (CMV particularly)
Schwann cells
[General Embryology]
339
The ___ serves as the permeability membrane of the peripheral nerves due to its high amount of tight junctions and basement membrane
perineurium
[General Neuro]
340
When neurons divide ___ to the ventricular zone, this is symmetrical division and the cells remain in the cell cycle; when they divide ___ to the ventricular zone, this is asymmetrical division and the daughter cell differentiates
perpendicular; parallel
[Lecture: Embryo II]
341
The first cells to exit mitosis migrate a few cell bodies distance away and accumulate at the ___
preplate
[Lecture: Embryo II]
342
The ___ is located between the preplate and ventricular zone and are short-lived "pioneering" neurons that establish neuronal circuitry
subplate
[Lecture: Embryo II]
343
The subplate is located between the preplate and ventricular zone and are short-lived "___" neurons that establish neuronal circuitry
pioneering
[Lecture: Embryo II]
344
The cerebral cortex develops in an "___" fashion, with the oldest neurons closest to the ventricular surface and the later born ones closer to the outer pial surface
inside-out
[Lecture: Embryo II]
345
___ migration is when neurons arise from a ventricular zone immediately deep to where they reside; ___ migration is when neurons arise from a distant, different ventricular zone
Radial; tangential
[Lecture: Embryo II]
346
Reelin is produced by ___-___ cells
Cajal-Retzius
[Lecture: Embryo II]
347
Neurons express FLNA as well as the proteins ___ and ___, in order to stay connected to radial glial guide cells
LISI; DCX
[Lecture: Embryo II]
348
An ___ is a behaviorally defined developmental disorder, distinguished by a constellation of characteristics that reflect a common clinical picture and vary by age, developmental level, gender, and other variables we are still discovering.
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
349
Characteristics of ASDs include QUALITATIVE impairments in ___
reciprocal social communication - manifests as repetitive behaviors and restricted interest
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
350
ASDs affect 1 in ___ people, most commonly males
110
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
351
Associated conditions in ___ include:
```
Anxiety/Depression
Attentional problems
Language-based learning disabilities
Motor planning difficulties
Impulsivity
Sleep problems
GI symptoms
“picky” eating/self-restricted diet
```
ASDs
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
352
T/F: Autism spectrum disorders have some known genetic influence including epigenetic factors such as parental age, neonatal complications, fertility treatments, environmental exposures
True
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
353
Children with siblings with ASDs, other medical/genetic conditions are at ___ risk for ASDs
higher
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
354
In children under 3, red flags of ASDs include lack of numerous things, including: (5 total)
Lack of appropriate gaze
Lack of warm, joyful expressions with directed gaze
Lack of sharing interest or enjoyment
Lack of response to name when called
Lack of coordination of gaze, facial expression, gestures and sounds
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
355
In school-age children, red flags of ASDs include: (6 things)
Poor social reciprocity
Impaired social-emotional understanding
Difficulty modulating and integrating nonverbal behaviors
If verbal, language is often disordered (overly literal, tangential or associative, difficulty organizing thoughts in a way listener easily understands)
Restricted/repetitive play
Insistence on sameness
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
356
T/F: Symptoms of ASDs are the same across all age groups
False, differs between kids under 3, school age children, and adults
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
357
The CDC launched a campaign for ASDs called ___, ___
Learn the Signs, Act Early
[Lecture: Autism Spectrum Disorders]
358
Sympathetic chain ganglia arise from the spinal level of T1-L2 via the ___ and emerge via the ___
lateral horn; ventral root
[Lecture: PNS Anatomy and Physiology]
359
Acetylcholine opens ___ channels in heart cells via the beta-gamma subunit activity of its muscarinic metabotropic GPCR to lower heart rate
potassium
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission - Appendix]
360
Odorants open ___ channels in olfactory neurons via the beta-gamma subunit activating adenylyl cyclase to make cAMP
NSC
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission - Appendix]
361
Norepi facilitates the opening of ___ channels in heart muscle and neurons via adenylyl cyclase to make cAMP to activation PKA to phosphorylate those channels
calcium
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission - Appendix]
362
Abnormal development is characterized on the basis of an individual being unable to achieve developmental ___ for their age group
milestones
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
363
Delayed development is classified as being ___s below the mean with regards to developmental milestones
2 standard deviations
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
364
Developmental quotient = ___/___
developmental age/chronological age
>85 give reassurance
70-85 close monitoring
365
Five domains of development as scored by an ages and stages questionnaire
gross motor, fine motor, language, cognitive, social
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
366
Though cannot measure IQ reliable before age 5, IQ of 70-50 is ___ intellectual disability, 50-35 is ___, 35-20 is ___,
mild, moderate, severe, profound
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
367
Cerebral palsy is characterized by ___, and is acquired and non-progressive, split into spastic, athetoid/dyskinetic, and ataxic or can be a mix
motor impairment
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
368
Autism is characterized by delays in at least one of the following:
social interaction, language, symbolic/imaginative play
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
369
Development delay is an umbrella term that includes ___ disability - all children with ___ disability have developmental delays, but not vice versa.
intellectual
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
370
Acquired development disorders could be due to perinatal stroke or TORCH which stands for
(T)oxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex, (E)pileptic encephalopathy
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
371
An imprinting issue in which the fathers chromosome 15 is missing/silent would result in ___ syndrome, which presents with wide mouth, prominent chin, microcephaly, hand flapping, ataxia, frequent smiling
Angelman
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
372
An expansion in the trinucleotide CGG repeat in FMR1 gene would cause ___ syndrome, presenting with long jaw, high forehead, large ears, hyperextensible joints, big testes
Fragile X
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
373
An imprinting issue in which the mothers chromosome 15 is missing/silent would result in ___ syndrome, which presents with overeating, short stature
Prader-Willi
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
374
A defect in the X-linked MECP2 gene results in ___ syndrome, presenting with microcephaly, ataxia, stereotypical hand movements and other autistic features
Rett
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
375
___ is an example of an environmental neurotoxin that is linked to 10% of developmental delays
Lead
[Lecture: Assessments of Disorders of Development]
376
Craniorachischisis totalis, the most complete form of craniorachischisis, presents ___ and ___ together and is lethal.
anencephaly; total spina bifida
[Lecture: Congenital Pathology]
377
___ describes an injury to neuron usually at level of the axon, with subsequent death of neuron or regrowth of axon, and the nucleus usually migrates to the periphery
Chromatolysis
Others include:
• Total necrosis, with loss of neuron and removal (ie
ischemic neuron)
• Acquisition of viral particles within nucleus or cytoplasm
(viral infections)
• Acquisition of abnormal material within cytoplasm
(neurodegenerative processes, storage disorders)
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
378
Neurons can react to injury via 4 ways:
chromatolysis, total necrosis, acquire viral particles, or acquire abnormal material in cytoplasm
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
379
Ischemic/axonic neurons (via chromatolysis) results in a shrunken nucleus and loss of Nissl substance, resulting in ___
eosinophilia (stains red-dead). Nissl substance is basophilic ( stains blue)
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
380
Transection of an axon results in necrosis of axon distal to the transection, known as ___
Wallerian degeneration/anterograde/orthograde
think about it - wants to keep everything near the cell body healthy and sexy
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
381
Transection of an axon results in necrosis of axon ___ to the transection, known as Wallerian/anterograde/orthograde degeneration
distal
think about it - wants to keep everything near the cell body healthy and sexy
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
382
In Alzheimer's disease axons disconnect and clump around ___ material in the brain parenchyma
beta-amyloid
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
383
An astrocyte's full cytoplasmic volume
| best highlighted on ___ immunostaining
GFAP (Glial fibrillary acidic protein)
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
384
Astrocytes react to tissue injury by ___ of cytoplasmic volume and ___ of intracytoplasmic intermediate glial filaments (GFAP+)
However, they cannot fill in large areas of tissue damage!
expansion; synthesis
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
385
___ cells, with ciliation, line ventricular spaces
Ependymal
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
386
___ is the process in which a dying neuron is surrounded by microglial cells, it can occur in a variety of degenerative diseases, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, and inflammatory conditions, such as encephalitis.
Neuronophagia
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
387
Microglia are replenished by ___ from the blood
monocytes
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
388
Myofilaments -> Myofibril -> ___ -> Fasciculus
muscle fiber
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
389
Type I red muscle fibers have more ___ enzymes and mitochondria while type II white muscle fibers have more glycolytic enzymes
oxidative
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
390
Myopathy vs Denervation
location of weakness and atrophy
CK levels
```
Myopathy
• Proximal weakness
and atrophy
• Elevated CK
• EMG changes
```
```
Denervation
• Distal weakness and
atrophy
• Normal CK
• Different EMG
changes
```
[Lecture: Introduction to Neuropathology]
391
Neostigmine works by blocking ___ at ___ and is thus a treatment for ____
AChe; NMJ; It is thus a treatment for myasthenia gravis and myasthenic syndrome
[Lecture: Synaptic Transmission II]
