test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

when are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

A

flight into class A airspace

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2
Q

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

A

set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92 inches HG upon reaching 18000 feet

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3
Q

What is a characteristic of stable air?

A

fair weather cumulus clouds.

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4
Q

When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the Omni-bearing selector and the OBS indicator should read

A

within 6 degrees of the selected radial

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5
Q

Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a commercial pilot certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?

A

that person is limited to private pilot privileges at night

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6
Q

what minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on top clearance?

A

minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

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7
Q

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?

A

attitude indicator

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8
Q

which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

A

DP’s, STARS, and visual approaches

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9
Q

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

A

when operating in a Class A airspace

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10
Q

during the life cycle of a thunderstorm which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A

dissipating

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11
Q

Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?

A

NTSB part 830

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12
Q

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create illusion of

A

tumbling backwards

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13
Q

what timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

A

timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

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14
Q

If Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should

A

use a navigation system other than GPS for the approach

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15
Q

Which of the following conditions is required before “timed approaches from a holding fix” may be conducted?

A

if more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal

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16
Q

An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?

A

gyroscopic direction indicator

17
Q

to operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

A

entering controlled airspace

18
Q

What is the correct sequence in which to use the 3 skills used in instrument flying?

A

cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

19
Q

If a standard- rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090 degrees to a heading of 270 degrees

A

1 minute

20
Q

the most hazardous aspect of structural icing is

A

its aerodynamics effects

21
Q

during a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will

A

increase as the ground speed increases

22
Q

In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?

A

freezing rain

23
Q

what are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight planned ETA? fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

A

fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

24
Q

which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A

smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds

25
Q

en route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57 inches hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and altimeter is functioning properly, what is approximate indication upon landing?

A

sea level

26
Q

the middle and far bars of a 3 bar VASI will

A

constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

27
Q

What is the definition of MEA?

A

the lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage

28
Q

the local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for

A

better vertical separation of aircraft

29
Q

for IFR operations off of established airways below 18000 feet, VOR navigational aids used to describe the route of flight should be no more than

A

80NM apart

30
Q

When flying a 3 degree slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

A

airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above the glide slope.

31
Q

approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude?

A

10 percent

32
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern hemisphere?

A

the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

33
Q

the primary cause of all changes in the earth’s weather is

A

variation of solar energy received by earth’s regions.

34
Q

if an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the aircraft reaches the MDA, the pilot should

A

level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

35
Q

an airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as a alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling visibility at the ETA will

A

allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR conditions.

36
Q

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR of top in a nonradar environment

A

the same reports that are required for any IFR flight.

37
Q

Which true regarding the use of a instrument departure procedure chart?

A

to use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure