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PATHOLOGY TEST 1 > TEST 1 > Flashcards

TEST 1 Flashcards

1
Q

cleft lip is caused by failure of what to fuse?

A

medial nasal + maxillary process

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2
Q

Primary palate is formed by merging of ____

A

medial nasal processes

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3
Q

Secondary palate is formed by merging of ___

A

maxillary processes of the 1st arch

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4
Q

treatment for cleft lip includes:

A

10 weeks, 10 lbs or 10gm%HG

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5
Q

Cleft lip is most prevalent in:

A

Native americans 1 in 250
Chinese
Caucasians
African americans 1 in 1500

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6
Q

what forms cleft palate?

A

failure of palatal shelves to fuse

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7
Q

Cleft palate only is more common in ___

A

females

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8
Q

Peirre Robin Sequence

A
  1. glossoptosis
  2. mandibular micrognathia
  3. cleft palate
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9
Q

Van Der Woude Syndrome

A
  1. paramedian lip pit
  2. CL and or CP
  3. autosomal dominant
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10
Q

Ascher Syndrome

A
  1. Double lip
  2. blepharochalisis
  3. nontoxic thyroid enlargement
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11
Q

Mandibular dysostosis (treacher collins)

A
  1. coloboma
  2. hypoplastic zygoma
  3. underdeveloped mandible
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12
Q

Apert Syndrome

A
  1. hypertelorism
  2. occular proptosis
  3. lateral palpebral fissures downward slant
  4. syndactyly of hands and feet
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13
Q

What is white and doesn’t wipe off but goes away when lip is stretched

A

Leukoedema

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14
Q

Define fordyce granule

A

ectopic sebaceous gland

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15
Q

what is the most common syndromic clefting?

A

Paramedian lip pit

- congenital
- van der woude syndrome
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16
Q

Name 2 common causes of macroglossia

A
  1. vascular malformation

2. Muscular hypertrophy

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17
Q

what is the minimum manifestation of cleft palate?

A

bifid uvula

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18
Q

Geographic tongue is also known as

A

benign migratory glossitis

it is not developmental

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19
Q

what is geographic tongue called when not on the tongue?

A

Erythema migrans

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20
Q

Coronoid hyperplasia deviates ___

A

toward the affected side only upon opening

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21
Q

Condylar hyperplasia deviates ____

A

opposite of affected side and shows when mouth is closed

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22
Q

Stafne defect is also known as

A

lingual mandibular salivary gland depression

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23
Q

Define cyst

A

pathologic cavity lined by epithelium

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24
Q

what is a palatal cyst of a newborn on the median raphe called?

A

epstein pearl

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25
Q

what is the most common globulomaxillary radiolucency?

A

periapical cyst

located max. lateral incisor and canine

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26
Q

what is the second most common globulomaxillary radiolucency?

A

apical granuloma

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27
Q

what is the most common non-odontogenic cyst?

A

nasopalatine duct cyst

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28
Q

if a cyst is 6mm or greater, in the maxilla around vital incisors with no root resorption it is probably _____

A

nasopalatine duct cyst

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29
Q

what is the nasopalatine duct cyst’s soft tissue counterpart?

A

cyst of incisive papilla

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30
Q

if a cyst contains epithelium and adnexal structures in the wall it is probably a

A

dermoid ctst

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31
Q

waldeyers ring
yellow mass
located in the lingual tonsil area

A

lymphoepithelial cyst

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32
Q

this cyst presents as a bulge on the outside of the throat

A

cervical lymphoepithelial cyst

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33
Q

Progressive Hemifacial atrophy affects _____side of face and is caused by____infection

A

one, Boriella spp.

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34
Q

what two oral presentations are associated with Congenital syphilis

A

hutchinsons incisors and mulberry molars

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35
Q

Tooth on tooth contact is called____and often caused by______

A

attrition, bruxism

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36
Q

pathologic wearing away of tooth structure is called ____ and often caused by___

A

abrasion, agressive brushing

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37
Q

nonbacterial chemical process leading to loss of tooth structure

A

erosion

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38
Q

repeated tooth flexure leading to occlusal stresses

A

abfraction

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39
Q

Attrition + abrasion is called

A

demastication (ex. chewing tobacco)

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40
Q

when a bon notch on hard palate margin is present and affects musculature of the soft palate you get a ____

A

submucous palatal defect

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41
Q

lack of 1+ teeth, most common in maxillary 3rd molars>lat incisors>2nd premolars

A

hypodontia

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42
Q

lack of 6+ teeth

A

oligodontia

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43
Q

supernumerary teeth is known as____, the most common being____

A

hyperdontia, mesiodens(maxillary incisors)

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44
Q

when you have joined teeth and the count is normal

A

gemination

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45
Q

when you have joined teeth and the count is missing 1 tooth

A

fusion, joined by cementum and dentin

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46
Q

when two teeth are joined by cementum alone

A

concresence

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47
Q

if you have a large bump on posterior tongue around foramen cecum area it is known as

A

lingual thyroid

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48
Q

when a tooth doesn’t reach the occlusal plane because it fused to bone

A

ankylosis

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49
Q

Dens evaginatus is most common in___ and associated with ____

A

premolars , shovel shaped incisors

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50
Q

Dens invaginatus is most common in ___

A

lateral incisor>centrals>premolars>canine>molar

caused by deep surface invagination of crown or root lined by enamel

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51
Q

if you see an enlarged pulp chamber and apically displaced plural floor it is probably

A

taurodontism

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52
Q

Someone with kinky hair, taurodontism and osteosclerosis has

A

Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome

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53
Q

Turners sndrome is caused by____and usually in which teeth?

A

enamel defects in permanent teeth due to periapical inflammation of baby tooth, usually in perm. premolars (infected baby molars)

54
Q

obliterated pulp
blue hue
bulbous crowns
heridetary

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

55
Q

Inadequate deposition of enamel matrix with pinpoint pits across tooth

A

Hypoplastic amelogeneis imperfecta

56
Q

defect in the maturation of enamel crystal structure, enamel is soft and chips away, snowcapped apperance

A

hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta

57
Q

no mineralization of enamel occurs, enamel starts as yellow/brown and turns brown/black

A

hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta

58
Q

dentinogenesis imperfecta is caused by what gene mutation?

A

DSPP =Dentin sialophosphoprotein

59
Q

Dentinogenesis imperfecta affecting bone too is called ___ and caused by a mutation of what gene

A

osteogenesis imperfect with opalescent teeth , COL1A1 or COL1A2

60
Q

dentin dysplasia type I is characterized by:

A

very short roots or rootless teeth , stream flowing around boulders

61
Q

dentin dysplasia type II is characterized by

A

thistle tube shaped chamber with thin tapering canal (corndog) and blue hue

62
Q

When presented with ghost teeth on radiograph, nonhereditary and localized its called

A

regional odontodysplasia

63
Q

3 sequelae of periapical pathology

A
  1. sinus tract
  2. osteomyelitis
  3. cellulitis
64
Q

histo slide with only neutrophils (red/pink), triobed

A

periapical abscess

65
Q

histo slide with lumen but all granulation tissue

A

periapical granuloma

66
Q

histo slide with distinct lumen

A

periapical cyst

67
Q

pericornitis is___and most common around

A

inflammation around crown of erupting tooth

mandibular 3rd molars

68
Q

if gums are red all over and patient eats a lot of cinnamon gum

A

plasma cell gingivitis

69
Q

kid has one area where gingiva is red and growing down onto the tooth

A

localized juvenille spongiotic gingival hyperplasia

70
Q

osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of bone marrow or bone

71
Q

trauma to soft tissues caused by neonatal teeth is known as

A

Riga-fede

72
Q

what are 3 syndromes associated with taurodontism?

A

amelogenesis imperfecta
kelinfelters syndrome
tricho-dento-osseous syndrome

73
Q

does amelogenesis imperfecta have systemic involvement?

A

no

74
Q

does amelogenesis imperfect affect primary teeth, permenant teeth or both?

A

both

75
Q

dentinogenesis imperfecta shows what two things radiographically?

A

bulbous crowns

thin roots

76
Q

differential for radiolucency at root tip

A
  1. periapical granuloma
  2. periapical abscess
  3. periapical cyst
  4. periapical scar
77
Q

most common radiolucency at root tip of nonvital teeth

A

periapical granuloma

78
Q

if you have gingival epithelium that spontaneously sloughs off or can be moved with minor manipulation

A

desquamative gingivitis

79
Q

what are 5 differentials for desquamative gingivitis?

A
  1. lichen Planus
  2. mucous membrane pemphagoid
  3. pemphigus vulgaris
  4. systemic lupus
  5. hypersensitivity
80
Q

drug related gingival hyperplasia is often caused by which 3 medications?

A
  1. cyclosporin(transplant)
  2. dilantin/phenytoin (Seziure)
  3. Nifedipine(BP)
81
Q

Ludwigs angina

A

submandibular, submental and sublingual swelling
Bull neck
woody tongue (swelling and elevation)

82
Q

Papillon-Lefevre syndrome

A
  1. accelerated periodontitis
  2. autosomal recessive
  3. palmar plantar keratosis
83
Q

does ludwigs angina present with pus?

A

No

84
Q

what are 2 types of cellulitus?

A

ludwigs angina

cavernous sinus thrombosis

85
Q

cavernous sinus thrombosis usually starts from infection of which tooth?

A

maxillary canine

86
Q

what are sequelae of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A 
protrusion of eye
excessive tearing
loss of sight
meningitis
brain abscess
87
Q

how is cavernous sinus thrombosis treated?

A

surgical drainage and antibiotics

88
Q

necrotic bone surrounded by new vital bone is called____ and usually seen with ___ osteomyelitis

A

involcrum, acute

89
Q

which type of osteomyelitis shows no x-ray changes?

A

acute

90
Q

accumulation of inflammatory cells at apex of a nonvital tooth

A

periapical abscess

91
Q

characterized by honey crusted lesions, this epidermal infection is called

A

impetigo

92
Q

what 2 bacteria cause impetigo

A

staph aureus

strep pyogenes

93
Q

most common form of impetigo

A

nonbullous

94
Q

scarlet fever is a sequelae of what?

A

tonsillitis and pharyngitis

95
Q

is scarlet fever bacterial or viral?

A

bacterial

96
Q

pasties lines are associated with what disease?

A

scarlet fever

rash in folds of the body

97
Q

white strawberry tongue then red strawberry tongue along with skin erythema then desquamation are found with what

A

scarlet fever

98
Q

what organism causes diphtheria?

A

cornebacterium diptheriae

99
Q

what is the most commonly reported infectious disease?

A

gonorrhea

100
Q

what organism causes gonorrhea?

A

nisseria gonorrhea

101
Q

what organism causes syphilis?

A

treponema pallidum

102
Q

primary syphilis is characterized by:

A

chancres

103
Q

secondary/ disseminated syphilis characterized by:

A

rash

104
Q

tertiary/latent syphilis:

A

heart complications

gumma-necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of tongue or palate

105
Q

what organism causes actinomycosis?

A

actinomyces israelii

106
Q

what organism causes cat scratch disease?

A

bartonella henselae

107
Q

what is the most common oral fungal infection in humans?

A

candadiasis

108
Q

what organism causes candadiasis?

A

candida ablicans

109
Q

T/F the majority of angular chelitis occurs as a fungus alone?

A

False its fungal and bacterial

110
Q

most common systemic fungal infection

A

histoplasmosis

111
Q

second most common fungal infection

A

aspergillosis

112
Q

spores inhaled after rain and resembling pneumonia at onset then TB are signs of

A

blastomycosis

blastomyces dermatitids

113
Q

congenital syphilis includes hutchinson triad made up of 3 factors:

A
  1. hutchinsons incisors
  2. keratitis
  3. 8th nerve deafness
114
Q

TB is caused by ___ and spreads through____

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis, airborne droplets

115
Q

this mycobacterial infection is caused by drinking contaminated milk

A

scrofula (TB related)

116
Q

cat scratch disease begins in the ____ and spreads to the___

A

skin, lymph nodes

117
Q

what is the most common cause of regional lymphadenopathy in kids

A

cat scratch disease

118
Q

2 most common species causing aspergillosis

A
  1. a.fumigatus

2. a. flavus

119
Q

zygomycosis is aka

A

mucormycosis

120
Q

Coccidioidomycosis is aka____ and caused by ____

A

san joaquin valley fever, coccidioides immitis

121
Q

blastomycosis is dimorphic growing as ____in the body and ____ in the soil

A

yeast, mold

122
Q

this organism shows up like micky mouse or spokes of ships steering wheel,
harbored by 9 banded armadillo,
generally self limiting

A

paracoccidioides brasiliensis –>

Paracoccidioidomycosis

123
Q

growth inhanced by iron
rhino cerebral form
histo: broad flat hyphal organisms near blood vessels

A

zygomycosis

124
Q

flu like symptoms
red nodules on legs or face
histo “sac of marbles”

A

coccidiomycosis

125
Q

pigeon poop
grows in yeast in soil and tissue
histo:really big bag of marbles

A

cryptococcosis (cryptococcous neoformans)

126
Q

candidacies treatment

A

nystatin , amphoteracin B , clotrimazole

127
Q

this type of candidiasis is more common than pseudomembranous, with no major white component

A

erythematous candidiasis

128
Q

this type of candidiasis has white plaque that can’t be removed, is least common form

A

chronic hyperplastic

129
Q

this candidiasis is due to immunologic disorders, white plaques that don’t rub off

A

mucocutaneous candidiasis

130
Q

TB of the skin is called

A

lupus vulgaris

PATHOLOGY TEST 1 (1 decks)

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