Test 1 Flashcards by Lauren Haldeman

Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?
A - Teeth
B - Villi
C - Sinuses
D - Tonsils

A - Teeth

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Which of the following is the wound class for a bronchoscopy?
A - Clean
B - Contaminated
C - Dirty &amp; infected
D - Clean-contaminated

D - Clean-contaminated

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The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is:
A - Atropine sulfate
B - Alpha-chymotrypsin
C - Acetylcholine chloride
D - Pilocarpine hydrochloride

B - Alpha-chymotrypsin

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How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the OR?
A - Place stretcher sideways in elevator
B - Enter head first, exit feet first
C - Position in elevator is irrelevant
D - Enter feet first, exit head first

B - Enter head first, exit feet first

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Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?
A - Midline
B - Paramedian
C - McBurney's
D - Pfannestiel

D - Pfannestiel

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When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned:
A - Flat
B - Upside down
C - Vertical
D - Angled

A - Flat

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Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of: 
A - Calcium
B - Nitrogen
C - Potassium
D - Albumen

C - Potassium

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Which of the following tissues are cut using curved mayo scissors?
A - Fascia
B - Periosteum
C - Dura Mater
D - Arterial wall

A - Fascia

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Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
A - Argon
B - Excimer
C - Carbon dioxide
D - Neodymium: YAG

A - Argon

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Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an:
A - Tort
B - Malpractice
C - Personal liability
D - Informed consent

D - Informed consent

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Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
A - Cardia
B - Fundus
C - Pylorus
D - Antrum

A - Cardia

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Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:
A - Viruses
B - Bacteria
C - Fungi
D - Spores

D - Spores

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Syndactyly refers to:
A - Cleft palate
B - Webbed fingers
C - Fused tarsals
D - Torn ligaments

B - Webbed fingers

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The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the:
A - Stretcher
B - OR table
C - Back table
D - Mayo stand

C - Back table

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The islets of Langerhans secrete:
A - Bile
B - Insulin
C - Intrinsic factor
D - Inhibiting hormones

B - Inulin

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What type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth?
A - Cleft palate repair
B - Arch bar application
C - Extractions
D - Implants

C - Extractions

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Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?
A - Escheria coli
B - Staphyloccus aureus
C - Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D - Clostridium tetani

A - Escheria coli

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Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site?
A - Opposite side from surgeon
B - Same side as surgeon
C - Foot of OR table
D - Head of OR table

B - Same side as surgeon

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A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin:
A - Sterile
B - Disinfected
C - Surgically clean
D - Moistened and dehydrated

C - Surgically clean

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Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?
A - Ampulla of Vader
B - Duct of Santorini
C - Wirsung's duct
D - Sphincter of Oddi

A - Ampulla of Vader

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Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?
A - Name, soc #, physician
B - Name, medical record #, allergies
C - Name, DOB, diagnosis
D - Name, DOB, physician

D - Name, DOB, physician

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What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?
A - Cocci
B - Bacilli
C - Spirilli
D - Diplococci

C - Spirilli

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The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
A - Store bile
B - Produce file
C - Emulsify fats
D - Metabolize fats

A - Store bile

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Which of the following is a non-sterile member of the surgical team?
A - Surgeon
B - Circulator
C - Surgical assistant
D - Surgical technologist

B - Circulator

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``` Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the OR? A - Uses less space for opening B - Aid in controlling temperature C - Eliminate air turbulence D - Provides for thorough cleaning ```

B - Aid in controlling temperature

What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure? A - Type of procedure, equipment, radiation dose B - Exposure, frequency, concentration C - Time, shielding, distance D - Site, age, gender

C - Time, shielding, distance

``` Which is the first part of the small intestine? A - Duodenum B - Jejunum C - Ileum D - Cecum ```

A - Duodenum

``` What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery? A - Prone B - Lateral C - Supine D - Lithotomy ```

B - Lateral

``` How are rickettsiae transmitted? A - Arthropod bites B - Physical contact C - Blood exposure D - Airborne organisms ```

A - Arthropod bites

``` Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope? A - Colposcopy B - Laparoscopy C - Urethroscopy D - Hysteroscopy ```

A - Colposcopy

``` Compression of the heart from excessive fluid of blood build-up is called: A - Tamponade B - Pericarditis C - Infarction D - Cardiomyopathy ```

A - Tamponade

``` Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to PACU? A - Anesthesia provider B - Circulator C - Surgeon D - Surgical technologist ```

A - Anesthesia provider

``` Which suffix means 'surgical puncture to remove fluid'? A - dynia B - tomy C - lyis D - centesis ```

D - centesis

``` To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached? A - Ascending B - Descending C - Cecum D - Sigmoid ```

C - Cecum

``` Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification? A - Gram stain B - Manual count C - Prothrombin time D - Gel electrophoresis ```

A - Gram stain

``` Medication used to dilate the pupil is called: A - Miotics B - Myopics C - Mydriatics D - Muscarinics ```

C - Mydriatics

``` Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated? A - Laparotomy B - U-drape C - Transverse D - Craniotomy ```

B - U-drape

Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient's ID bracelet? A - During IV insertion B - Never until a patient is released from facility C - Post-op when taken to nursing unit D - When patient is awake and alert and can verbally identify self

B - Never until a patient is released from facility

``` What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement? A - Prone B - Sims C - Supine D - Kraske ```

C - Supine

``` Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy? A - Carbon dioxide B - Nd: YAG C - Excimer D - Argon ```

D - Argon

``` Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance if sterility? A - Clerical B - Mechanical C - Biological D - Chemical ```

C - Biological

``` The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the: A - Omentum B - Mesentary C - Ligamentum D - Peritoneum ```

A - Omentum

``` Which microbes live without oxygen? A - Aerobes B - Anaerobes C - Capnophiles D - Microaerophiles ```

B - Anaerobes

``` Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends? A - Epithelialization B - Fistula C - Herniation D - Sinus ```

B - Fistula

``` What is the action of antagonist drugs? A - Inhibit the clotting process B - Achieve neuroleptanesthesia C - Increase the effects of opiates D - Counteract the action of another drug ```

D - Counteract the action of another drug

``` Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity? A - Spiral B - Horizontal C - Longitudinal D - Circuimferential ```

D - Circuimferential

What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant? A - Bilateral ovaries only B - Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus C - Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube D - Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube, uterus

B - Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus

``` Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as "hunchback"? A - Lordosis B - Scolliosis C - Kyphosis D - Alkalosis ```

C - Kyphosis

``` What is the medical term for a bunion? A - Talipes vagus B - Hallux valgus C - Hallux varus D - Talipes varus ```

B - Hallux valgus

``` What incision is also known as a lower oblique? A - Inguinal B - Paramedian C - Infraumbilical D - Thoracoabdominal ```

A - Inguinal

``` The small intestine attached to the posterior abdominal wall by the? A - Mesentary B - Peritoneum C - Falciform ligament D - Lesser omenum ```

A - Mesentary

``` What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed? A - Commensalism B - Neutralism C - Mutualism D - Parasitism ```

A - Commensalism

``` A topical solution used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is: A - Depo-medrol B - Miochol C - Healon D - Wydase ```

A - Depo-medrol

How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate? A - Authorized individual signs patients name B - Patient marks with an "x" and witness verifies C - RN and surgeon sign that patient gave consent D - Surgeon and risk manager sign consent

B - Patient marks with an "x" and witness verifies

``` What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR? A - Feet first, side rails up B - Feet first, side rails down C - Head first, side rails up D - Head first, side rails down ```

A - Feet first, side rails up

``` Which of the following routine pre-op lab studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy? A - HCG B - HBV C - HIV D - HDL ```

A - HCG

Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile? A - Outside closure ties B - 2 inches below neckline to table C - Upper arms, neckline to axillary region D - Sleeves; 2 inches above elbows to cuffs

C - Upper arms, neckline to axillary region

``` What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved, tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures? A - Iglesias B - Coude C - Pigtail D - Bonanno ```

B - Coude

``` What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery? A - Supine B - Fowler's C - Reverse Trendelenberg D - Lateral kidney ```

C - Reverse Trendelenberg

``` A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is: A - Coarctation of the aorta B - Patent ductus arteriosus C - Tetralogy of Fallot D - Ventricular septal defect ```

B - Patent ductus arteriosus

``` Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens? A - Saline B - Formalin C - Ethyl alcohol D - Lugol's solution ```

B - Formalin

``` What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count? A - Notify surgeon B - X-ray C - Repeat count D - Complete incident report ```

A - Notify surgeon

``` The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands? A - Sublingual B - Thyroid C - Parotid D - Submandibular ```

C - Parotid

``` What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient? A - Incident report B - Operative record C - Deposition report D - Advance directive ```

A - Incident report

``` For which procedure would Trendelenberg position provide optimal visualization? A - Cholecyctectomy B - Hysterectomy C - Thyroidectomg D - Acromioplasty ```

B - Hysterectomy

``` Which of the following is a non-adherent dressing? A - Kling B - Adaptic C - Collodion D - Elastoplast ```

B - Adaptic

``` Which of the following is a fenestrated drape? A - Incise B - U-drape C - Aperture D - Half-sheet ```

C - Aperture

``` Which of the following terms best describes a hernia that occurs withing Hesselbach's triangle? A - Direct B - Indirect C - Femoral D - Hiatal ```

A - Direct

``` Which of the following incisions is oblique? A - Epigastric B - Kocher C - Paramedian D - Pfannestiel ```

B - Kocher

``` Which of the following dilators are used in the common bile duct? A - Pratt B - Van Buren C - Bakes D - Hegar ```

C - Bakes

``` Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis? A - Laser B - Ligature C - Thrombin D - Electrosurgery ```

B - Ligature

``` The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the: A - Pancreas B - Gallbladder C - Stomach D - Liver ```

A - Pancreas

``` A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait, and balance would likely be located in the: A - Diencephalon B - Cerebellum C - Medulla D - Pone ```

B - Cerebellum

``` What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another? A - Commensalism B - Neutralism C - Mutualism D - Parasitism ```

D - Parasitism

``` What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery? A - Acute B - Chronic C - Primary D - Asymptomatic ```

A - Acute

``` Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy? A - Lysosomes B - Mitochondria C - Golgi complex D - Endoplasmic reticulum ```

B - Mitochondria

``` What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and IV drugs? A - Spinal B - Sedation C - Regional D - Balanced ```

D - Balanced

``` Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent? A - Guardian B - Patient C - Surgeon D - Nurse ```

C - Surgeon

``` What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures? A - Supine B - Semi-Fowler's C - Trendelenberg D - Lithotomy ```

A - Supine

``` The outer later of the intestine is the: A - Mucosa B - Serosa C - Muscularis D - Submucosa ```

B - Serosa

``` Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft? A - Iodophor B - Avagard C - Chlorhexidine D - Merthiolate ```

C - Chlorhexidine

``` What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure? A - Transverse B - Extremity C - Aperture D - Perineal ```

A - Transverse

``` Where should the safety straps be placed on a patient is the supine position? A - Below the knees B - Across the waist C - Over the thighs D - Across the abdomen ```

C - Over the thighs

``` Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis? A - Hypospadias repair B - Epispadias repair C - Meatomy D - Ureteroneocystostomy ```

B - Epispadias repair

``` Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light? A - Laser B - Bipolar C - Harmonic D - Monopolar ```

A - Laser

``` What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage? A - Hypotension B - Hypertension C - Meningioma D - Meningitis ```

B - Hypertension

``` The larynx is located between the: A - Pharynx and trachea B - Nasal cavity and pharynx C - Trachea and bronchi D - Nasal and oral cavities ```

A - Pharynx and trachea

``` The most common cause for retinal detachment is: A - Aging B - Trauma C - Glaucoma D - Inflammation ```

B - Trauma

``` What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty? A - Compartment syndrome B - Upper extremity C - Urinary incontinence D - Pulmonary embolism ```

D - Pulmonary embolism

``` Which of the following is a type of passive drain? A - Penrose B - Hemovac C - Pleur-evac D - Jackson-Pratt ```

A - Penrose

``` The vocal cords are located in the: A - Pharynx B - Larynx C - Trachea D - Bronchus ```

B - Larynx

``` What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination? A - Artificial passive B - Artificial active C - Natural passive D - Natural active ```

B - Artificial active

``` When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure? A - Bier block B - Epidural injection C - Endotracheal intubation D - Endotracheal extubation ```

C - Endotracheal intubation

``` Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea? A - Trephine B - Wescott C - Oculotome D - Phacoemulsifier ```

A - Trephine

``` What is the required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapicitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher? A - 3 B - 4 C - 5 D - 6 ```

B - 4

``` Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious? A - Body Substance Isolation Rules B - Medical Device Safety Act C - Postexposure Prophylaxis D - Standard Precautions ```

D - Standard Precautions

``` Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and pre-school age patients being transported to the OR? A - Room temp change B - Lack of communication C - Fear of anesthesia D - Separation anxiety ```

D - Separation anxiety

``` Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions? A - Esophagus B - Trachea C - Pharynx D - Glottis ```

C - Pharynx

``` Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure? A - Mouth B - Nose C - Ear D - Eye ```

C - Ear

``` An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called: A - Iatrogenic B - Liability C - Battery D - Tort ```

A - Iatrogenic

``` The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the: A - Sclera B - Iris C - Choroid D - Macula ```

C - Choroid

``` According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team's abilities? A - Physiological B - Belonging C - Esteem D - Safety ```

D - Safety

``` Which aneurysm develops between the renal and iliac arteries? A - Ascending thoracic B - Aortic arch C - Decending thoracic D - Abdominal aortic ```

D - Abdominal aortic

``` The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is: A - Heparin B - Thrombin C - Protamine Sulfate D - Ringer's lactate ```

A - Heparin

``` What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement? A - Vessel reanastomosis B - Nerve reanastomosis C - Bone-to-bone fixation D - Tendon-to-tendon fixation ```

C - Bone-to-bone fixation

``` What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis? A - Composite B - Split thickness C - Pedicle D - Full thickness ```

D - Full thickness

``` Which muscle type is striated and voluntary? A - Viceral B - Heart C - Skeletal D - Cardiac ```

C - Skeletal

``` Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear? A - Microtia B - Anophthalmia C - Cheiloschisis D - Ectrosyndactyly ```

A - Microtia

``` What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity? A - 30 mins B - 60 mins C - 90 mins D - 150 mins ```

C - 90 mins

``` Which organism causes gas gangrene? A - Clostridium perfringens B - Clostridium botulinum C - Staphylococcus aureus D - Staphylococcus epidermidis ```

A - Clostridium perfringens

Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures? A - Nipple to umbilicus B - Iliac crest to iliac crest C - Scapula to gluteus maximus D - Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

D - Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

``` Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window? A - Malleus B - Incus C - Stapes D - Utricle ```

C - Stapes

``` What is another name for the Kraske position? A - Dorsal recumbant B - Jackknife C - Trendelenberg D - Beach chair ```

B - Jackknife

``` What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection? A - Raytec B - Kittner C - Weck-cel D - Cottonoid ```

B - Kittner

``` Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty? A - Kilner hook B - Bowman probe C - Kerrison rongeur D - Cottingham punch ```

D - Cottingham punch

``` A partially dislocated joint is called: A - Subluxation B - Malrotation C - Avulsion D - Malunion ```

A - Subluxation

``` What condition is characterized by build-up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol? A - Embolism B - Thrombosis C - Arteriospasm D - Atherosclerosis ```

D - Atherosclerosis

``` Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in which of the following? A - Lukewarm saline B - Lukewarm water C - Cold saline D - Cold water ```

B - Lukewarm water

``` The avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the: A - Cornea B - Sclera C - Pupil D - Conjunctiva ```

A - Cornea

``` How often should surgical masks be changed? A - After lunch B - Twice-a-day C - After each case D - Every two hours ```

C - After each case

``` Which term described a rod-shaped microorganism? A - Coccus B - Bacillus C - Spirillum D - Helical ```

B - Bacillus

``` When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit? A - 55 B - 65 C - 75 D - 85 ```

D - 85

Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique? A - Cuffing the hands within the drape B - Sterile person reaching over sterile surface C - Re-positioning penetrating towel clip D - Sterile surgical members passing face to face

C - Re-positioning penetrating towel clip

``` Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of local anesthetic? A - Res ispa loquitor B - Respondeat superior C - Bona fide D - Assault ```

A - Res ispa loquitor

``` The space between the vocal cords is called the: A - Epiglottis B - Glottis C - Vocal Fold D - Cricoid cartilage ```

B - Glottis

``` Which bacteria could be found in a penetrating would caused be a rusty nail? A - Treponema pallidum B - Bacillis anthracis C - Clostridium tetani D - Helicobacter pylori ```

C - Clostridium tetani

``` Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots? A - Taylor B - Love C - Cushing D - Meyerding ```

B - Love

``` What is another name for the electrosurgical unit's patient return electrode? A - Cautery B - Generator C - Foot pedal D - Grounding pad ```

D - Grounding pad

``` What size of Foley catheter is commonly used for adults? A - 8 Fr B - 12 Fr C - 16 Fr D - 24 Fr ```

C - 16 Fr

``` Which of the following tumors is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures? A - Meningioma B - Astrocytoma C - Schwannoma D - Oligodendroglioma ```

A - Meningioma

``` The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the: A - Iris B - Cornea C - Sclera D - Choroid ```

C - Sclera

``` What is the term for thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion? A - Flagella B - Fimbrae C - Mesosomes D - Mitochondria ```

A - Flagella

``` What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis? A - Fowler's B - Reverse Trendelenberg C - Trendelenberg D - Kraske ```

C - Trendelenberg

``` How many hours must an item submerse in gluteraldehyde to sterilize? A - 7 B - 8 C - 9 D - 10 ```

D - 10

``` When a patient's blood pressure is 135/81, 135 refers to: A - Diastolic B - Stolic C - Pedal pulse D - Apical pressure ```

B - Stolic

``` A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: A - Mucos B - Sputum C - Cerumen D - Perilymph ```

C - Cerumen

``` Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear? A - Pinna B - Incus C - Labrynth D - Vestibule ```

B - Incus

``` What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet? A - Exsanguination B - Extravasation C - Eviceration D - Evacuation ```

A - Exsanguination

``` Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections? A - Sinus cavities B - Eustachian tube C - Nasolacrimal duct D - Tympanic membrane ```

C - Nasolacrimal duct

``` Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the back table? A - Surgical first assistant B - Surgical technologist C - Circulating nurse D - Surgeon ```

B - Surgical technologist

``` In what circumstances would cell-saver transfusion be contraindicated? A - Anemic patients B - Diabetic patients C - Cancer procedures D - Orthopedic procedures ```

C - Cancer procedures

``` Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated fir which of the following surgical procedures? A - Pancreatectomy B - Cholecystectomy C - Polypectomy D - Sigmoidectomy ```

D - Sigmoidectomy

``` Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures? A - Kidney pedicle B - Seminal vessicle C - Bladder neck D - Prostate gland ```

A - Kidney pedicle

``` The nasal cavity is divided into two sections by the: A - Ethmoid B - Septum C - Vomer D - Sphenoid ```

B - Septum

``` Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intentionally remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP? A - Randall forceps B - Wire snare C - Ellik evacuator D - Poole suction ```

C - Ellik evacuator

``` Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins? A - Subdural B - Epidural C - Intracerebral D - Intraventricular ```

A - Subdural

``` In addition to temperature, time, and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process? A - Concentration B - Aeration C - Weight D - Pressure ```

D - Pressure

``` The Bowie-Dick test is performed: A - Hourly B - Daily C - Weekly D - Monthly ```

B - Daily

``` The spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the: A - Cochlea B - Stapes C - Vestibule D - Labrynth ```

A - Cochlea

``` What is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas's cul-de-sac? A - Cystocele B - Rectocele C - Enterocele D - Omphalocele ```

C - Enterocele

``` Which of these conditions is characterized by a flashy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea? A - Chalazion B - Pterygium C - Strabismus D - Ecchymosis ```

B - Pterygium

``` Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids? A - Pelvic exeneration B - Cervical cerclage C - Colporrhaphy D - Myomectomy ```

D - Myomectomy

``` Where is a Baker's cyst located? A - Olecranon process B - Greater tubercle C - Popliteal fossa D - Carpal tunnel ```

C - Popliteal fossa

Which of the following is a method of high-level disinfection? A - Peracetic acid for 30 mins B - 2% gluteraldehyde for 20 mins C - Steam under pressure for 10 mins D - Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for 75 mins

B - 2% gluteraldehyde for 20 mins

``` Another name for the tympanic membrane is the: A - Ear tube B - Ear canal C - Earlobe D - Eardrum ```

D - Eardrum

``` What is the burn degree classification that involved the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue? A - First B - Second C - Third D - Fourth ```

C - Third

``` Which portion of the ear is affected by Meniere's syndrome? A - Inner B - Middle C - Eustachian tube D - Auditory ossicles ```

A - Inner

``` The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone? A - Hyoid B - Vomer C - Mandible D - Palatine ```

B - Vomer

``` The most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism: A - Bacillus stearothermophilus B - Clostridium tetani C - Bordetella pertussis D - Corynebacterium diptheria ```

A - Bacillus stearothermophilus

``` Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose? A - Subdural hematoma B - Creutzfeldt-Jakob C - Spinal stenosis D - Myelomeningocele ```

C - Spinal stenosis

``` Which of the following terms means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall? A - Rectocele B - Cystocele C - Enterocele D - Herniation ```

B - Cystocele

``` How many hours must the steam sterilizer biological indicator incubate? A - 6 B - 12 C - 18 D - 24 ```

D - 24

``` The nasal sinus located between the nose and orbits is the: A - Frontal B - Sphenoid C - Ethmoid D - Maxillary ```

C - Ethmoid

``` What is he definition of otosclerosis? A - Earache B - Tinnitus C - Tearing of tympanic membrane D - Bony overgrowth of stapes ```

D - Bony overgrowth of stapes

``` Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin? A - Comminuted B - Compound C - Simple D - Closed ```

B - Compound

``` For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated? A - Appendectomy B - Cholecystectomy C - Herniorrhaphy D - Gastrectomy ```

A - Appendectomy

``` What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated? A - 43-48 B - 49-54 C - 55-60 D - 61-66 ```

C - 55-60

``` What is the medical term for removal of the uterus? A - Salpingectomy B - Oophorectomy C - Myomectomy D - Hysterectomy ```

D - Hysterectomy

``` Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments? A - Ultrasonic washer B - Manual cleaning C - Washer-sterilizer D - Enzymatic soak ```

A - Ultrasonic washer

``` What is the medical term for nosebleed? A - Rhinitis B - Sinusitis C - Epitaxis D - Hemoptysis ```

C - Epitaxis

``` What is the proper way for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization? A - Lumen is dry B - Distilled water in lumen C - Stylet is left inside lumen D - Disinfectant solution in lumen ```

B - Distilled water in lumen

``` Which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention? A - Intussusception B - Pyloric stenosis C - Tetrology of Fallot D - Omphalocele ```

A - Intussusception

``` The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is: A - 249-255 B - 256-262 C - 263-269 D - 270-276 ```

D - 270-276

``` What is the name of the procedure for the extension of the tunica vaginallis? A - Spermatocelectomytomy B - Orchiectomy C - Hydrocelectomy D - Vasec ```

C - Hydrocelectomy

``` What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 degrees F? A - 5 B - 10 C - 15 D - 20 ```

B - 10