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CST > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?
A - Teeth
B - Villi
C - Sinuses
D - Tonsils
A

A - Teeth

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2
Q 
Which of the following is the wound class for a bronchoscopy?
A - Clean
B - Contaminated
C - Dirty & infected
D - Clean-contaminated
A

D - Clean-contaminated

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3
Q 
The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is:
A - Atropine sulfate
B - Alpha-chymotrypsin
C - Acetylcholine chloride
D - Pilocarpine hydrochloride
A

B - Alpha-chymotrypsin

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4
Q 
How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the OR?
A - Place stretcher sideways in elevator
B - Enter head first, exit feet first
C - Position in elevator is irrelevant
D - Enter feet first, exit head first
A

B - Enter head first, exit feet first

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5
Q 
Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?
A - Midline
B - Paramedian
C - McBurney's
D - Pfannestiel
A

D - Pfannestiel

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6
Q 
When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned:
A - Flat
B - Upside down
C - Vertical
D - Angled
A

A - Flat

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7
Q 
Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of: 
A - Calcium
B - Nitrogen
C - Potassium
D - Albumen
A

C - Potassium

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8
Q 
Which of the following tissues are cut using curved mayo scissors?
A - Fascia
B - Periosteum
C - Dura Mater
D - Arterial wall
A

A - Fascia

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9
Q 
Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
A - Argon
B - Excimer
C - Carbon dioxide
D - Neodymium: YAG
A

A - Argon

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10
Q 
Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an:
A - Tort
B - Malpractice
C - Personal liability
D - Informed consent
A

D - Informed consent

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11
Q 
Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
A - Cardia
B - Fundus
C - Pylorus
D - Antrum
A

A - Cardia

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12
Q 
Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:
A - Viruses
B - Bacteria
C - Fungi
D - Spores
A

D - Spores

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13
Q 
Syndactyly refers to:
A - Cleft palate
B - Webbed fingers
C - Fused tarsals
D - Torn ligaments
A

B - Webbed fingers

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14
Q 
The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the:
A - Stretcher
B - OR table
C - Back table
D - Mayo stand
A

C - Back table

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15
Q 
The islets of Langerhans secrete:
A - Bile
B - Insulin
C - Intrinsic factor
D - Inhibiting hormones
A

B - Inulin

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16
Q 
What type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth?
A - Cleft palate repair
B - Arch bar application
C - Extractions
D - Implants
A

C - Extractions

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17
Q 
Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?
A - Escheria coli
B - Staphyloccus aureus
C - Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D - Clostridium tetani
A

A - Escheria coli

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18
Q 
Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site?
A - Opposite side from surgeon
B - Same side as surgeon
C - Foot of OR table
D - Head of OR table
A

B - Same side as surgeon

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19
Q 
A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin:
A - Sterile
B - Disinfected
C - Surgically clean
D - Moistened and dehydrated
A

C - Surgically clean

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20
Q 
Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?
A - Ampulla of Vader
B - Duct of Santorini
C - Wirsung's duct
D - Sphincter of Oddi
A

A - Ampulla of Vader

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21
Q 
Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?
A - Name, soc #, physician
B - Name, medical record #, allergies
C - Name, DOB, diagnosis
D - Name, DOB, physician
A

D - Name, DOB, physician

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22
Q 
What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?
A - Cocci
B - Bacilli
C - Spirilli
D - Diplococci
A

C - Spirilli

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23
Q 
The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
A - Store bile
B - Produce file
C - Emulsify fats
D - Metabolize fats
A

A - Store bile

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24
Q 
Which of the following is a non-sterile member of the surgical team?
A - Surgeon
B - Circulator
C - Surgical assistant
D - Surgical technologist
A

B - Circulator

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25
Q 
Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the OR?
A - Uses less space for opening
B - Aid in controlling temperature
C - Eliminate air turbulence
D - Provides for thorough cleaning
A

B - Aid in controlling temperature

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26
Q

What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?
A - Type of procedure, equipment, radiation dose
B - Exposure, frequency, concentration
C - Time, shielding, distance
D - Site, age, gender

A

C - Time, shielding, distance

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27
Q 
Which is the first part of the small intestine?
A - Duodenum
B - Jejunum
C - Ileum
D - Cecum
A

A - Duodenum

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28
Q 
What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?
A - Prone
B - Lateral
C - Supine
D - Lithotomy
A

B - Lateral

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29
Q 
How are rickettsiae transmitted?
A - Arthropod bites
B - Physical contact
C - Blood exposure
D - Airborne organisms
A

A - Arthropod bites

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30
Q 
Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?
A - Colposcopy
B - Laparoscopy
C - Urethroscopy
D - Hysteroscopy
A

A - Colposcopy

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31
Q 
Compression of the heart from excessive fluid of blood build-up is called:
A - Tamponade
B - Pericarditis
C - Infarction
D - Cardiomyopathy
A

A - Tamponade

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32
Q 
Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to PACU?
A - Anesthesia provider
B - Circulator
C - Surgeon
D - Surgical technologist
A

A - Anesthesia provider

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33
Q 
Which suffix means 'surgical puncture to remove fluid'?
A - dynia
B - tomy
C - lyis
D - centesis
A

D - centesis

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34
Q 
To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?
A - Ascending
B - Descending
C - Cecum
D - Sigmoid
A

C - Cecum

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35
Q 
Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?
A - Gram stain
B - Manual count
C - Prothrombin time
D - Gel electrophoresis
A

A - Gram stain

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36
Q 
Medication used to dilate the pupil is called:
A - Miotics
B - Myopics
C - Mydriatics
D - Muscarinics
A

C - Mydriatics

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37
Q 
Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated?
A - Laparotomy
B - U-drape
C - Transverse
D - Craniotomy
A

B - U-drape

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38
Q

Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient’s ID bracelet?
A - During IV insertion
B - Never until a patient is released from facility
C - Post-op when taken to nursing unit
D - When patient is awake and alert and can verbally identify self

A

B - Never until a patient is released from facility

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39
Q 
What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?
A - Prone
B - Sims
C - Supine
D - Kraske
A

C - Supine

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40
Q 
Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
A - Carbon dioxide
B - Nd: YAG
C - Excimer
D - Argon
A

D - Argon

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41
Q 
Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance if sterility?
A - Clerical
B - Mechanical
C - Biological
D - Chemical
A

C - Biological

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42
Q 
The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the:
A - Omentum
B - Mesentary
C - Ligamentum
D - Peritoneum
A

A - Omentum

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43
Q 
Which microbes live without oxygen?
A - Aerobes
B - Anaerobes
C - Capnophiles
D - Microaerophiles
A

B - Anaerobes

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44
Q 
Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends?
A - Epithelialization
B - Fistula
C - Herniation
D - Sinus
A

B - Fistula

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45
Q 
What is the action of antagonist drugs?
A - Inhibit the clotting process
B - Achieve neuroleptanesthesia
C - Increase the effects of opiates
D - Counteract the action of another drug
A

D - Counteract the action of another drug

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46
Q 
Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?
A - Spiral
B - Horizontal
C - Longitudinal
D - Circuimferential
A

D - Circuimferential

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47
Q

What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?
A - Bilateral ovaries only
B - Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus
C - Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube
D - Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube, uterus

A

B - Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus

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48
Q 
Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as "hunchback"?
A - Lordosis
B - Scolliosis
C - Kyphosis
D - Alkalosis
A

C - Kyphosis

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49
Q 
What is the medical term for a bunion?
A - Talipes vagus
B - Hallux valgus
C - Hallux varus
D - Talipes varus
A

B - Hallux valgus

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50
Q 
What incision is also known as a lower oblique?
A - Inguinal
B - Paramedian
C - Infraumbilical
D - Thoracoabdominal
A

A - Inguinal

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51
Q 
The small intestine attached to the posterior abdominal wall by the?
A - Mesentary
B - Peritoneum
C - Falciform ligament
D - Lesser omenum
A

A - Mesentary

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52
Q 
What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?
A - Commensalism
B - Neutralism
C - Mutualism
D - Parasitism
A

A - Commensalism

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53
Q 
A topical solution used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is:
A - Depo-medrol
B - Miochol
C - Healon
D - Wydase
A

A - Depo-medrol

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54
Q

How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?
A - Authorized individual signs patients name
B - Patient marks with an “x” and witness verifies
C - RN and surgeon sign that patient gave consent
D - Surgeon and risk manager sign consent

A

B - Patient marks with an “x” and witness verifies

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55
Q 
What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR?
A - Feet first, side rails up
B - Feet first, side rails down
C - Head first, side rails up
D - Head first, side rails down
A

A - Feet first, side rails up

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56
Q 
Which of the following routine pre-op lab studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?
A - HCG
B - HBV
C - HIV
D - HDL
A

A - HCG

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57
Q

Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?
A - Outside closure ties
B - 2 inches below neckline to table
C - Upper arms, neckline to axillary region
D - Sleeves; 2 inches above elbows to cuffs

A

C - Upper arms, neckline to axillary region

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58
Q 
What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved, tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?
A - Iglesias
B - Coude
C - Pigtail
D - Bonanno
A

B - Coude

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59
Q 
What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?
A - Supine
B - Fowler's
C - Reverse Trendelenberg
D - Lateral kidney
A

C - Reverse Trendelenberg

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60
Q 
A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is:
A - Coarctation of the aorta
B - Patent ductus arteriosus
C - Tetralogy of Fallot
D - Ventricular septal defect
A

B - Patent ductus arteriosus

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61
Q 
Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?
A - Saline
B - Formalin
C - Ethyl alcohol
D - Lugol's solution
A

B - Formalin

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62
Q 
What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?
A - Notify surgeon
B - X-ray
C - Repeat count
D - Complete incident report
A

A - Notify surgeon

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63
Q 
The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?
A - Sublingual
B - Thyroid
C - Parotid
D - Submandibular
A

C - Parotid

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64
Q 
What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?
A - Incident report
B - Operative record
C - Deposition report
D - Advance directive
A

A - Incident report

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65
Q 
For which procedure would Trendelenberg position provide optimal visualization?
A - Cholecyctectomy
B - Hysterectomy
C - Thyroidectomg
D - Acromioplasty
A

B - Hysterectomy

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66
Q 
Which of the following is a non-adherent dressing?
A - Kling
B - Adaptic
C - Collodion
D - Elastoplast
A

B - Adaptic

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67
Q 
Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
A - Incise
B - U-drape
C - Aperture
D - Half-sheet
A

C - Aperture

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68
Q 
Which of the following terms best describes a hernia that occurs withing Hesselbach's triangle?
A - Direct
B - Indirect
C - Femoral
D - Hiatal
A

A - Direct

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69
Q 
Which of the following incisions is oblique?
A - Epigastric
B - Kocher
C - Paramedian
D - Pfannestiel
A

B - Kocher

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70
Q 
Which of the following dilators are used in the common bile duct?
A - Pratt
B - Van Buren
C - Bakes
D - Hegar
A

C - Bakes

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71
Q 
Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?
A - Laser
B - Ligature
C - Thrombin
D - Electrosurgery
A

B - Ligature

72
Q 
The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:
A - Pancreas
B - Gallbladder
C - Stomach
D - Liver
A

A - Pancreas

73
Q 
A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait, and balance would likely be located in the:
A - Diencephalon
B - Cerebellum
C - Medulla
D - Pone
A

B - Cerebellum

74
Q 
What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?
A - Commensalism
B - Neutralism
C - Mutualism
D - Parasitism
A

D - Parasitism

75
Q 
What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?
A - Acute
B - Chronic
C - Primary
D - Asymptomatic
A

A - Acute

76
Q 
Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?
A - Lysosomes
B - Mitochondria
C - Golgi complex
D - Endoplasmic reticulum
A

B - Mitochondria

77
Q 
What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and IV drugs?
A - Spinal
B - Sedation
C - Regional
D - Balanced
A

D - Balanced

78
Q 
Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?
A - Guardian
B - Patient
C - Surgeon
D - Nurse
A

C - Surgeon

79
Q 
What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?
A - Supine
B - Semi-Fowler's
C - Trendelenberg
D - Lithotomy
A

A - Supine

80
Q 
The outer later of the intestine is the:
A - Mucosa
B - Serosa
C - Muscularis
D - Submucosa
A

B - Serosa

81
Q 
Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?
A - Iodophor
B - Avagard
C - Chlorhexidine
D - Merthiolate
A

C - Chlorhexidine

82
Q 
What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?
A - Transverse
B - Extremity
C - Aperture
D - Perineal
A

A - Transverse

83
Q 
Where should the safety straps be placed on a patient is the supine position?
A - Below the knees
B - Across the waist
C - Over the thighs
D - Across the abdomen
A

C - Over the thighs

84
Q 
Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?
A - Hypospadias repair
B - Epispadias repair
C - Meatomy
D - Ureteroneocystostomy
A

B - Epispadias repair

85
Q 
Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?
A - Laser
B - Bipolar
C - Harmonic
D - Monopolar
A

A - Laser

86
Q 
What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?
A - Hypotension
B - Hypertension
C - Meningioma
D - Meningitis
A

B - Hypertension

87
Q 
The larynx is located between the:
A - Pharynx and trachea
B - Nasal cavity and pharynx
C - Trachea and bronchi
D - Nasal and oral cavities
A

A - Pharynx and trachea

88
Q 
The most common cause for retinal detachment is:
A - Aging
B - Trauma
C - Glaucoma
D - Inflammation
A

B - Trauma

89
Q 
What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty?
A - Compartment syndrome
B - Upper extremity
C - Urinary incontinence
D - Pulmonary embolism
A

D - Pulmonary embolism

90
Q 
Which of the following is a type of passive drain?
A - Penrose
B - Hemovac
C - Pleur-evac
D - Jackson-Pratt
A

A - Penrose

91
Q 
The vocal cords are located in the:
A - Pharynx
B - Larynx
C - Trachea
D - Bronchus
A

B - Larynx

92
Q 
What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?
A - Artificial passive
B - Artificial active
C - Natural passive
D - Natural active
A

B - Artificial active

93
Q 
When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?
A - Bier block
B - Epidural injection
C - Endotracheal intubation
D - Endotracheal extubation
A

C - Endotracheal intubation

94
Q 
Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?
A - Trephine
B - Wescott
C - Oculotome
D - Phacoemulsifier
A

A - Trephine

95
Q 
What is the required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapicitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
A - 3
B - 4
C - 5
D - 6
A

B - 4

96
Q 
Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?
A - Body Substance Isolation Rules
B - Medical Device Safety Act
C - Postexposure Prophylaxis
D - Standard Precautions
A

D - Standard Precautions

97
Q 
Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and pre-school age patients being transported to the OR?
A - Room temp change
B - Lack of communication
C - Fear of anesthesia
D - Separation anxiety
A

D - Separation anxiety

98
Q 
Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?
A - Esophagus
B - Trachea
C - Pharynx
D - Glottis
A

C - Pharynx

99
Q 
Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?
A - Mouth
B - Nose
C - Ear
D - Eye
A

C - Ear

100
Q 
An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called:
A - Iatrogenic
B - Liability
C - Battery
D - Tort
A

A - Iatrogenic

101
Q 
The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the:
A - Sclera
B - Iris
C - Choroid
D - Macula
A

C - Choroid

102
Q 
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team's abilities?
A - Physiological
B - Belonging
C - Esteem
D - Safety
A

D - Safety

103
Q 
Which aneurysm develops between the renal and iliac arteries?
A - Ascending thoracic
B - Aortic arch
C - Decending thoracic
D - Abdominal aortic
A

D - Abdominal aortic

104
Q 
The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is:
A - Heparin
B - Thrombin
C - Protamine Sulfate
D - Ringer's lactate
A

A - Heparin

105
Q 
What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement?
A - Vessel reanastomosis
B - Nerve reanastomosis
C - Bone-to-bone fixation
D - Tendon-to-tendon fixation
A

C - Bone-to-bone fixation

106
Q 
What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?
A - Composite
B - Split thickness
C - Pedicle
D - Full thickness
A

D - Full thickness

107
Q 
Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?
A - Viceral
B - Heart
C - Skeletal
D - Cardiac
A

C - Skeletal

108
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?
A - Microtia
B - Anophthalmia
C - Cheiloschisis
D - Ectrosyndactyly
A

A - Microtia

109
Q 
What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?
A - 30 mins
B - 60 mins
C - 90 mins
D - 150 mins
A

C - 90 mins

110
Q 
Which organism causes gas gangrene?
A - Clostridium perfringens
B - Clostridium botulinum
C - Staphylococcus aureus
D - Staphylococcus epidermidis
A

A - Clostridium perfringens

111
Q

Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?
A - Nipple to umbilicus
B - Iliac crest to iliac crest
C - Scapula to gluteus maximus
D - Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

A

D - Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

112
Q 
Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?
A - Malleus
B - Incus
C - Stapes
D - Utricle
A

C - Stapes

113
Q 
What is another name for the Kraske position?
A - Dorsal recumbant
B - Jackknife
C - Trendelenberg
D - Beach chair
A

B - Jackknife

114
Q 
What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
A - Raytec
B - Kittner
C - Weck-cel
D - Cottonoid
A

B - Kittner

115
Q 
Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?
A - Kilner hook
B - Bowman probe
C - Kerrison rongeur
D - Cottingham punch
A

D - Cottingham punch

116
Q 
A partially dislocated joint is called:
A - Subluxation
B - Malrotation
C - Avulsion
D - Malunion
A

A - Subluxation

117
Q 
What condition is characterized by build-up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?
A - Embolism
B - Thrombosis
C - Arteriospasm
D - Atherosclerosis
A

D - Atherosclerosis

118
Q 
Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in which of the following?
A - Lukewarm saline
B - Lukewarm water
C - Cold saline
D - Cold water
A

B - Lukewarm water

119
Q 
The avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the:
A - Cornea
B - Sclera
C - Pupil
D - Conjunctiva
A

A - Cornea

120
Q 
How often should surgical masks be changed?
A - After lunch
B - Twice-a-day
C - After each case
D - Every two hours
A

C - After each case

121
Q 
Which term described a rod-shaped microorganism?
A - Coccus
B - Bacillus
C - Spirillum
D - Helical
A

B - Bacillus

122
Q 
When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?
A - 55
B - 65
C - 75
D - 85
A

D - 85

123
Q

Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?
A - Cuffing the hands within the drape
B - Sterile person reaching over sterile surface
C - Re-positioning penetrating towel clip
D - Sterile surgical members passing face to face

A

C - Re-positioning penetrating towel clip

124
Q 
Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of local anesthetic?
A - Res ispa loquitor
B - Respondeat superior
C - Bona fide
D - Assault
A

A - Res ispa loquitor

125
Q 
The space between the vocal cords is called the:
A - Epiglottis
B - Glottis
C - Vocal Fold
D - Cricoid cartilage
A

B - Glottis

126
Q 
Which bacteria could be found in a penetrating would caused be a rusty nail?
A - Treponema pallidum
B - Bacillis anthracis
C - Clostridium tetani
D - Helicobacter pylori
A

C - Clostridium tetani

127
Q 
Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?
A - Taylor
B - Love
C - Cushing
D - Meyerding
A

B - Love

128
Q 
What is another name for the electrosurgical unit's patient return electrode?
A - Cautery
B - Generator
C - Foot pedal
D - Grounding pad
A

D - Grounding pad

129
Q 
What size of Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?
A - 8 Fr
B - 12 Fr
C - 16 Fr
D - 24 Fr
A

C - 16 Fr

130
Q 
Which of the following tumors is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?
A - Meningioma
B - Astrocytoma
C - Schwannoma
D - Oligodendroglioma
A

A - Meningioma

131
Q 
The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the:
A - Iris
B - Cornea
C - Sclera
D - Choroid
A

C - Sclera

132
Q 
What is the term for thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?
A - Flagella
B - Fimbrae
C - Mesosomes
D - Mitochondria
A

A - Flagella

133
Q 
What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis?
A - Fowler's
B - Reverse Trendelenberg
C - Trendelenberg
D - Kraske
A

C - Trendelenberg

134
Q 
How many hours must an item submerse in gluteraldehyde to sterilize?
A - 7
B - 8
C - 9
D - 10
A

D - 10

135
Q 
When a patient's blood pressure is 135/81, 135 refers to:
A - Diastolic
B - Stolic
C - Pedal pulse
D - Apical pressure
A

B - Stolic

136
Q 
A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:
A - Mucos
B - Sputum
C - Cerumen
D - Perilymph
A

C - Cerumen

137
Q 
Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?
A - Pinna
B - Incus
C - Labrynth
D - Vestibule
A

B - Incus

138
Q 
What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?
A - Exsanguination
B - Extravasation
C - Eviceration
D - Evacuation
A

A - Exsanguination

139
Q 
Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?
A - Sinus cavities
B - Eustachian tube
C - Nasolacrimal duct
D - Tympanic membrane
A

C - Nasolacrimal duct

140
Q 
Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the back table?
A - Surgical first assistant
B - Surgical technologist
C - Circulating nurse
D - Surgeon
A

B - Surgical technologist

141
Q 
In what circumstances would cell-saver transfusion be contraindicated?
A - Anemic patients
B - Diabetic patients
C - Cancer procedures
D - Orthopedic procedures
A

C - Cancer procedures

142
Q 
Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated fir which of the following surgical procedures?
A - Pancreatectomy
B - Cholecystectomy
C - Polypectomy
D - Sigmoidectomy
A

D - Sigmoidectomy

143
Q 
Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?
A - Kidney pedicle
B - Seminal vessicle
C - Bladder neck
D - Prostate gland
A

A - Kidney pedicle

144
Q 
The nasal cavity is divided into two sections by the:
A - Ethmoid
B - Septum
C - Vomer
D - Sphenoid
A

B - Septum

145
Q 
Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intentionally remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
A - Randall forceps
B - Wire snare
C - Ellik evacuator
D - Poole suction
A

C - Ellik evacuator

146
Q 
Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?
A - Subdural
B - Epidural
C - Intracerebral
D - Intraventricular
A

A - Subdural

147
Q 
In addition to temperature, time, and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
A - Concentration
B - Aeration
C - Weight
D - Pressure
A

D - Pressure

148
Q 
The Bowie-Dick test is performed:
A - Hourly
B - Daily
C - Weekly
D - Monthly
A

B - Daily

149
Q 
The spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the:
A - Cochlea
B - Stapes
C - Vestibule
D - Labrynth
A

A - Cochlea

150
Q 
What is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas's cul-de-sac?
A - Cystocele
B - Rectocele
C - Enterocele
D - Omphalocele
A

C - Enterocele

151
Q 
Which of these conditions is characterized by a flashy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?
A - Chalazion
B - Pterygium
C - Strabismus
D - Ecchymosis
A

B - Pterygium

152
Q 
Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?
A - Pelvic exeneration
B - Cervical cerclage
C - Colporrhaphy
D - Myomectomy
A

D - Myomectomy

153
Q 
Where is a Baker's cyst located?
A - Olecranon process
B - Greater tubercle
C - Popliteal fossa
D - Carpal tunnel
A

C - Popliteal fossa

154
Q

Which of the following is a method of high-level disinfection?
A - Peracetic acid for 30 mins
B - 2% gluteraldehyde for 20 mins
C - Steam under pressure for 10 mins
D - Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for 75 mins

A

B - 2% gluteraldehyde for 20 mins

155
Q 
Another name for the tympanic membrane is the:
A - Ear tube
B - Ear canal
C - Earlobe
D - Eardrum
A

D - Eardrum

156
Q 
What is the burn degree classification that involved the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?
A - First
B - Second
C - Third
D - Fourth
A

C - Third

157
Q 
Which portion of the ear is affected by Meniere's syndrome?
A - Inner
B - Middle
C - Eustachian tube
D - Auditory ossicles
A

A - Inner

158
Q 
The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?
A - Hyoid
B - Vomer
C - Mandible
D - Palatine
A

B - Vomer

159
Q 
The most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism:
A - Bacillus stearothermophilus
B - Clostridium tetani
C - Bordetella pertussis
D - Corynebacterium diptheria
A

A - Bacillus stearothermophilus

160
Q 
Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?
A - Subdural hematoma
B - Creutzfeldt-Jakob
C - Spinal stenosis
D - Myelomeningocele
A

C - Spinal stenosis

161
Q 
Which of the following terms means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?
A - Rectocele
B - Cystocele
C - Enterocele
D - Herniation
A

B - Cystocele

162
Q 
How many hours must the steam sterilizer biological indicator incubate?
A - 6
B - 12
C - 18
D - 24
A

D - 24

163
Q 
The nasal sinus located between the nose and orbits is the:
A - Frontal
B - Sphenoid
C - Ethmoid
D - Maxillary
A

C - Ethmoid

164
Q 
What is he definition of otosclerosis?
A - Earache
B - Tinnitus
C - Tearing of tympanic membrane
D - Bony overgrowth of stapes
A

D - Bony overgrowth of stapes

165
Q 
Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?
A - Comminuted
B - Compound
C - Simple
D - Closed
A

B - Compound

166
Q 
For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?
A - Appendectomy
B - Cholecystectomy
C - Herniorrhaphy
D - Gastrectomy
A

A - Appendectomy

167
Q 
What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?
A - 43-48
B - 49-54
C - 55-60
D - 61-66
A

C - 55-60

168
Q 
What is the medical term for removal of the uterus?
A - Salpingectomy
B - Oophorectomy
C - Myomectomy
D - Hysterectomy
A

D - Hysterectomy

169
Q 
Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments?
A - Ultrasonic washer
B - Manual cleaning
C - Washer-sterilizer
D - Enzymatic soak
A

A - Ultrasonic washer

170
Q 
What is the medical term for nosebleed?
A - Rhinitis
B - Sinusitis
C - Epitaxis
D - Hemoptysis
A

C - Epitaxis

171
Q 
What is the proper way for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?
A - Lumen is dry
B - Distilled water in lumen
C - Stylet is left inside lumen
D - Disinfectant solution in lumen
A

B - Distilled water in lumen

172
Q 
Which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention?
A - Intussusception
B - Pyloric stenosis
C - Tetrology of Fallot
D - Omphalocele
A

A - Intussusception

173
Q 
The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is:
A - 249-255
B - 256-262
C - 263-269
D - 270-276
A

D - 270-276

174
Q 
What is the name of the procedure for the extension of the tunica vaginallis?
A - Spermatocelectomytomy
B - Orchiectomy
C - Hydrocelectomy
D - Vasec
A

C - Hydrocelectomy

175
Q 
What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 degrees F?
A - 5
B - 10
C - 15
D - 20
A

B - 10

CST (1 decks)

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