Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Geography is often called the _____ science because it includes the recognition, analysis, and explanation of variations in phenomena as they are distributed on Earth’s surface.

A

Spatial

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2
Q

A physical geographer primarily might study all of the subjects below with the EXCEPTION of?
A. Population distribution.
B. How vegetation, soils, and climate are interrelated.
C. How earthquakes affect humans and their built environment.
D. The possible impacts of climatic change.

A

A. Population distribution.

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3
Q

When using the scientific method the second thing you do is?

A

Gather all available pertinent data.

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4
Q

True or False: Negative feedback is an “unnatural process” that is generally detrimental to the functioning of an environmental system.

A

False

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5
Q

True or False: A model is a useful simplification of a more complex reality.

A

True

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6
Q
A great circle:
A. Cuts Earth into two hemispheres.
B. Is an exact circumference of Earth.
C. Provides the shortest routes of travel on Earth's surface.
D. All of these.
A

D. All of these.

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7
Q

Equilibrium in most natural Earth subsystems generally means?
A. The factors in a system are in a static balance.
B. Interrelated factors in a system are in a state of continual adjustment to each other.
C. That all factors in a system are equally important to the way that the system functions.
D. None of the above are correct.

A

B. Interrelated factors in a system are in a state of continual adjustment to each other.

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8
Q
Cartography is the science of:
A. Surveying
B. Navigation
C. Map Making
D. Data Collection
A

C. Map Making.

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9
Q
During the Ice Age, light reflected off the snow pack and glaciers back into space created?
A. Positive Feedback
B. Negative Feedback
C. Theoretical Model
D. Physical Model
A

A. Positive Feedback

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10
Q

Historically in geography?
A. Summarians in 3000 BC had a systematic study of place for tax purposes.
B. Chinese in 2000 BC recognized many “natural” processes that shape the earth.
C. Egyptians in 600 BC systematically studied flood processes and land.
D. Greeks in 500 BC systematically collected geographic information.
E. All of the above.

A

E. All of the above.

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11
Q

True or False: All living things make up the lithosphere.

A

False.

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12
Q

True or False: Longitude is measured in the same units as latitude.

A

True.

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13
Q
A degree of latitude is subdivided into?
A. Centidegrees and millidegrees.
B. Hours, minutes, and seconds.
C. Minutes only.
D. Minutes and seconds only.
A

D. Minutes and seconds only.

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14
Q

A decrease in the levels of ozone in the ozone layer?
A. May be related to human use of certain chemical products.
B. Is not a cause for concern to humans because the ozone layer is in the stratosphere.
C. Cannot possibly be related to any human activities.
D. Is completely unrelated to the incidence of skin cancers in humans.

A

A. May be related to human use of certain chemical products.

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15
Q

You are cruising on the Love Boat at 20 degrees south Latitude, 5 degrees east Longitude. You sail 15 degrees west and 10 degrees north. You are now at?

A

10 degrees south, 10 degrees west.

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16
Q

One aspect of the world that is NOT related to Earth’s curvature is?

A

Our calendar system.

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17
Q

One degree of latitude is approximately equal to?

A

89 miles.

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18
Q

True or False: With the assistance of powerful super computers, modern-day small-scale maps of Earth can now be made that are distortion free.

A

False.

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19
Q

_____ is NOT maintained with a Mercator projection.

A

True size.

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20
Q
A mercator projection?
A. Is a gnomic projection.
B. Has straight great circle lines.
C. Has straight meridians.
D. Is a conical projection.
A

C. Has straight meridians.

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21
Q

Persons traveling west across the International Date Line must?

A

Turn the calendar ahead one day.

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22
Q
Topographic contour maps?
A. Show elevations of land surface.
B. Are also referred to as "dot maps."
C. Show barometric (pressure) variation.
D. Are used to show lines of equal temperature.
A

A. Show elevations of land surface.

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23
Q

An isoline of equal pressure plotted on a weather map is known as?

A

An isobar.

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24
Q

The Public Lands Survey System?
A. Was thought to be developed by Thomas Jefferson.
B. Was proposed as a method of parceling lands west of Pennsylvania for sale.
C. Divides townships into 36 square mile sections.
D. Has east-west lines called base lines.
E. All of the above.

A

E. All of the above.

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25
Q

In the Public Lands Survey System, one section equals?

A

640 acres.

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26
Q

True or False: The Global Positioning System (GPS) uses a network of satellites to accurately determine one’s location on Earth’s surface.

A

True.

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27
Q

The Global Positioning System?
A. Is based on the principle of triangulation.
B. Requires a computer to estimate depth.
C. Cannot estimate altitude.

A

A. Is based on the principle of triangulation.

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28
Q
Which of the following is an example of a verbal scale?
A. 1:10,000
B. 1 inch to 10 miles.
C. |---|---|---|---|
D. None of these.
A

B. 1 inch to 10 miles.

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29
Q

True or False: A representative fraction (RF) scale on a map must be expressed in some unit of measurement.

A

True.

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30
Q

A map scale that reads 1:24,000 means that?

A

Two points, 1/2 inch apart on the map are actually 1,000 feet apart.

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31
Q

Weather satellites typically?

A

Hold geostationary orbit.

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32
Q

All of the following are benefits of a geographic information system EXCEPT:
A. A GIS allows the storage and display of many combinations of mapped data layers.
B. A GIS can adjust data from different map scales and projections to fit one base map.
C. A GIS can be used to analyze the spatial distributions of environmental, natural, and human features.
D. All of these are benefits that a GIS can provide.

A

D. All of these are benefits that a GIS can provide.

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33
Q

Evidence for an expanding Universe includes?
A. Spectral shift.
B. Chemical components of the universe seem to be the same elements.
C. Structure of planetary and galactic motion is consistent and mathematically predictable.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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34
Q

The Space Shuttle Columbia was traveling about 12,500 mph when it broke apart. If maximum spaceship speeds are currently 25,000 mph in space, how long would it take one to reach Alpha Centuri (one way), the closest star other than the Sun to earth at a distance of 4.3 light years?

A

110,000 years.

35
Q

If a lightyear equals 6 trillion miles?
A. The sun is about 1 light year away.
B. The nearest galaxy (Andromeda), other than ours is about 1,000 light years away.
C. Pluto is about 11 hours year away.
D. Our galaxy is about 1,000 light years in diameter.
E. All of the above.

A

C. Pluto is about 11 hours year away.

36
Q

True or False: The five closest planets to the sun are called the terrestrial planets.

A

False.

37
Q

The planet with the hottest surface temperature is?

A

Venus.

38
Q

A comet?
A. Usually orbits around the sun in a circular orbit.
B. Has a gaseous tail, which faces away from the sun and is sometimes millions of miles long.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.

A

B. Has a gaseous tail, which faces away from the sun and is sometimes millions of miles long.

39
Q

A _____ is a body that survives the all through the atmosphere and reaches Earth’s surface.

A

Meteorite.

40
Q

If our Earth did not have an atmosphere, temperature extremes between day and night would?

A

Increase.

41
Q

The most important mechanism by which the Earth system receives its energy is?

A

Radiation.

42
Q

True or False: The more oblique the angle at which the sun’s rays strike Earth, the greater the intensity of energy per unit acre.

A

False.

43
Q
On the date of the June solstice, which of the following locations has the longest day?
A. Omaha, Nebraska (41 N).
B. Murmansk, Russia (69 N).
C. Montevideo, Uruguay (35 S).
D. Kontiala, Mali (12.5 N).
A

B. Murmansk, Russia (69 N).

44
Q
If the Earth-sun distance were the only significant factor involved in the surface temperature of Earth, which of the following days would you expect to be warmest in Chicago?
A. July 4th.
B. September 23rd.
C. January 3rd.
D. December 15th.
A

C. January 3rd.

45
Q

Earth’s velocity of rotation is maximum at?

A

The equator.

46
Q

True or False: The Circle of Illumination bisects Earth’s sphere (half is illuminated, half is shadow).

A

True.

47
Q

The earth’s rotational axis is inclined _____ degrees from the plane of the ecliptic.

A

66 1/2.

48
Q

Which of the following characterizes the earth’s revolution?
A. It takes approximately 24 hours.
B. It is responsible for creating the circle of illumination, and hence, day/night relationships.
C. It is clockwise when viewed from above the North Pole.
D. It determines the timing of seasons and the length of the year.
E. None of the above.

A

D. It determines the timing of seasons and the length of the year.

49
Q

Which of the following are true?
A. December 21st = Vernal Equinox.
B. September 22nd = Summer Solstice in Australia.
C. March 21st = Summer Solstice in Australia.
D. June 21st = Equal Day and Nights Everywhere on Earth.
E. None of the above.

A

E. None of the above.

50
Q

On June 21st, the sun is directly over?

A

The Tropic of Cancer.

51
Q

True or False: The albedo of snow is generally low, while that of an evergreen forest is relatively high.

A

False.

52
Q

Earth’s movement with the sun and the rest of the solar system in an orbit around the center of the Milky Way Galaxy is termed?

A

Galactic movement.

53
Q

As Earth revolved around the sun, Earth’s axis remains parallel to its former positions. This characteristic is called?

A

Parallelism.

54
Q

The maximum annual temperature tends to occur?

A

A month or so after the receipt of maximum solar radiation.

55
Q

Which gas accounts for about 78% of the atmosphere’s mass?

A

Nitrogen.

56
Q

The phrase “rain shadow” is associated with which type of precipitation?

A

Orographic.

57
Q

Which of the following is false?
A. The planets orbit the sun, and the sun and solar system are part of the Milky Way Galaxy.
B. The sun is by far the largest star in the Milky Way Galaxy.
C. The sun produces energy through fusion.
D. The sun is average in color, temperature, and size when compared to other stars.

A

B. The sun is by far the largest star in the Milky Way Galaxy.

58
Q

The Planetesimal hypothesis (also called the nebular, dust-cloud, or Safronov hypothesis) pertains to the?

A

Solar system.

59
Q

Which of the following is true of the sun’s electromagnetic spectrum?
A. It consists exclusively of radiant energy made of gamma rays, x-rays, and ultraviolet wavelengths.
B. It consists of streams and charged particles.
C. It is capable of sustaining life on Earth even though portions of the spectrum are actually harmful to living organisms.
D. It consists only of visible light and infrared energy.
E. None of the above.

A

C. It is capable of sustaining life on Earth even though portions of the spectrum are actually harmful to living organisms.

60
Q

What is the sequence of shorter to longer wavelengths?

A

X-rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave.

61
Q

What is the order from shorter to longer?

A

Blue, red, orange, green, yellow.

62
Q

Photosynthesis involves?

A

The union of water and carbon dioxide under the influence of sunlight, and the release of oxygen.

63
Q

True or False: A calorie is defined as the energy it takes to heat up 1 gram of water, one degree Celsius. It therefore takes 100 calories to heat up 1 gram of ice at 0 degrees Celsius (freezing) to water at 100 degrees Celsius (boiling).

A

False.

64
Q

As ultraviolet rays enter the Earth’s atmosphere, most are absorbed in the?

A

Stratosphere.

65
Q

The average albedo of the earth is about?

A

34%

66
Q

Most of the Earth’s weather occurs in the?

A

Troposphere.

67
Q

The sun and most other stars produce energy by?

A

Nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium.

68
Q
Which of the following is NOT one of the lower earth atmosphere's main four compounds?
A. Hydrogen.
B. Oxygen.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Carbon Dioxide.
E. Argon
A

A. Hydrogen.

69
Q

True or False: The atmosphere has the same number of gaseous molecules in any given volume (air density), from the earth’s surface to the top of the atmosphere.

A

False.

70
Q
A device used to measure pressure?
A. Was developed by Torricelli.
B. Is called a barometer.
C. Can be made with mercury in a tube.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
A

D. All of the above.

71
Q

If the Adiabatic Lapse Rate is 3 degrees F per 1,000 feet, and it is 80 degrees in Las Vegas (approximately 2,000 feet above sea level), how hot would you expect it to be on top of Mount Charleston in degrees F (approximately 12,000 above sea level)?

A

50 degrees F.

72
Q

An _____ is usually characterized by clear skies, gentle winds, and a general lack of precipitation.

A

Anticyclone.

73
Q

As compared with interior locations at the same latitude, coastal locations have, on the average:
A. Higher annual ranges of air temperature.
B. Lower winter air temperatures.
C. A tendency for cooler summers and milder winters.
D. Lower relative humidity of the air.

A

C. A tendency for cooler summers and milder winters.

74
Q

In an anticyclone, the winds _____ at the surface and _____ in the upper atmosphere.

A

Diverge, converge.

75
Q

In the northern hemisphere the wind circulation in a low pressure area, when viewed from above, is?

A

Counterclockwise, spiraling inward.

76
Q

A Hadley cell is?

A

A description of atmospheric circulation.

77
Q

The trade winds have their origin in the?

A

Subtropical highs.

78
Q

Many of the great deserts of the world coincide with the?

A

Subtropical highs.

79
Q

At a latitude of 80 S, the prevailing surface winds would come from a direction that was?

A

Easterly.

80
Q

Average temperatures in Great Britain would be much colder if it were not for the?

A

Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift.

81
Q

Ocean gyres are related to?

A

Anti-cyclonic winds around subtropical highs.

82
Q

Gyre motion is generally?

A

Clockwise in the northern hemisphere, counterclockwise in the souther hemisphere.

83
Q

Monsoons arise from?

A

Season heating of large land masses.