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Acute & Chronic I > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

blocked meibomian gland

A

chalazion

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2
Q

chalazion

A

nontender, painless nodule that is inside the lid

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3
Q

trx for chalazion

A

warm, moist compress to eye 5-6x/day

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4
Q

Hordeolum is caused by

A

Staph aureus

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5
Q

internal hordeolum

A

chalazion

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6
Q

external hordeolum

A

stye

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7
Q

topical atbx are usually not effective for

A

hordeolum

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8
Q

Red, inflamed eyelids with crusting

A

blepharitis

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9
Q

risk factors for blepharitis

A

chalazion or hordeolum, immunocompromised, DM, acne

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10
Q

S/S of blepharitis

A

itching, tearing, photophobia, absence of eyelashes

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11
Q

main cause of viral conjunctivitis

A

adenovirus

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12
Q

drainage in viral conjunctivitis

A

serous or serosanguinous

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13
Q

symptoms of viral conjunctivitis last for

A

5-14 days

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14
Q

nonpharm trx for viral conjunctivitis

A

cool compresses and artificial tears

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15
Q

most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in children

A

H. influenza, Strep pneumonia

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16
Q

most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis adults

A

Staph aureus

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17
Q

trx for bacterial conjunctivitis

A

trimethoprim-polymyxin B and fluoroquinolone gtts QID for 1 week

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18
Q

trx for allergic conjunctivitis

A

fenofexadine or loratadine

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19
Q

S/S of nasolacrimal duct obstruction

A

chronic tearing, eyelash debris, conjunctival injection;

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20
Q

congential nasolacrimal duct obstruction closes by

A

6 months

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21
Q

management for nasolacrimal duct obstruction

A

warm compress, massage

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22
Q

infection of the anterior portion of the eyelid

A

preseptal cellulitis

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23
Q

S/S of preseptal cellulitis

A

ocular pain, eyelid swelling and erythema

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24
Q

causes of preseptal cellulitis

A

insect bite, eyelid trauma, Strep pneumnoia, Staph aureus

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25
Q

diagnosis of preseptal cellulitis

A

contrast CT of orbit and sinuses

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26
Q

trx for preseptal cellulitis

A

clindamycin

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27
Q

infection of the orbit

A

orbital cellulitis

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28
Q

Complications of orbital cellulitis

A

loss of vision

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29
Q

s/s of orbital cellulitis

A

eyelid weakness, pain with eye movement, vision impairment, sinusitis

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30
Q

blood cultures in adults with orbital cellulitis

A

negative

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31
Q

trx for orbital cellulitis

A

vancomycin + IV unasyn or zosyn

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32
Q

risk factors for cerumen impaction

A

hx of seborrheic dermatitis or psoriasis, Qtips, excessive swimming

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33
Q

causes of conductive hearing loss

A

foreign body, otitis media, perf eardrum, otosclerosis of ossicles

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34
Q

when hearing improves in noisy environment

A

conductive hearing loss

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35
Q

Weber test in conductive hearing loss

A

sound lateralizes to impaired ear

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36
Q

Rinne test in conductive hearing loss

A

BC > AC

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37
Q

causes of sensorineural hearing loss

A

loud noise exposure, trauma, aging

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38
Q

when hearing worsens in noisy enviornment

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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39
Q

Weber test in sensorineural hearing loss

A

sound lateralizes to good ear- damage to inner ear impairs transmission

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40
Q

Rinne test in sensorineural hearing loss

A

AC > BC

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41
Q

The ear canal is often swollen, narrowed, moist, pale, and tender. It may be reddened.

A

otitis externa

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42
Q

Bacterial causes of otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas

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43
Q

Fungal causes of otitis externa

A

Aspergillus

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44
Q

S/s of otitis externa

A

otalgia, redness/edema to ear canal, itching, purulent discharge, normal TM

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45
Q

Drops in otitis externa

A

lie with affected ear up and maintain position for 5 min.

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46
Q

trx for otitis externa

A

ciprofloxacin + hydrocortisone 3 gtts BID x 7 days

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47
Q

causes of otitis media

A

S. pneumonia and H. influenza

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48
Q

s/s of otitis media

A

earache, fever, hearing loss, red and bulging TM.

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49
Q

risk factors for otitis media

A

daycare, URI, allergic rhinitis, secondhand smoke, first ep of AOM

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50
Q

trx for AOM:

A

amoxicillin 875 mg PO bid x 5-7 days

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51
Q

trx for AOM with PCN allergy

A

azithromycin 500 mg PO daily x 3 days

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52
Q

complication of recurrent AOM

A

cholesteatoma

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53
Q

management of epistaxis

A

applying direct pressure for 15 min sitting upright and leaning forward.

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54
Q

trx for anterior nare epistaxis

A

silver nitrate stick

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55
Q

trx for posterior nare epistaxis

A

referral to hospital or ENT.

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56
Q

counseling for epistaxis

A

avoid alcohol, vigorous exercise, ASA, and spicy foods.

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57
Q

s/s of rhinitis

A

allergic shiners, conjunctival injection, pale/boggy turbinates, clear nasal drainage

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58
Q

give diphenhydramine cautiously in patients with

A

BPH, COPD, and glaucoma

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59
Q

topical nasal steroids for rhinitis

A

Budesonide, flonase, and nasonex

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60
Q

s/s of sinusitis

A

fever, yellow nasal discharge, sinus tenderness, cough

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61
Q

acute sinusitis is for less than

A

4 weeks

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62
Q

causes of sinusitis

A

Strep pna, H. influenza, M catarrhalis, rhinovirus

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63
Q

most common cause of sinusitis in smokers

A

H. influenza

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64
Q

s/s of bacterial infection of sinusitis

A

fever, purulent nasal discharge for > 10 days

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65
Q

rebound nasal congestion

A

caused by use of sympathomimetic sprays or decongestants for > 1 week

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66
Q

pharm trx options for sinusitis

A

amoxicillin, augmentin, azithromycin, levqaquin

67
Q

most common age for epiglotitis

A

children age > 7

68
Q

usually appears as a cottage cheese like lesion that is easily removed by a swab; the underlying tissue may bleed after manipulation

A

candida albicans

69
Q

diagnosis of candida albicans

A

hyphae on microscopic evaluation

70
Q

trx for candida albicans

A

nystatin 5 mL S&S 4xday

71
Q

white patches on the oral mucosa that remains despite attempts to rub it off.

A

leukoplakia

72
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

spread in tick bites that can cause Lyme disease

73
Q

s/s of lyme disease

A

erythema migrans, fatigue, headache, fever, body aches, joint pain

74
Q

screening for lyme disease

A

ELISA followed by Western Blot

75
Q

trx for Lyme disease

A

doxycycline 100 mg PO bid for 14 days

76
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

bacteria that causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

77
Q

S/S of Mountain Spotted Fever

A

maculopapular rash begins around the wrist and ankles

78
Q

number one cause of lower respiratory tract infection in children under one year old.

79
Q

RSV s/s in children

A

PNA, wheezing, SOB

80
Q

RSV s/s in adults

A

URI symptoms: cough, rhinorrhea, conjunctivitis, ear/sinus infections

81
Q

trx not recommended for RSV

A

bronchodilators and corticosteroids

82
Q

MRSA infected furuncles are resistant to

A

beta lactams and cephalosporins

83
Q

trx for MRSA infected furuncles

A

clindamycin, Bactrim, Doxycycline

84
Q

when to give HPV

A

age 9 in males and females

85
Q

pencillin covers

86
Q

extended spectrum PCN covers

A

gram+, gram -, beta lactam

87
Q

Tetracyclines cover

A

gram -, atypical, MRSA

88
Q

sulfonamides cover

A

gram -, MRSA

89
Q

1st gen cephalosporins cover

90
Q

2nd gen cephalosporins cover

A

gram+, gram -

91
Q

3rd gen cephalosporins cover

A

weak gram +, gram -, b-lactam

92
Q

azithromycin covers

A

gram +, gram -, atypicals

93
Q

3rd generation fluoroquinolones cover

A

gram +, gram -, atypicals, b-lactam

94
Q

rare retinal tumor in children

A

retinoblastoma

95
Q

a patient with narrow angle glaucoma should avoid which OTC meds?

A

antihistamines and decongestants

96
Q

used to measure intraoccular pressure

97
Q

acute conjunctivitis at birth may be caused by

A

N gonorrhea

98
Q

loss of central vision

A

macular degeneration

99
Q

age when vision progresses to 20/20 to 20/25

100
Q

age when frontal sinuses develop

101
Q

prophylaxis for allergic rhinitis

A

topical corticosteroid, mast cell stabilizer, saline rinses

102
Q

rinne test is a test for

A

sensorineural hearing loss

103
Q

s/s of otitis media with effusion

A

TM opaque, decrease TM mobility, bubbles

104
Q

test to help confirm the presence of fluid in the middle ear

A

tympanometry

105
Q

first DOC for otitis media

106
Q

if there is atbx failure with otitis media, then add

A

b-lactamase coverage

107
Q

if there is severe otalgia and fever in otitis media, then given an atbx that has

A

gram +, gram -, and beta lactam coverage

108
Q

first line trx for bacterial pharyngitis

109
Q

if there is a chronic or recurring pharyngitis, then

A

culture throat

110
Q

most pharyngitis is

111
Q

beta lactam atbx

A

augmentin, 3rd or 4th gen cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones

112
Q

grayish membrane on uvula and pharynx

113
Q

monospot is most likely to be positive ____ after infection

114
Q

s/s of herpangina

A

sore throat, drooling, fever, ulcerations on tonsils and uvula, diarrhea, fever

115
Q

hot potato voice indicates

A

peritonsillar abscess

116
Q

cause of fifth’s disease

A

parovirus 19

117
Q

s/s of fifth’s disease

A

slapped cheek, lacy rash on trunk and extremities

118
Q

no longer communicable when rash erupts

A

fifth’s disease

119
Q

duration of fifth’s disease

120
Q

duration of herpangina

121
Q

cause of roseola

A

human herpes virus 6

122
Q

s/s of roseola

A

rose-pink maculopapular rash on trunk

123
Q

red papules to soft palate or base of uvula in roseola

A

nagayama spots

124
Q

cause of hand foot and mouth disease

A

coxsackie virus A16

125
Q

cause of epiglottitis

A

H. influenza type B, strep, staph

126
Q

s/s of epiglottitis

A

fever, stridor, drooling, beefy red pharynx, sniffing posture

127
Q

s/s of peritonsillar abscess

A

unilateral sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, trismus, uvula deviated to opposite side

128
Q

cause of peritonsillar abscess

A

streptococcus

129
Q

viral causes of pharyngitis

A

rhinovirus, adenovirus

130
Q

bacterial causes of pharyngitis

A

GABHS, H. influenza, Mycoplasma

131
Q

centor criteria

A

fever, anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, tonsillar exudate, absence of cough

132
Q

s/s of viral pharyngitis

A

sore throat, pharyngeal edema, nasal congestion, cough, diarrhea, conjunctivitis

133
Q

high risk of this with hand foot and mouth disease

A

dehydration d/t inability to swallow

134
Q

common in women with Fifth’s disease

A

arthralgias for up to 21 days

135
Q

causes of herpangina

A

enterovirus 71, coxsackie A16 and B virus

136
Q

s/s of roseola

A

fever for 2-3 days, then rash on trunk and arms

137
Q

complication of rocky mountain spotted fever

A

vasculitis

138
Q

varicella vaccine

A

given at 12-15 months then 4-6 years

139
Q

“bull neck” noted in

140
Q

DTap schedule

A

2, 4, 6, 15-18 months, and 4-6 years

141
Q

TDaP schedule

A

11-12 years, then booster of Td every 10 years

142
Q

H. influenza type b most common in

A

children less than 5

143
Q

Hib immunization given

A

2, 4, 12-15 months

144
Q

non-typable H influenza is frequently the cause of

A

otitis media

145
Q

MMR vaccine given at

A

12-15 months then 4-6 years

146
Q

white spots that form inside mouth

A

Koplik spots in rubeola (measles)

147
Q

common sign of mumps

A

tender and swollen salivary glands

148
Q

PCV13 given in children at

A

2, 4, 6, 12-15 months

149
Q

most common cause of diarrhea in children

150
Q

rotavirus vaccine given at

A

2 and 4 months

151
Q

triangular shaped thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva

152
Q

First line drug for management of allergic rhinitis

A

topical nasal steroid

153
Q

how many doses of hep B for a normal child?

154
Q

sickle cell disease is indicated for which vaccine?

A

PPSV23 and PCV13

155
Q

which vaccine-preventable infections can result in cirrhosis and cancer of the liver?

156
Q

The inactivated poliovirus vaccine creates neutralizing antibodies to the virus after which dose?

157
Q

diphtheria can increase the risk of death d/t complications of the

A

cardiac system

158
Q

Which serotype(s) of the human papilloma virus can cause cancer?

159
Q

there is no vaccine for this virus

160
Q

drugs that can cause fever of unknown origin

A

anticonvulsants, beta-lactams, sulfa, allopurinol, heparin

161
Q

vaccines that contain live viruses

A

influenza, shingles, MMR, varicella, rotavirus, typhoid, and smallpox

162
Q

these people should not receive live attenuated viruses

A

immuno-deficient

163
Q

HPV type 6 and 11 cause

A

genital warts

164
Q

trx for posthereptic neuralgis

A

TCA such as amitrypilline

Acute & Chronic I (4 decks)

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