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Anesthesia > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Level of anesthesia that allows for painless surgery

A

Surgical anesthesia

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1
Q

When is the only time that the breathing system pressure gauge not be at zero?

A

Leak checks

IPPV

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1
Q

For every 10cm increased distance from the heart, the BP measurement should be increased by ____ to compensate for the distance

A

7.5

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1
Q

Benzos are often added to what induction agents?

A

Ketamine

Propofol

Etomidate

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1
Q

MAC of Des?

A

7.2

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2
Q

Loss of sensitivity to pain

A

Analgesia

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2
Q

Reversal of benzodiazepines

A

Flumazenil

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3
Q

Central venouse pressure allows you to determine what?

A

If you can add more fluids

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3
Q

What other premed drug class cannot be given with anticholingergics?

A

A2 agonists

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4
Q

ROA of A2 agonists

A

IV
IM
Buccal
Epidural

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5
Q

How do we adjust drug doses for small animals?

A

Increase! Faster metabolic rate

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6
Q

E cylinder empty weight in KG

A

6kg

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6
Q

Uremia, severe dehydration, cardiac abnormalities, GDV or colic would classify a patient as what ASA?

A

ASA4

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6
Q

Microsomal enzyme inducers have their max effect after how many days?

A

5 days

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6
Q

Which opiod does not cause a histamine release?

A

Oxymorphone

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6
Q

Effect of inhalants on ventilation? pCO2? Bronchospasm?

A

Decreased

Increased

Decreased

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6
Q

If your patient is shivering in recovery, what should you do?

A

Give A2 agonist and meperidine

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6
Q

What premed drug delays inhalant elimination?

A

Opioids

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7
Q

Another name for the pop off valve?

A

APL

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7
Q

DOA of Etomidate?

A

10min

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7
Q

Induction agent that doesn’t act on GABA?

A

Dissociatives (Ketamine, Tiletamine, Telazol)

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9
Q

An animal with skn tumors, fractures, local infection, minor cardiac issues and cryptorchid would be classified as what ASA?

A

ASA2

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10
Q

Horses tend to have nystagmus in what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 2

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10
Q

Non cumulative induction agents?

A

Etomidate

Propofol

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11
Q

What should be the last meter in the series?

A

Oxygen

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11
Q

What is “kitty magic”

A

Dexmedetomidine, Butorphanol, Ketamine

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11
Q

When should you remove ETT in brachycephalics?

A

when reflexes come back and jaw moves

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12
Q

Pressure reduction valve reduces tank pressure to what psi?

A

50psi

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12
Q

A2 agonists are best for what kind of pain?

A

GI pain

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13
Q

What side of the anesthetic machine is the Wright’s respirometer better on?

A

Inspiratory

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13
Q

CRI TIVA drugs for LA?

A

Ketamine

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14
Q

Pulse oximeter represents what parameter of blood?

A

% of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen

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15
Q

Phenothiazines have a synergistic effect with these types of drugs, allowing for a reduced dose!

A

Analgesics

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15
Q

Ace is often given in combo with what type of drug?

A

Opioid

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16
Q

MOA of Butorphanol?

A

Mu antagonist

Kappa agonist

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16
Q

N2O can cause hypoxemia if over what %?

A

75%

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17
Q

Neuroleptic agent combined with and analgesic agent. Heavy sedation and analgesia

A

Nauroleptanalgesia

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18
Q

Relaxed jaw tone is seen in what species in stage 3 of anesthesia?

A

Small animals

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18
Q

Arteries used for invasive/direct BP in cattle?

A

Auricular

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18
Q

Which opiod is least likely to cause vomiting?

A

Methadone

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18
Q

Effects of Alphaxalone on the Cardio system?

A

Minimal depression

Increased HR

Decreased CO

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19
Q

When are anticholingergics indicated as a premed?

A

High vagal tone
Pediatrics

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19
Q

What MAC prevents adrenergic response?

A

MAC bar

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20
Q

What induction agent should not be used in sight hounds?

A

Thiopental

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21
Q

Desired effect of using propofol?

A

Great muscle relaxation

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21
Q

Contraindication of dissociative anesthetics?

A

Arrhytmias

Brain trauma (increases pressure)

IOP

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22
Q

Drug induced unconsciousness characterized by congtrolled, reversible depression of the CNS, loss of pain perception, can’t be aroused

A

General anesthesia

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22
Q

Anesthesia induced by multiple drugs targeted to attenuate individual components of anesthetic state

A

Balanced anesthesia

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22
Q

Cardio effects of propofol?

A

HR stable

All other parameters decrease

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23
Q

A2 agonist are often given with what drugs? What are our A2 agonists?

A

Opioids

Xylazine, Dexmedetomidine, etc

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24
Q

What ASA level is an elective surgery on a healthy animal?

A

ASA1

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25
Q

What opioid can reverse pure mu agonists?

A

Butorphanol

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26
Q

Best induction agent for cardiac patients?

A

Etomidate

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26
Q

Adjunct to induction agents that acts as a local anesthetic?

A

Lidocaine

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27
Q

What does BP measure?

A

Indirect measurement of perfusion

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27
Q

Effect of phenothiazines on BP?

A

Hypotension

Don’t give epi, will only further it

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27
Q

Highest to lowest vapor pressure?

A

Des

Halo

Iso

Sevo

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27
Q

Mac is_____ in cats than dogs

A

Higher

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28
Q

What receptor does methadone act on?

A

Pure mu

Possible MNDA

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28
Q

MOA of dissociative anesthetics?

A

NMDA Antagonists

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28
Q

Calculation of TIVA clearance?

A

Dose
__________
AUC

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29
Q

Arteries used for invasive/direct BP in the cat?

A

coccygeal

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29
Q

Which benzodiazepine is a better choice for sick, old patients

A

Midazolam

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29
Q

Diphenhydramine should be given prior to what surgery? Why?

A

Mast cell tumor removal

H2 antagonist

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30
Q

E and H oxygen tank cylinder pressure

A

2200psi

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30
Q

How should drugs be adjusted for animals that are in poor condition?

A

Lower the drug dose

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31
Q

Psi at which tanks should be changed

A

500psi

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31
Q

Dexmetomidine onset and duration

A

Onset: 1-3m IV, 5-10 IM

Effect: 90-120m

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32
Q

Rebreathing can be seen as what on the capnography graph?

A

Basline not returning to 0

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33
Q

Alphaxalone is unpredictable in what species?

A

Cats

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34
Q

Which breathing system is better for smaller patients?

A

nonrebreathing

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35
Q

With the capnography graph, a value below 40 and increased wave frequency represents what respiratory condition?

A

Hyperventilation

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36
Q

Non rebreathing systems should always be used in patients under what weight?

A

3kg

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37
Q

Premed effects of Dopamine?

A

Tranquilizer

Anti-emetic

Some muscle relaxation

No analgesia

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38
Q

Arrhythmias become apparent in what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 2

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38
Q

Ventricular depolarization is what part of the ECG?

A

QRST

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38
Q

Premed effect of A2 agonists?

A

Sedation
Muscle relaxation
Analgesia

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38
Q

Receptor and function of Famotidine and Ranitidine?

A

H2 antagonist

Decrease acid

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39
Q

What percent of correct diagnoses are made with history and PE alone?

A

73%

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39
Q

Adjunct to inductin agents that acts as a muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant?

A

Benzodiazepines

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41
Q

In a very debilitated patient, what combination of induction agents with minimize CV and respiratory depression?

A

Opioid with a Benzo

Ex: Fentanyl with Midazolam

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42
Q

MOA of benzodiazepines?

A

GABA activation

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43
Q

Breath holding is characteristic of what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 1

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43
Q

What induction agent should not be given with Addisons disease or GI obstructions?

A

Etomidate

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44
Q

E cylinder oxygen capacity in Liters?

A

660

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45
Q

Apnea becomes apparent in what level of anesthesia?

A

Stage 4

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47
Q

You add to the vaporizer when the level gets below what mark?

A

Half-Full

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47
Q

What premed is contraindicated in vWD and other clotting disorders?

A

Ace

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47
Q

ROA of etomidate?

A

IV only

Avoid CRIs (acute hemolysis)

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49
Q

What ASA is a surgery performed on a mildly diseased animal?

A

ASA2

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50
Q

Reversal of atipemazole?

A

Dexmetomidine

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51
Q

What happens if the pop off valve is closed?

A

Barotrauma

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52
Q

How should anticholingergics be administed?

A

IV, IM, SQ

If IV: give 1/2 IV, 1/2 IM

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54
Q

Which species does morphine not work well in?

A

Cats (no metabolite)

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55
Q

MOA of Alphaxalone?

A

GABA

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56
Q

Can you control the concentration of anesthetic with a VIC?

A

No

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57
Q

How is BP calculated?

A

BP= CO x SVR

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57
Q

Respiratory irritation happens at what % of Desflurane?

A

7%

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58
Q

N2O:O2 ratio should not exceed….

A

2:1

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59
Q

Explain the ECG leads in large animals…

A

White- right jugular furrow

Black- ventral apex of heart

Red- remote site

LEAD 1

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60
Q

Kinetic energy increases/decreased with temperature

A

Increases

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61
Q

Calculation of TIVA loading dose?

A

Cp x Vd

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62
Q

Which vaporizer is special in that it heats up the anesthetic?

A

Desflurane

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62
Q

Premed effect of benzodiazepines?

A

Muscle relaxation

Minor sedation

No analgesia

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63
Q

MOA and effect of Maropitant?

A

NK1

Motion sickness

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65
Q

What type of pain will you see morphological and physical changes in addition to behavior changes?

A

Chronic

(Acute is just behavior issues)

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66
Q

Label this diagram…

A-B?

B-C?

C-D?

D-E?

Which is the ETCO2 value?

A

A-B: Baseline

B-C: Expiratory upstroke

C-D: Expiratory

D: ETCO2 value

D-E inspiration

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67
Q

DOA of morphine and hydro?

A

4-6h

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67
Q

Induction agent containing Propylene Glycol?

A

Etomidate

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68
Q

ROA of Diazepam

A

IV- bradycardia, hypotension, apnea

IM-noooooo!!!!

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69
Q

Arteries used for invasive/direct BP in the horse?

A

Facial

Lateral metatarsal

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70
Q

Which ET tubes don’t have a cuff, but go into the trachea and arytenoid cartilge

A

Cole tubes

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72
Q

Which induction agents have an analgesic effect?

A

Ketamine

Tiletamine

Telazol

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74
Q

What plane of anesthesia are you attempting to reach for most surgeries?

A

Stage 3 Plane 2

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76
Q

When should Thiopental be used and not used?

A

Used: CNS surgery

Not used: Arrhytmias, Pregnancy, GI obstruction

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77
Q

Drug induced state of deep sleep from which a patient cannot be easily aroused. +/- analgesia

A

Narcosis

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79
Q

Desired induction effects of Alphaxalone?

A

Muscle relaxation

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80
Q

Fever, dehydration, anemia, cachexia and hypovolemia in a patient would classify them as what ASA?

A

ASA3

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82
Q

What gauge is used to measure direct/invasive BP?

A

Manometer

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83
Q

Which benzodiazepine contains propylene glycol?

A

Diazepam

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84
Q

Which anesthetic can cause hepatitis?

A

Halothane

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86
Q

Which receptor does Hydromorphone work on?

A

Pure Mu agonist

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87
Q

After eating a meal, how long does is take the body to get back to the basal metabolic rate?

A

12-18h

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88
Q

At high altitude, how should you adjust your vaporizer dial?`

A

Decrease (but vaporizers today compensate on their own)

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88
Q

Reflex response to A2 agonists

A

Bradycardia

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89
Q

Maximum dosage of GGE for induction adjunct?

A

300mg/kg

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90
Q

MOA of Propofol?

A

GABA

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91
Q

When should a pop off valve be closed?

A

Manual or assisted ventilation

Leak check

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92
Q

What are the bare minimum labs that should be run before surgery?

A

PCV, TS, Dec, BUN

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93
Q

VOC vaporizers are also called….?

A

Precision vaporizers

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93
Q

Minute volume increases in what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 1

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93
Q

Delirium is what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 2

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94
Q

Duration of Romifidine

A

45-90m

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95
Q

How much oxygen does a quick flush valve deliver per minute

A

35-75L

96
Q

The lower the alveolar and venous pressure, the _____ the uptake

A

Faster

97
Q

Arteries used to measure invasive/direct BP in the sheep and goat?

A

Median

98
Q

The lower the anesthestic uptake, the _____ the effect

A

Faster

99
Q

Inhalant compounds that are nephrotoxic?

A

Sevoflurane—-flouride and compound A

101
Q

Drugs that don’t allow the thalamocortic and limbic systems to interact

A

Dissociative anesthesia

103
Q

The following conditions will increase MAC:

_____thermia
________thyroid
________natremia
_______ catecholamines
and two more

A

Hyperthermia

Hyperthyroid

Hypernatremia

High catecholamines

Ephedrine

CNS stimulation

104
Q

What are our premed Benzodiazepines

A

Diazepam
Midazolam

105
Q

H cylinder empty weight in kg

A

60kg

106
Q

MAC of Iso?

A

1.3

108
Q

Surgery on a patient with severe systemic disease would classify them as what ASA?

A

ASA4

109
Q

What pulses are palpated in the large animal?

A

Facial
Transverse Facial

109
Q

Higher solubility, the ______ the onset of inhalant

A

lower

110
Q

Exposure to anesthetics should be kept under what?

A

2ppm

110
Q

Max acceptable inhalant exposure to non-patients?

A

2ppm

112
Q

What receptor does morphine work on?

A

Mu (mostly)

114
Q

Onset and duration of xylazine?

A

Onset: 1-5min

Duration: 20-40min

115
Q

Formula to calculate inhlanat uptake?

A

BG solubility x Pressure (Alv-Vein) x CO

117
Q

Effect of inhlants on HR? BP? SV? PVR? CO? SVR? Contractility?

A

HR- increase

BP, SV, PVR, SVR contractility- decrease

118
Q

Metoclopramide should not be given with what conditions?

A

GI obstruction

Pheochromocytoma

119
Q

Effects of Etomidate on the respiratory system?

A

Minimal :)

Transient apnea

121
Q

High flow with a non rebreathing system can cause…

A

hypothermia

123
Q

A patient with a condition that is a constant threat to life will classify them as what ASA?

A

ASA4

123
Q

What are our premed A2 agonists?

A

Xylazine
Detomidine
Romifidine
Dexmetomidine

(least to most selective)

123
Q

Dissociative anesthetics don’t have analgesia for wht type of pain?

A

Visceral

125
Q

The pupils become centered and dilated, cardiac arrest occurs and anesthetic overdose become apparent in what level of anesthesia?

A

Stage 3 Plane 4

127
Q

Premed drug that can cause premature delivery in cattle?

A

Xylazine

128
Q

Voiding of urine, feces and salivating are characteristic of what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 1

130
Q

Which inhalant has a boiling point near room tempurate?

A

Des

131
Q

Which species should be deprived of water before surgery and for how long?

A

Ruminants (12-18hr)

133
Q

Other than our anesthetic hose, what else should be connected to our charcoal absorber?

A

Capnograph (if being used)

134
Q

What gel should be used with doppler?

A

Ultrasonic

134
Q

Effect of inhlanats on cerebreal metabolic rate? Cerebral blood fow? Intracranial pressure?

A

Decrease

Increase (esp. halothane-vasodilation)

Increase (give mannitol and hypertonic saline)

135
Q

How do we change our drug doses on fat aniamls?

A

Dose on lean body weight

(They have lower metabolic rate)

136
Q

What wave or segment is depolarization of the AV node?

A

PR

138
Q

Oxyhemoglobin absorbs what kind of light?

A

Infrared

140
Q

Deoxyhemoblin absorbs what kind of light?

A

Red light

141
Q

What plane of anesthesia are you attempting to reach for minimally invasive procedures?

A

Stage 3 Plane 1

142
Q

Loss of sensation in a circumscribed body area

A

Local anesthesia

143
Q

Eyes open, Swallowing reflex, Muscle rigid. What state?

A

Catatonic State

143
Q

Which opioid is not used in LA?

A

oxymorphone

144
Q

How does oscillometric BP work?

A

Senses vibrations in the arterial wall

145
Q

Respiratory arrest occurs when you go how much over MAC?

A

1.5-3x MAC

146
Q

Premed combo for standing procedures in large animals?

A

Detomidine

Morphine

148
Q

What percent of cardiac diseases diagnosed with history and PE are correct?

A

91%

148
Q

Benzodiazepines are often given in combo to what drugs? What are our Benzos?

A

Opioids

Diazepam, Midazolam

150
Q

What are the MAP and SAP stats for hypotension?

A

MAP- under 60

SAP- under 80

152
Q

How do you select a bag?

A

BWxTVx5

153
Q

Blue tanks in the US mean what kind of gas?

A

Nitrous oxide

154
Q

How should Thiopental be administered?

A

IV only

SA: half fast, half slow

LA: all fast

156
Q

NSAIDs should be given post op for what conditions?

A

Hypovolemia

Hypotension

157
Q

Arteries used for invasive/direct BP in the dog?

A

Femoral

Dorsal pedal

159
Q

Which breathing system has more resistance?

A

rebreathing

159
Q

Laryngeal spasms, vomition and regurg are all complications with what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 2

161
Q

Once the animal loses consciousness, they are in what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 2

162
Q

What should your oxygen level be during the start of inhalation anesthesia?

A

50-100mls/kg/min

163
Q

The eye is centrally located in what stage(s) of anesthesia?

A

Stage 1

Stage 2

Stage 4-uh oh you fucked!

164
Q

Minimum inspired oxygen percentage needed for anesthetized patients?

A

35% FlO2

165
Q

State of behavioral change where anciety is relieved and the patient is realxed but aware of surroundings

A

Tranquilization

167
Q

What is the 5th clinical sign evaluated before treatment?

A

Pain

168
Q

MOA of Thiopental?

A

Activation of GABA

169
Q

Which kind of propofol is not safe in cats?

A

Propofol 28

170
Q

MOA and effect of Meoclopramide

A

D2 blocker

Antiemetic

Antidepressant

171
Q

State characterized by CNS depression with drowsiness, unlikely aware of surroundings

A

Sedation

171
Q

What are our anticholingergic drugs?

A

Atropine
Glycopyrollate

172
Q

ROA of Ketamine?

A

Anything but PO

IM is painful

173
Q

Surgical stage of anestesia?

A

Stage 3

174
Q

A2 agonist that is good for dentals and standing procedures in LA?

A

Romifidine

176
Q

Which breathing system has unidirectional valves?

A

rebreathing

178
Q

Carrier gas for VOCs?

A

Fresh Gas

179
Q

Anal tone is increased in what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 2

180
Q

What opioid is dosed in mcg?

A

Fentanyl

180
Q

Glucocorticoids should not be given with what drug?

A

NSAIDs

182
Q

If you can feel the dorsal pedal pulse, what does that tell you about BP?

A

Over 80mmHg systolic arterial pressure

182
Q

The lower the cardiac output, the ____ the uptake

A

Faster

183
Q

Calculation of TIVA maintenance dose?

A

Cp x Cl

184
Q

Common CRI combo?

Used for painful procedures when you can’t do an epidural or nerve block

A

MLK

Morphine

Lidocaine

Ketamine

185
Q

MAC of N2O?

A

188%

186
Q

Charcoal absorbers do not absorb what gases?

A

N2O and CO2

188
Q

How long should canines and felines be food deprived before surgery?

A

6-12h

190
Q

What percent of cardiac disease is diagnosed with history and PE?

A

25%

191
Q

Green tanks in the US mean what type of gas?

A

Oxygen

192
Q

Hyperthermia temperature?

A

102 or above

194
Q

BP cuff width should be ___% of the limb

A

40%

194
Q

Which opiod is most likely to cause vomiting?

A

Morphine

195
Q

What are the benefits of using Lead 1s in large animals?

A

Accentuates P wave

Large S

196
Q

Which vapor refill technique is more safe (pour fill or key fill)

A

Key Fill

198
Q

What pulses are palpated in the small animal?

A

Femoral
Dorsal pedal

200
Q

Which breathing system causes more gas waste and pollution?

A

non rebreathing

201
Q

What induction drugs cause myotonus and shoud be given with a muscle relaxant?

A

Etomidate

Ketamine (all dissociatives)

202
Q

Gas passing through the flowmeter is reduced to what psi?

A

15psi

204
Q

Effects of Aphaxalone on respiration?

A

Depression, initial apnea

206
Q

Volume of blood being pumped by the heart within one minute

A

Cardiac Output

207
Q

How is potency related to MAC?

A

Inverse

208
Q

What are the three components of the general anesthesia triad?

A

Muscle relaxation

Unconsciousness

Freedom from pain

208
Q

Vomiting and swallowing reflexes are lost in what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 3

209
Q

Opioid anatgonist/reversal?

A

Naloxone

211
Q

PISS system is on what type of cylinders?

A

E cylinder

212
Q

What is the name of the respirometer used to measure tidal volume and minute volume?

A

Wright’s respirometer

213
Q

Which breathing system has a carbon dioxide absorber?

A

Rebreathing

215
Q

E cylinders N2O capacity in Liters

A

1600 L

216
Q

Inhalants are ______ at STP

A

Volatile

217
Q

How to A2 agonists work?

A

Decrease circulating catecholamines

218
Q

Reversal agent for xylazine

A

Yohimbine

220
Q

MOA of anticholinergics?

A

Inhibits Ach binding

221
Q

Malignant Hyperthermia is in what species? What anesthetic can bring it on? Symptoms? Treatment?

A

Pigs, Horses, Dogs, Humans

Halothane

Myopathy, increased temp, increased pCO2, muscle rigidity

Dantrolene, remove all inhalant equipment

223
Q

How long do the effects of Diazepam work?

A

104hr

224
Q

When should a charcoal absorber be replaced?

A

gains 50g

225
Q

Carrier gas for VIC?

A

Patient Gases

227
Q

If your patient is delirious after surgery, what can you do?

A

Sedate with Ace

Reversal

228
Q

MOA of phenothiazines?

A

Dopamine receptor antagonist

229
Q

A2 agonist that is only used in large animals?

A

Detomidine

231
Q

What type of vaporizers do we use? VOC or VIC?

A

VOC: out of circuit

232
Q

What percent of cardiac disease is diagnosed with just history?

A

66%

233
Q

Which ET tubes have an oval hole at the end?

A

Murphy

234
Q

DOA of fentanyl?

A

30m

235
Q

MOA of Buprenoprhine?

A

Mu agonist-partial

Kappa- antagonist

237
Q

The lower the Pbar, the ____ the uptake

A

Faster

239
Q

GGE is often added to what induction agents?

A

Thiopental

Ketamine

241
Q

What does doppler detect?

A

Returning blood flow

242
Q

What two ways can you get an indirect BP?

A

Doppler

Oscillometric

(Stethoscope-uncommon)

243
Q

At what state is oxygen in while inside the cylinder?

A

Gas

244
Q

How do you calculate saturated vapor pressure?

A

Vapor pressure
_____________ x 100

760

245
Q

Proton pump inhibitor that decreases gastric acid?

A

Omeprazole

Blocks H/K-ATPase

246
Q

Reversal of opioids?

A

Naloxone

Butorphanol- better (doesn’t undo anlagesia)

247
Q

SVP of Des?

A

660mmHg

248
Q

H cylinder oxygen capacity in Liters

A

6600

248
Q

Surgery on a patient with severe systemic disease is ASA what?

A

ASA3

249
Q

What stage of anesthesia is analgesia?

A

Stage 1

250
Q

Cardio effects of Etomidate?

A

Almost none when used IV alone!

252
Q

How long should equines be deprived of food before surgery?

A

4-12h

254
Q

Max time you can use TIVA?

A

1h

255
Q

What is the normal CO2 level on capnography?

A

35-45 EtCO2

257
Q

What is the gauge called for the blood pressure cuff?

A

Sphymamanometer

259
Q

ED95 of inhalants?

A

1.2-1.4 x MAC

260
Q

MAC of Halo?

A

0.87

262
Q

E and H N2O tank cylinder pressure

A

750psi @20C

263
Q

What receptor does Fentanyl act on?

A

pure mu agonist

265
Q

Ventricular repolarization is what part of the ECG?

A

T wave

266
Q

What is normal tidal volume?

A

10-20mls/kg

267
Q

What drug should be given to vWD and other clotting factor patients?

A

Desmopressin

268
Q

Initial cardiac response to A2 agonists?

A

Rise in BP, vasoconstriction

270
Q

ED50 for inhalants?

A

MAC

Immobility of patients

271
Q

Why is there no carbon dioxide absorber for non rebreathing systems?

A

Fresh gases was out CO2 (need higher rate)

272
Q

What artery is used for doppler in small ruminants?

A

Median

273
Q

What type of breathing system should a quick flush valve NEVER be used with?

A

Non-Rebreathing

274
Q

What class of drug is Acepromazine?

A

Phenothiazine

275
Q

For every degree F increase in temperature, there is a ___% increase in metabolic rate?

A

7%

276
Q

Effect of inhalants on renal CO?

A

Reduced—need to keep over 60 Systolic

277
Q

Part of the machine that allows you to bypass the vaporizer and directly deliver oxygen

A

Quick Flush

278
Q

Formula for calculating how much oxygen remain in E tank

A

2200psi/660L=psi reading/X Liters

279
Q

If you poorly use the quick flush valve, what can occur?

A

Air outside lung

Collapsed lung

Pneumothorax

280
Q

What regions of the body can you take a doppler on a dog?

A

Tail
Distal Hock
Dorsal Pedal

281
Q

Duration of action of Detomidine

A

90-100min

283
Q

State in which an animal under dissociative anesthesia is under

A

Catatonic State

284
Q

Adjunct to LA induction that causes muscle relaxation?

A

GGE

285
Q

Barbituate induction agent?

A

Thiopental

286
Q

In what state is N2O in within the tank?

A

Liquid/Gas

287
Q

Places where you can take body temp?

A

Esophagus

Pharynx

Rectal

Nasal

289
Q

Hypothermia body temp? With anesthesia?

A

96, 94

290
Q

Why do anesthetized patients need oxygen?

A

Prevent hypoxemia for respiratory depression

291
Q

A patient that is not expected to make it off the table, has extreme shock, is terminal or has severe trauma would be classified as what ASA?

A

ASA5

292
Q

What premed can cause paraphimosis in breeding stallions?

A

Ace

293
Q

What should the breathing system pressure gauge level be at?

A

Zero

294
Q

SVP of Iso?

A

240mmHg

295
Q

Reversal agent for dexmetomidine

A

Atipemazole

296
Q

What premed is contraindicated in epileptics?

A

Ace

298
Q

Max N2O exposure to non-patients?

A

25ppm

300
Q

What wave is atrial depolarization?

A

P wave

302
Q

How long does it take for Phenothiazines to take effect?

A

IV- 15m

IM- 30m

303
Q

How long do the effects of Phenothiazines last?

A

4-8h

NO REVERSAL AGENT

304
Q

ROA of Alphaxalone?

A

IV

IM

305
Q

If using Etomidate, you should make sure your premed has what effect?

A

Antinausea…Etomidate causes nausea, vomiting

306
Q

The P wave can be split in what species?

A

Lage animals

308
Q

In a rebreathing system, you should use a pediatric hose if you patient is under this weight…

A

15lb

309
Q

Cyclohexamine drugs such as ketamine induce what type of anesthesia

A

Dissociative

310
Q

Highest to lowest inhalant solubility?

A

Des

Sevo

Iso

Halo

311
Q

MAC of sevo?

A

2.3

312
Q

Ace is contraindicated in what breed?

A

Boxers

313
Q

Precision vaporizers work best with what type of SVP? (high/low)

A

High

314
Q

Why would you use a quick flush valve? (what situations)

A

CPR

To lower the anesthetic in the circuit

Speed up recovery

Flush residual vapors

315
Q

How should we adjust drug doses for pediatric and geriatric patients?

A

Decrease dose

316
Q

TIVA CRIs for SA?

A

Alphaxalone

Propofol

317
Q

Effect on pupils of opiods?

A

Dogs- miosis
Cats: mydriasis

318
Q

What type of anesthetic should you use with brain injury?

A

TIVA or PIVA

319
Q

What is SVP?

A

Saturated vapor pressure

320
Q

The eye is ventromedial in what stage of anesthesia?

A

Stage 3

321
Q

Atrial repolarization is what part of the ECG?

A

QRS

322
Q

Respiratory effects of propofol?

A

Depression

Apnea

May need to assist ventilation

323
Q

SVP of Sevo?

A

160mmHg

324
Q

What conditions will decrease your MAC?

______xemia

________capnia
_______tension
________thermia

and 4 more

A

Hypoxemia

Hypercapnia

Hypotension

Hypothermia

CNS depression

Young/Old

HCT

anesthetics

325
Q

ROAs of anesthestics

A

Inhalant
Injectable
Oral/Rectal

326
Q

Loss of sensation to a limited body area, but bigger than a localized area

A

Regional anesthesia

327
Q

Induction agents that are good for C-sections?

A

Etomidate

Propofol

328
Q

Explain the ECG leads in small animals

A

White- right elbow

Black- left elbow

Red- left stifle

329
Q

Are reflexes intact in stage 2 of anesthesia?

A

Yes

330
Q

Effects of anticholingergics? Cardio, etc

A

Increased HR

Increased BP

Decreased secretion (salivary, bronchial)

331
Q

With the capnography graph, a value over 40 and decreasing wave freq. points at what repiratory condition?

A

Hypoventilation

332
Q

Butorphanol is good for what type of pain?

A

Moderate visceral

333
Q

H cylinders H2O capacity in Liters

A

16,000L

Anesthesia (3 decks)

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