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EMD > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

0
Q

What is rule 1 of case entry?

A

If the chief complaint includes scene safety issues choose the protocol that best addresses those issues.

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1
Q

What does QHAT mean?

A

Queensland health authorized transport

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2
Q

What is rule 2 of case entry?

A

If the chief complaint involves trauma choose the protocol that best addresses mechanism of injury.

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3
Q

What is rule 3 of case entry?

A

If the chief complaint appears to be medical in nature choose the protocol that best fits the patients foremost symptom, with priority symptoms taking precedence.

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4
Q

What is rule 4 of case entry?

A

When the initial chief complaint appears to be fitting, go to protocol 12 regardless of consciousness and breathing status.

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5
Q

What are the call taker objectives?

A
  1. Receive calls
  2. Determine scene safety
  3. Triage the incident
  4. Obtain enough info to create a case
  5. Send to dispatch
  6. Provide appropriate PAI’s, PDI’s and emotional support
  7. Notify other services
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6
Q

State operations centre system co-ordination

A 
Brisbane
Southport
Maroochydore
Townsville
Rockhampton 
Towoomba
Cairns
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7
Q

What is the definition of QHAT?

A

A patient who meets the eligibility criteria for ambulance transport and in the opinion of a QHealth medical officer requires active management, observation and specialist transport by QAS personnel.

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8
Q

What is the definition of PAI’s?

A

Pre arrival instructions:
Medically approved scripted instructions to control the incident and provides assistance to the caller.
(Choking/airway/arrest, child birth)

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9
Q

What is the definition of PDI’s?

A

Post dispatch instructions:

Case specific advice, warnings and treatments relayed by trained EMD’s to callers after dispatching crews.

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10
Q

What is the definition of DLS?

A

Dispatch life support:

Allows you to navigate from PDI’s to a a suitable PAI or x-card based on the patients diagnosis.

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11
Q

What are the 5 P’s?

A 
Patients
People
Performance
Professionalism
Process
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12
Q

What are the resources you can use to provide advice to a caller?

A 
Mentor
PDI's 
CDS
PAI's
OCS
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13
Q

What does CDS mean?

A

Clinical deployment supervisor

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14
Q

What are the functions of a call card?

A
  1. Serve as a back up to cad
  2. Provide an accurate record of the information given
  3. Manual means of recording and tracking calls
  4. Can be used in a court of law
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15
Q

What are the groupings for acute classifications?

A

Alpha- CCP
Bravo- extended care/advanced care paramedic
Charlie- paramedic with defib
Delta- other clinical resource with defib
Echo- any clinical resource(no defib)
Foxtrot- first responder(rural areas)

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16
Q

What are the groupings for medical classifications?

A

Golf- PTO with defib

Hotel- PTO (no defib)

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17
Q

Explain a 1a response

A
  1. Immediate response of alpha and bravo units if a medical unit is closer it is to be dispatched as well
  2. Actual time critical
  3. A patient with abnormal or absent vital signs
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18
Q

Explain a 1B response.

A
  1. Immediate response of a bravo unit
  2. Emergent time critical
  3. Patients with injury/illness with high probability of deterioration even though vital signs are within normal limits.
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19
Q

Explain a 1C response.

A
  1. Immediate response of a bravo unit
  2. Potential time critical
  3. Patients have do not present with significant injury/illness but have a significant MOI or past history that indicates high potential for deterioration
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20
Q

Explain a 2A response.

A
  1. Immediate response of paramedic unit

2. Patient has injury/illness that requires immediate assessment/treatment by paramedics.

21
Q

Explain a 2B response.

A
  1. Immediate response of paramedic unit

2. Patient has injury/illness that requires assessment/treatment by paramedics.

22
Q

Explain a 2C response.

A
  1. Immediate response of paramedic unit

2. Patient has low acuity injury or illness that requires paramedic assessment or intervention

23
Q

Explain a 3A response.

A
  1. Time critical appointment
  2. Requires paramedics
  3. No lights and sirens
24
Q

Explain a 3B response.

A
  1. Time critical appointment
  2. Requires PTO
  3. No lights and sirens
25
Q

Explain a 4A response.

A
  1. Return from appointment/ed visit
  2. Paramedic required
  3. At QAS earliest convenience
  4. No lights and sirens
26
Q

Explain a 4B response.

A
  1. Return from appointment/ed visit
  2. PTO required
  3. At QAS earliest convenience
  4. No lights and sirens
27
Q

What interventions/mobility can a paramedic support?

A

IV, Monitor, stretcher, oxygen, walkers.

28
Q

What interventions/mobility can a PTO support?

A

Stretcher, walkers, oxygen.

29
Q

Explain the non department of health patient transport categories (categories 1&2).

A

Mata1(1A)- life threatening, actual time critical, L&S immediate emergency response
Mata2(1B)- potential life threatening, emergent time critical, L&S immediate emergency response

30
Q

Explain the non department of health patient transport categories (categories 3&4).

A 
Mata 3(2A)- non life threatening, acute injury or illness, urgent no L&S
Mata 4(2A)- non life threatening condition, semi urgent no L&S
31
Q

Explain the non department of health patient transport categories (category 5).

A 
Routine responses
A- paramedic
B- PTO
Mata 5(3A)
Matb 5(3B)
Mata 6(4A)
Matb 6(4B)
32
Q

Provide some enhancing questions.

A
  1. What is the name of complex
  2. What is the best entry
  3. Is the complex gated/security code
  4. Is there an internal street name
  5. Can someone meet paramedics
  6. What level is the patient on
  7. Can we get a STR to patient
  8. Is someone with patient
33
Q

What are the main clients of the QAS?

A 
QHealth
General public
QPS
QFES
Q Rail
Airports 
Energex 
NRS
military 
Gas company
34
Q

Who do you need to notify in case of RTC?

A

QPS
QFES
OCS(in case of multi-cas incident)

35
Q

Who do you need to notify in case of Chemical incident?

A

QPS
QFES
OCS

36
Q

Who do you need to notify in case of Train derailment?

A

QPS
QFES
OCS
Q Rail

37
Q

Explain code 1&2 on DOH ordering guide.

A

Red1B(1B)- L&S paramedic
Red2A(2B)- no L&S paramedic immediate no delay
Red2B(2B)- no L&S paramedic 30mins from receipt of call
Red2C(2C)- no L&S paramedic 1hr from receipt of call

38
Q

Explain code 3 on DOH ordering guide.

A

Pink3A/B(3A/B)- paramedic/PTO agreed time for today, not available at facility
Lime (etc)- appt time critical from QH facility
Tan (etc)- appointment time critical from residence

39
Q

Explain code 4 on DOH ordering guide.

A

Blue4A/B(4A/B)- no L&S para/PTO return from appt back to QH
Teal (etc.)- return from appt/ED visit back to residence
Aqua (etc.)- discharge from from ward to usual residence

40
Q

Give 2 examples of a 1A response.

A

Ineffective breathing

Cardiac/respiratory arrest

41
Q

Give 2 examples of a 1B response.

A

Difficulty speaking between breaths

Asthma not alert

42
Q

Give 2 examples of a 1C response.

A

Chest pain clammy

Chest pain cocaine use

43
Q

Give 2 examples of a 2A response.

A

Fall to possibly dangerous body area

Headache with numbness

44
Q

Give 2 examples of a 2B response.

A

Sunburn

Assault to ankle

45
Q

Give 2 examples if a 2C response.

A

VD

Gout

46
Q

Give 2 examples of a 3A response.

A

Dialysis appt with IV insitu

Cardiac appointment with monitoring

47
Q

Give 2 examples of a 3B response.

A

Wound dressing appt nil interventions

Dialysis appt nil interventions

48
Q

What questions do you need to ask if there is a plane crash?

A
  1. Size of aircraft?
  2. Any visible markings
  3. Fires or explosions
  4. Civilian or military?
  5. Access to the site and staging areas
  6. People on board?
  7. What kind of cargo?
49
Q

What to do during a bomb call?

A 
Stay on the line
Remain calm
Follow AFP checklist
Document everything
Report to QPS
Advise OCS
50
Q

QHAT transports include:

A 
Urgent and non urgent transports between QH facilities 
Hospital to home
QH hospital to private hosp
Residence to QH facility 
Short distance cross border transports

EMD (2 decks)

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