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CNS > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the nervous system play a dominant role in?

A

Coordination, association and integration

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2
Q

What are the parts of the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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3
Q

How many nerve trunks are there within the PNS?

A

86

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4
Q

How many cranial nerve pairs are there?

A

12

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5
Q

How many spinal nerve pairs are there?

A

31

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6
Q

Define ganglia

A

Groups of nervecell bodies within the PNS

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7
Q

Describe the somatic nervous system

A

Innervates skeletal muscle, has efferent and afferent nerve fibers, involves the CNS and PNS, it is cholinergic, only takes one neuron to get to the target

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8
Q

Define efferent

A

Goes away from the CNS

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9
Q

Define afferent

A

Goes toward the CNS

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10
Q

Describe the autonomic nervous system

A

innervates glandular epithelium, smooth and cardiac muscle, no conscious control, involes the CNS and PNS, has 2 subdivisions, sympathetic and parasympathetic

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11
Q

Describe parasympathetic control

A

Neurons are located in the CNS and PNS, only nerves that can carry efferent information in this system are cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10 and sacral nerves2, 3, 4 (craniosacral subdivision), requires 2 neurons to get to the target, preganglionic must be long and postganglionic must be short, both release ACH (rest and digest)

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12
Q

Describe sympathetic control

A

(Fight or flight), carry efferent fibers from T1 to L2, also require 2 neurons, the preganglionic must be short and the postganglionic must be long, preganglionic release ACH and postganglionic release norepinephrine, adrenergic system, except where ACH is released at the target are known (sweat glands and arrector pilli muscles)

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13
Q

Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

A

Have the opposite effect on the target, parasympathetic has a ratio of 1 preganglionic neuron to 2 postganglionic neurons, which makes it slower. The sympathetics have a ratio of 1 preganglionic to 17 postganglionic neurons, which makes it more widespread and less specific. Not everything has both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons going to it

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14
Q

What is the third subdivision of the nervous system?

A

The intrinsic system of the gut, causes peristaltic reflexes within the gut, runs from the esophagus to the anus

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15
Q

Write out the diagram of the 3 primary brain vesicles.

A

See page 9 in notes for answer

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16
Q

Describe the flexures in development

A

The neural plate forms into the neural groove and the neural groove forms the neural tube

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17
Q

Which part of the embryonic brain is in the ventral side? Dorsal side?

A

Dorsal- cervical flexure

Ventral- cephalic flexure

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18
Q

How much does the brain weight at birth? When we’re an adult? How much oxygen do they use, respectively?

A

Baby- 10% of body weight, takes up 50-60% of oxygen

Adult- 2% of body weight, takes up 20% of oxygen

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19
Q

What does the neural tube give rise to?

A

CNS structures, like neuroepithelial cells

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20
Q

What do neuroepithelial cells give rise to?

A

Neuroblasts –> neurons

Glioblasts –> astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

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21
Q

Describe glioblast cells

A

Structural support for CNS, undifferentiated, can go through mitosis, give rise to astrocytes and oligodendrocytes. They are the functional connective tissue of the CNS and there are about 5-10x more glioblast cells than neurons in the adult human.

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22
Q

Describe astrocytes

A

They are the most numerous cell in the CNS, there are two types, protoplasmic (found in grey matter), and fibrous (found in white matter), they serve as structural support, are a part of the BBB, store what little glucose can be stored in the CNS and play a dominant role in forming scar like tissue after a CNS injurty

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23
Q

Describe oligodendrocytes

A

Less than astrocytes, but still numerous, two types, perineuronal cells (grey matter, possible nutrient role), interfascicular (white matter, form myelin around axons in CNS)

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24
Q

Describe ependymal cells

A

Line central canal and ventricles, serve as a leaky barrier, classified as simple cuboidal, secrete CSF.

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25
Q

Name and describe the different glial tumors discussed in class.

A

Astrocytoma (most common), glioblastoma (most lethal), ependymoma (block CSF from flowing, cause intracranial pressure)

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26
Q

Describe ganglia

A

Mesodermally derived, their phagocytic function is to clear dead and damaged tissue

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27
Q

Describe the neuroblast

A

They are along the neural tube, neuroblasts, depend on glial cells to help migrate, radiation and alcohol exposure in the embryonic stages can cause horrible effects to the fetus

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28
Q

Describe and draw out a unipolar cell

A

see page 15 of notes for picture found in DRG, visceral or somatosensory neuron

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29
Q

Describe and draw a bipolar cell

A

see page 15 of notes for picture 2 types- golgi type (long axon, descending part of spinal cord), golgi type II (short axon, more numerous)

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30
Q

Describe sensory neurons

A

Carry information toward the CNS, almost always in the PNS are the cell bodies. Afferent

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31
Q

Describe motor neurons

A

Carry information away from CNS, all cell bodies within CNS. Efferent

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32
Q

Describe internuncial neurons

A

Neurons that are entirely within the CNS

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33
Q

Describe commissural neurons

A

Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to the other exact structure.

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34
Q

Describe projection neurons

A

Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to a completely different structure

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35
Q

Describe ipsilateral neurons

A

Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to another on the same side of the CNS

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36
Q

Describe contralateral neurons

A

Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that go from one structure to another on different sides of the CNS

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37
Q

Describe intrasegmental neurons

A

Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that are in the spinal cord and begin and end on the same cord level

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38
Q

Describe intersegmental neurons

A

Neurons that are entirely within the CNS that are in the spinal cord and begin in one segment of the cord and end in a different segment of the cord

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39
Q

Refer to page 17, Figure 6 in the notes. Label each part of the multipolar neuron

A

:)

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40
Q

What shapes can the parikaryon be?

A

Round, oval, fusiform, stellae, pyramidal

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41
Q

Axoaxonic

A

Least common, come straight off the axon

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42
Q

Axodendritic

A

Axon connects to dendrites

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43
Q

Axosomatic

A

Axon connects directly to perikaryon

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44
Q

What are Nissl bodies?

A

Clumps of RER, ribosomes and iron

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45
Q

What is chromatolysis?

A

when the Nissl bodies respond quickly and appear to dissolve

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46
Q

Microtubules, microfilaments, neurofilaments. Put them in order from smallest to largest.

A

Microfilaments, neurofilaments, microtubules

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47
Q

What is axoplasmic transport? Describe the two types.

A

Movement of raw materials within the cell
Slow transport- intracellular movement of protein building blocks, anterograde, low energy, spread related to length
Fast transport- movement of synaptic vesicles, lysosomes and certain proteins, anterograde and retrograde, higher energy, not spread related to length.

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48
Q

Define neuron

A

the anatomical and functional unit of the nervous system

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49
Q

Define neuron process

A

an extension of the neuron away from its cell body

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50
Q

Define dendrite

A

a neuron process conducting an impulse toward the cell body

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51
Q

Define axon

A

a single neuron process carrying the impulse away from the cell body toward a synaptic or neuromuscular junction

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52
Q

Define hillock

A

a raised area of the cell body from which an axon arises

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53
Q

Nerve fiber

A

a dominantly long process of a neuron, usually an axon

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54
Q

Where are neurons ALWAYS myelinated? What cell creates the myelin? How do they form?

A

PNS, Schwann cell, they form a jelly-like roll

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55
Q

What cell myelinates the neurons in the CNS?

A

Interfascicular oligodendrocytes

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56
Q

What are the two things that determine the conduction velocity of a neuron?

A

Myelination, the more there is, the faster there is.

Axon diameter

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57
Q

What are the main differences between the connective tissue covers?

A

endoneurium is the innermost connective tissue covering and is highly vascularized
perineurium is the middle connective tissue and is elastic
epineurium is the outermost connective tissue covering and is virtually inelastic.

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58
Q

Define commisures

A

mid line white matter connectors inside the CNS

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59
Q

Define peduncles

A

a stalk or pillar-like formation of CNS white matter

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60
Q

What are some of the common CNS neurotransmitters?

A

ACH, NE, Dopamine, Serotonin, GABA, Glycine, Glutamate

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61
Q

What are some of the common neurohormones for the CNS?

A

ADH, oxytocin, Releasing Factor Neurohormones

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62
Q

Describe the Dura Mater

A

Known as the “tough mother”, covers the entire CNS

63
Q

Name the two layers of the Dura Mater that are within the cranial vault. What is the difference between the two?

A

Endosteal dura- highly vascular, fused to he skull bones

Meningeal dura- separated from the endosteal dura except where a falx and dural venous sinus is created

64
Q

How many layers of dura are in the vertebral canal?

A

1

65
Q

What is the name of the “real space” in the vertebral canal? What does it contain?

A

epidural space, contains areolar, adipose connective tissue and internal vertebral venous plexus

66
Q

What are the three parts that the spinal cord is attached to (dura mater)?

A

foramen magnum, intervertebral foramen, filum terminale externum

67
Q

Draw and label the different parts of the dural falces

A

Figure 14, page 31

68
Q

Where does the falx cerebri attach?

A

Crista Galli and internal occipital protuberance

69
Q

Where are the tentorium cerebelli located? What do they cover?

A

Transverse cerebral fissure. Over the cerebellum and under the occipital lobes of the cerebellum.

70
Q

What is the meningeal dura that forms a roof over the sella turcica?

A

Diaphragma sellae

71
Q

Is the dura a vascular tissue?

A

yes, but there are few capillaries that feed the dura, but there are many meningeal arteries that travel on the dura

72
Q

Do nerves innervate the dura?

A

Yes, supratentorially, cranial nerves five and seven, infratentorially, cranial nerve 10

73
Q

Describe the arachnoid mater.

A

Even though it is a non-vascular membrane, there are vessels that penetrate it. Meningiomas tend to start in the arachnoid mater, but they attach to the dura so they appear as though they car dural tumors. It does not dip into fissures except where the dura does

74
Q

What membranes make up the leptomeninges?

A

Arachnoid and pia mater

75
Q

Be able to label and explain each part of figure 16 on page 34

A

:)

76
Q

Describe the Cisterna Magna.

A

Also called the Cerebromedullary Cistern, located posterior to the M.O. and superior to the foramen magnum

77
Q

Describe the Cisterna ambiens.

A

Also called the superior cistern or the cistern of the great cerebral vein, located deep within the transverse cerebral fissure; great cerebral vein of Galen, pineal gland and midbrains collicular bodies are found here.

78
Q

Describe the pontine cistern.

A

Anterior aspect of the pons, lateral foramina of Luschka is located here

79
Q

What is the Lateral foramina of Luchka?

A

a pair of openings that enter this cistern laterally from the fourth ventricle

80
Q

Describe the interpeduncular Cistern.

A

It is the origin of cranial nerve 3, in the region between the cerebral peduncles on the anterior aspect of the midbrain, much of the cerebral arterial circle of Willis vascularization is found along the epipa of this cistern

81
Q

Describe the lumbar cistern.

A

Wheere CSF fluid is taken (like for a spinal tap), extends around the conus medularis and all the way down to the upper sacral canal (S2 vertebral level)

82
Q

What is the function of the arachnoid villi?

A

allows used CSF

83
Q

Describe the Pia Mater.

A

the inner most layer of membrane, dips into all fissures unlike the other two.

84
Q

Describe the outer part of the pia mater.

A

collagen bundles continuous with the arachnoid trebeculae

85
Q

Describe denticulate ligaments

A

formed by the pia, they penetrate the arachnoid and fuse with the dura

86
Q

Describe the filum terminale internum

A

formed primarily by the outer pial layer

87
Q

What is a pial coat?

A

The deeper portion of the pia mater that surrounds the larger blood vessels and dips in and out of the CNS tissue

88
Q

Describe an epidural hematoma.

A

Between the skull and the periosteal dura, commonly due to a rupture of the middle meningeal artery, results in an increase in intracranial pressure

89
Q

Describe a subdural hematoma

A

Between meningeal dura and arachnoid, commonly due to rupture of bridging veins from shear injury. Can be chronic (old patients) or acute (severe trauma)

90
Q

Describe a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

A

collection of blood in subarachnoid space, can be traumatic (cerebral contusions) or non-traumatic (spontaneous, associated with ruptured aneurysm or A-V malformations, “worst headache of my life”)

91
Q

CVA is a leading cause of death in males or females over 25 having ____ ____ ____ or __________ or both.

A

high blood pressure, atherosclerosis

92
Q

The _____ _____ _____ and its branches are the most common reported site for strokes.

A

middle cerebral artery

93
Q

Draw out and label each of the arteries in the vertebrobasilar and internal carotid artery distributions. (Figure 19)

A

:)

94
Q

Which artery commonly has anomalies associated with it?

A

anterior communicating artery

95
Q

Which artery is most commonly involvedt with strokes associated with cervical manipulation?

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

96
Q

Where is the basilar artery located?

A

on top of the pons

97
Q

Which artery supplies the cervical vertebrae?

A

posterior spinal

98
Q

Which artery supplies the median and lateral part of the temporal lobe?

A

posterior cerebral artery

99
Q

Which artery lays along the longitudinal fissure?

A

anterior cerebral artery

100
Q

Which artery supplies the medial aspect of the cerebrum?

A

anterior cerebral artery

101
Q

Which artery supplies the occipital lobe?

A

posterior cerebral artery

102
Q

Which artery supplies the temporal lobe?

A

middle cerebral artery

103
Q

Which arteries are the major contributors to supplying the cord?

A

anterior and posterior spinal arteries, segmental arteries

104
Q

Where do the major arteries enter the cord?

A

IVF at various vertebral levels

105
Q

Which artery supplies the cord the most?

A

segemental artery contributions

106
Q

Which part of the cord has minimal anastomoses, making them more vulnerable?

A

T1-T3 (posteriorly), T4 and L1 anteriorly

107
Q

What is the pial coat?

A

a slight cuff of the pia mater that the blood vessels penetrate.

108
Q

What is the perivascular space (Virchow-Robins space)?

A

the space between the blood vessel and the pia.

109
Q

Where are dense beds of capillaries found?

A

grey matter

110
Q

What is the most common capillary type?

A

continuous capillary

111
Q

Describe continuous capillaries.

A

most common type, lacks holes and fenestra, has a thin wall and tight junctions between cells, basement membrane is thick

112
Q

What are some of the parts of the CNS that have capillary types other than continuous?

A

pineal body, infundibular stalk, choroid plexus, supraoptic crest, area postrema, subfornical organ

113
Q

Why do we have a BBB?

A

because a lot of the CNS has continuous capillaries, which are not very permeable. They also have astrocytes for support

114
Q

Name some substances that can cross the BBB.

A

(lipid soluble) vitamin B6 and B12, L-dopa, caffeine, alcohol, cocaine, nicotine

115
Q

Name some substances that cannot cross the BBB.

A

(water soluble) dopamine, botulin toxin

116
Q

Where do most cerebral veins penetrate then drain?

A

penetrate the arachnoid mater and meningeal dura, drain into the dural venous sinus

117
Q

What drains into the dural venous sinus?

A

cerebral veins, emissary veins and diploic veins

118
Q

What do diploic veins drain?

A

bone

119
Q

What do emissary veins drain?

A

scalp

120
Q

What vein takes blood out of the brain area?

A

internal jugular

121
Q

Describe the CSF pathway

A
  1. start at the lateral ventricles
  2. move into the 3rd ventricle
  3. move to the 4th ventricle via the cerebral aquaduct
  4. from there it can go to…
    cisterna magna via the medial foramen
    pontine cistern via the lateral foramen
    the central canal
122
Q

What is the only way that CSF can move from one lateral ventricle to another?

A

interventricular foramen

123
Q

Draw and label the different parts of the dural venous sinus. (figure 22)

A

:)

124
Q

Where does the superior saggital DVS drain and where does it go?

A

confluence of sinuses to the right transverse DVS

125
Q

Where does the inferior saggital DVS drain and where does it go?

A

drains in to the rectus sinus, into the confluence of sinuses and to the left transverse DVS

126
Q

What does the superior petrosal DVS drain into?

A

right transverse DVS

127
Q

What does the inferior petrosal DVS drain into?

A

sigmoid sinus

128
Q

What does the occipital DVS drain into?

A

left transverse DVS

129
Q

What DVS does most CSF enter? How?

A

superior saggital DVS by penetrating arachnoid villi

130
Q

The inferior sagittal DVS runs along a ___ ___

A

free surface

131
Q

Where is the straight sinus located?

A

at the junction of falx cerebri, tentorium cerebelli and falx cerebri

132
Q

Which vein is not embedded in the dura?

A

great cerebral vein of Galen

133
Q

What is the confluence of sinuses also known as?

A

torcular Herophili

134
Q

What does the transverse DVS run along?

A

fixed occipital bone margins of the tentorium cerebelli

135
Q

Where do middle ear veins drain?

A

superior petrosal sinuses

136
Q

Be able to draw and label the circular DVS on page 49

A

:)

137
Q

What runs in the middle of the circular DVS?

A

infundibular stalk

138
Q

What structure separates the lateral ventricles anteriorly?

A

septum pellucidum

139
Q

Where does the choroid plexus run?

A

starts along the roof of the inferior horn, goes to the atrium and along the floor of the body, through the interventricular foramina and spreads onto the roof of the 3rd ventricle.

140
Q

Name the 5 openings of the 4th ventricle.

A

cerebral aqueduct, central canal, median foramen, left lateral foramen, right lateral foramen

141
Q

What are the functions of the CSF?

A

shock absorber, bouancy, vitamin C absorption, hormone transport, lymph replacement

142
Q

How many mL of CSF will a person have on average?

A

80-150 mL

143
Q

What are some causes of CSF obstruction?

A

neoplastic growths, congenitally small openings or aqueducts

144
Q

Where can CSF obstruction occur?

A

interventricular foramina, median and lateral foramen, cerebral aqueduct or subarachnoid space

145
Q

What are the symptoms of CSF obstruction?

A

hydrocephalus, nausea, vomiting, headache, blurred vision

146
Q

What are some clinical aids to help people with CSF obstruction?

A

pneumoencephalography, ventriculargraphy, myelograms or CAT scans

147
Q

Describe surgical shunts

A

used to open an area so CSF can get through, there is no special treatment when it comes to chiropractic, we just need to know it’s there

148
Q

How many layers does the dura have in the cranium? Spine?

A

2 layers, 1 loose layer in the canal

149
Q

Where is the epidural space real?

A

spine

150
Q

What part(s) of the meninges are attached to the dura?

A

arachnoid and pia

151
Q

What else does the pia mater do?

A

creates denticulate ligaments and filum terminale internum

152
Q

What are the different nerves that can carry efferent information in the parasympathetic system?

A

C 3, 7, 9, 10

S 2, 3, 4

153
Q

What are the different nerves that can carry efferent information in the sympathetic pathway?

A

T1-L2

CNS (1 decks)

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