Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The development of phocomelia in children whose mothers used thalidomide to assist sleep during pregnancy resulted in the passage of

A

Kefauver-Harris Amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

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2
Q

The first apothecare opened in which city?

A

Baghdad

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3
Q

The first inter-professional work agreement was between

A

apothecaries and physicians

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4
Q

The physician who first described acute and chronic illnesses was

A

Thomas Sydenham

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5
Q

Until the 20th century, virtually all medications were derived from which source?

A

Plants

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6
Q

Who first “proved” scientifically that the leaves of the foxglove plant were therapeutic in treating patients with heart failure?

A

William Withering

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7
Q

The incidence of adverse drug reactions documented in US hospitals in 1998 was

A

6.7%

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8
Q

Which drug-related legislation was enacted due to the contamination of smallpox and diphtheria vaccines by tetanus organisms, killing some children?

A

Biologics Control Act of 1902

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9
Q

Who noted that newer antibiotics were needed because of PCN’s “Achilles heel”?

A

Alexander Fleming

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10
Q

Who said: “with regard to infection, I say where there is infection, the fault is in those who have charge of the disease, not in the disease?”

A

Florence Nightengale

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11
Q

Within the catastrophic phase of the Standardized Medicare Part D plan, the patient pays what percentage of drug costs?

A

5%

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12
Q

The initial out-of-pocket amount each patient who has enrolled in a Medicare Part D plan in 2014 will pay for drugs is

A

$310

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13
Q

This was the only federal program that had cost less than the projected amount anticipated

A

Medicare Part D

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14
Q

The lack of an adequate profit margin has inhibited many drug manufacturers from producing…

A

generic drugs

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15
Q

During the first phase of the Medicare Part D plan, the patient pays what percentage of drug costs up to a maximum?

A

100%

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16
Q

The Medicare Modernization Act that started the Medicare Part D plan was signed into law on

A

2003

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17
Q

substance not normally found in the body

A

xenobiotic

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18
Q

The drug with which a metabolic enzyme, transporter, or receptor is altered, moved, or changes physiological response.

A

substrate

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19
Q

examples of prodrug

A

codeine, enalapril, and tamoxifen

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20
Q

The prodrug codeine is not active until it is metabolized into

A

morphine

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21
Q

provides protection by pumping xenobiotics out of cells

A

P-gp

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22
Q

An efflux pump that uses ATP to remove the drug from the cell and out of the body.

A

P-gp

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23
Q

major substrate of P-gp is

A

digoxin

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24
Q

When drugs inhibit P-gp function, what will happen to digoxin levels?

A

will rise

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25
Q

Drugs that induce P-gp function

A

rifampin and St. John’s Wort

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26
Q

CYP3A enzyme is mostly found in

A

liver and small intestine

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27
Q

CYP enzyme and drug metabolism

A

many drugs can be metabolized by more than one CYP enzyme, resulting in a patient’s variable responses to meds.

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28
Q

enzyme used to metabolize dextromethorphan

A

CYP2D6

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29
Q

Bergamottin, found in grapefruit juice, is an inhibitor of

A

CYP34A

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30
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes NSAIDS

A

CYP2C9

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31
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes oral meds for type 2 diabetes

A

CYP2C9

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32
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes angiotensin II receptor blockers

A

CYP2C9

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33
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes the active form of warfarin

A

CYP2C9

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34
Q

in early course of therapy, phenytoin is a..

A

substrate and an inhibitor of CYP2C9

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35
Q

ADRs are rarely fully known during

A

phase 3 clinical trials

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36
Q

If a patient is an extensive metabolizer of a drug and given another drug that inhibits the metabolism, then the dose of the needed medication would need to be

A

decreased- concentration in blood will increase, causing a lower dose needed

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37
Q

inhibition of the metabolism of this drug would make it ineffective in relieving symptoms

A

codeine

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38
Q

Codeine

A

prodrug and CYP2D6

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39
Q

hydrocodone (Lortab)

A

prodrug and CYP2D6

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40
Q

Enalapril (vasotec)

A

prodrug

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41
Q

this CYP450 enzyme metabolizes most drugs in use today

A

CYP34A

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42
Q

The safety profile of a new drug is determine during which phase of new drug process

A

Post marketing phase 4

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43
Q

CYP1A2 inhibitor that is available OTC and cause drug interaction

A

cimetidine (Tagamet)

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44
Q

phenytoin later in course of therapy is a

A

inducer of CYP2C9

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45
Q

The effect of phenytoin is most notable when..

A

more than one inhibitor of CYP2C9 is used simultaneously.

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46
Q

common interacting drugs with narrow therapeutic index drugs

A

amiodarone, clarithromycin, and azole antifungals

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47
Q

inhibitors g-pg function

A

clarithromycin, erythromycin, amiodarone, cardizem, cardene, verapamil, felopdipine

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48
Q

Meds metabolized by CYP34A

A

antihistamines, antibiotics, lipid-lowering drugs, antihypertensives, protease inhibitors, and azole antifungals

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49
Q

Meds metabolized by CYP2D6

A

SSRIs, pain meds, beta blockers

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50
Q

Meds metabolized by CYP2C19

A

proton pump inhibitors, NSAIDs, beta blockers

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51
Q

Meds metabolized by CYP2C9

A

NSAIDs, type 2 diabetes, angiotensin II blockers, active warfarin

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52
Q

Meds metabolized by CYP1A2

A

acetaminophen, warfarin, theophylline, caffeine, Valium

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53
Q

Not included in the Medicare Part D total cost of drugs during plan year

A

monthly premiums

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54
Q

Who assured that only physicians could prescribed meds in the US?

A

Hubert Humphrey in 1951

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55
Q

When did written prescriptions first appear?

A

In the 18th century by apothecaries

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56
Q

Where did apothecaries first write written prescriptions?

A

Europe

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57
Q

special populations

A

geriatric, pregnant women, and the elderly

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58
Q

legislation that helped develop drugs fro less common illnesses like HIV, Huntingtons, and ALS

A

Orphan Drug Act of 1983

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59
Q

what the body does to the drug

A

pharmacokinetics

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60
Q

pharmacokinetics involes

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination

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61
Q

how the drug influences the body

A

phamacodynamics

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62
Q

The official name assigned by the manufacturer with approval of the US adopted name council

A

Generic name

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63
Q

The patent name given to the med by the company marketing the drug

A

Trade name

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64
Q

Which of the drug names can vary?

A

Trade name

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65
Q

Drug leaving the site from which it was administered

A

absorption

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66
Q

amount of an administered drug that reaches its final site of action

A

bioavailability

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67
Q

Indicates that two drugs contain the same active ingredients, are identical in strength, dosage, and route.

A

bioequivalence

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68
Q

Bioequivalence indicates that a generic drug will have a variability in bioavailability of…

A

+ or - 20%

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69
Q

Bioavailability is most important for drugs that have

A

a narrow therapeutic index or window

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70
Q

The four factors governing drug absorption are

A

drug characteristics, routes of administration, blood flow, and cell membrane characteristics.

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71
Q

Non-ionized drugs are ___ soluble than ionized drugs

A

more

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72
Q

Non ionized drugs are

A

lipophilic drugs

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73
Q

Acidic drugs become this in the acidic environment of the stomach

A

non-ionized

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74
Q

interactions between food and drugs interfere with which phase of pharmacokinetics?

A

absorption

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75
Q

Non-ionic drugs with high lipid solubility are ideally suited for which route?

A

sublingual

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76
Q

Meds passed orally pass through liver and become extensively metabolized causing little or no drug to remain active.

A

First-pass metabolism

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77
Q

This type of skin will absorb drugs more readily

A

non-intact skin

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78
Q

Does first pass occur with meds taken rectally?

A

Yes but less first pass metabolism

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79
Q

routes that avoid first-pass

A

sublingual and inhalation

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80
Q

Proteins embedded in the lipid bilayer.

A

Integral proteins

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81
Q

Proteins located at one surface or another and bound to an integral protein.

A

Peripheral proteins

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82
Q

What kinds of molecules are moved by ABC pumps?

A

small molecules, phospholipids, and lipophilic drugs

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83
Q

P class pumps use ATP to move __ across cell membranes

A

ions

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84
Q

AV class pumps move ___ across cell membranes

A

protons

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85
Q

Two phases of distribution phase

A

movement into bloodstream and delivery of drug into tissue.

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86
Q

Description of the amount of space into which a drug can be spread or distrubted

A

volume of distribution

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87
Q

If a drug has a large volume of distribution, then it is found…

A

throughout the body

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88
Q

This drug has the highest volume of distribution

A

lipophilic

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89
Q

These drugs will accumulate in geriatric patients due to less muscle

A

lipophilic

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90
Q

If a geriatric patient loses weight, what can happen if taking lipophilic drugs?

A

The patient is losing muscle and gaining more fat, placing them at risk of accumulation and toxicity.

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91
Q

the most common protein that can alter the distribution of drugs

A

albumin

92
Q

Drugs that are highly protein bound should be prescribed in ___ doses for patients with low serum albumin

A

lower

93
Q

chemical inactivation of a drug through conversion to a more water-soluble compound

A

biotransformation

94
Q

biotransformation occurs mostly in ….

A

the liver

95
Q

Makes drugs more soluble through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Drug still has some pharmacologic activity.

A

Phase I

96
Q

Makes drugs even more soluble in water and results in drug having no pharmacological activity.

A

Phase II

97
Q

Major groupings of cytochrome system are…

A

numbered and are involved in drug interactions.

98
Q

Groupings based upon similarity in chemical structure is indicated by

A

letters A, B, and C

99
Q

Subgroupings are indicated by

A

numbers

100
Q

individual variations in the P450 enzyme are due to variations in genetic material

A

genetic polymorphism

101
Q

Any drug that causes the enzyme to metabolize slowly

A

inhibitor

102
Q

a drug that causes the enzyme to metabolize the substrate more quickly

A

inducer

103
Q

amount of time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by one half

A

half life

104
Q

Half life depends on

A

clearance and volume distribution.

105
Q

Half life is useful for

A

estimating time it takes to reach a steady state of a drug after dosage regimen has been started.

106
Q

Steady state of a drug is reached after

A

4-5 half lives

107
Q

A drug that has affinity for and stimulates physiologic activity at cell receptors.

A

agonist

108
Q

A drug that inhibits or counteracts effects produced by other drug or eliminates undesired effects caused by illness.

A

antagonist

109
Q

Alcohol/drug interaction

A

alcohol can inhibit a drug’s metabolism by competing for the same set of metabolizing enzymes.

110
Q

measure of drug safety calculated by dividing the toxic dose by the therapeutic dose.

A

therapeutic index.

111
Q

-olone

A

corticosteroids and anabolic steroids

112
Q

-tadine

A

antihistamine and antiviral

113
Q

Herd immunity is dependent on

A

the number of vaccine protected individuals

114
Q

Against which benign illnesses does HPV vaccine protect?

A

anogenital wards and recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP)

115
Q

HPV should be given for these malignant conditions

A

oropharynx and anogential

116
Q

If live vaccines cannot be given on the same day, then

A

they should be given 30 days apart

117
Q

Vaccines that contain live viruses

A
  1. smallpox
  2. typhoid
  3. adenovirus
  4. influenza
  5. rotavirus
  6. smallpox
  7. MMR
  8. varicella
  9. herpes zoster
  10. yellow fever.
118
Q

When is it appropriate to delay vaccinating a child?

A

immunocompromised, severe allergic reaction, corticosteroids

119
Q

Who should receive the pneumococcal vaccine?

A

adults age 65 or older, or adults 19-64 with immonocompromised conditions

120
Q

Which pneumococcal vaccine should be given first to a unvaccinated adult age 35?

A

PPSV23

121
Q

Influenza vaccine is indicated for…

A

all persons age 6 and older

122
Q

Which Hepatitis is more urgent to prevent?

A

Hep B

123
Q

Hep A dosing

A

2 doses 6 months apart

124
Q

Hep B dosing

A

3 doses over a period of 6 months

125
Q

Recommendation to make sure a healthcare worker is immune to hepatitis B

A

blood titer testing for antibody antigens 1-2 months after the last dose of vaccine.

126
Q

Pertussis vaccine is now available in

A

acellular form that is safer.

127
Q

problem with acellular pertussis vaccine

A

has waning immunity and results in pertussis outbreaks.

128
Q

The definition of antimicrobial resistance includes…

A

all groups, bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites.

129
Q

otitis media is primarily caused by

A

viruses

130
Q

Who first noted antimicrobial resistance?

A

Fleming

131
Q

Standard treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea is

A

one dose of Rocephin 250 mg IM

132
Q

A drug given to a patient with group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis (GABHS) who is allergic to PCN is given…

A

macrolide

133
Q

The best antibiotic is

A

narrowest spectrum and lowest toxicity

134
Q

macrolides

A

erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin

135
Q

important teaching for macrolides

A

can reduce efficacy of birth control

136
Q

education for tetracyclines

A

avoid sun exposure

137
Q

types of fluroquinolones

A

ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin, and levofloxacin

138
Q

treatment of fluroquinolones should be reserved for…

A

moderate infections, infections that are resistant to other atx, UTIs.

139
Q

fluroquinolones should not be taken with

A

milk, antacids, or iron products

140
Q

sulfonamides are mostly used for

A

UTIs

141
Q

common sulfonamides

A

TMP/SMX

142
Q

can a person receive a vaccine if on atx?

A

Yes

143
Q

Concerning vaccines, pregnant women cannot receive

A

live vaccines

144
Q

Avoid giving this during a viral cold in children

A

aspirin

145
Q

The most important determinant of teratogenicity is

A

Timing of drug exposure.

146
Q

Most critical time for a pregnant woman to avoid drug exposure

A

Weeks 3-8

147
Q

Neonates have the highest proportion of

A

Body water

148
Q

Avoid aspirin in

A

Children

149
Q

If a drug in stored in adipose tissue (lipophilic) then it cannot

A

Excreted

150
Q

Patients undergoing splenectomy or immunosuppressive therapy should receive the pneuomococcal vaccine

A

at least 2 weeks prior

151
Q

Vaccine indicated for newborn children

A

Hep B

152
Q

There is an association between the varicella vaccine with

A

ASA and Reye’s syndrome

153
Q

Dosing for adults 65 and older who want the varicella vaccine

A

one dose needed

154
Q

DOC for GABHS

A

PCN

155
Q

Which special populations are at risk for altered metabolism of drugs by the kidney?

A

Elderly and children

156
Q

Changing a prodrug into its active form occurs during which stage?

A

Metabolism

157
Q

ADR of sulfa drugs

A

Steven Johnson Syndrome

158
Q

% of population that has a polymorphism of one of the CYP450 enzymes

A

1%

159
Q

A patient has a polymorphism of a drug metabolizing enzyme that inhibits a drug’s metabolism. If the drug is a prodrug, you will anticipate that…

A

patient will have poor response to the drug

160
Q

A pt on a good med for HTN is given a new drug, but then his BP is high again. What is an explanation for this?

A

The new drug induced the metabolism of the first drug.

161
Q

A drug that increases risk for Reyes syndrome

A

ASA

162
Q

PCN has one of the

A

narrowest spectrums

163
Q

Why is doxycycline contraindicated in children?

A

discoloration of teeth

164
Q

Why are fluoroquinolones contraindicated in children?

A

can cause tendon rupture.

165
Q

ADRs are usually caused by

A

drug-drug interaction

166
Q

Large amounts of this can increase level of drugs up to threefold.

A

Grapefruit juice.

167
Q

Effect of chronic alcoholism on drug interaction

A

Can decrease drug availability and diminish its effects

168
Q

risk factors for cellulitis

A

immunosuppressed, injury, lympahdema

169
Q

trx for cystitis (UTI)

A

Bactrim

170
Q

Contraindication for DTaP

A

encephalopathy

171
Q

Doses of DTaP for kids

A

5 doses

172
Q

Adults who never recieve TdaP should recieve

A

one dose then 2 series of Td

173
Q

Good to give this after children receive DTap

A

Tylenol

174
Q

DOC for UTIs

A

Fluoroquinolones

175
Q

Fluoroquinolones have an increased risk for

A

tendon rupture

176
Q

Avoid this drug in patients with myasthenia gravis

A

Fluoroquinolones

177
Q

Furuncles are usually caused by

A

Staphylococcus aureus

178
Q

DOC for furuncle

A

dicloxacillin

179
Q

I&D for furuncles

A

decrease the need for atbx treatment

180
Q

used the dye on animals infected with streptococci to inhibit bacterial growth; led to the development of sulfa drugs

A

Gerhard Domagk

181
Q

GABHS can cause

A

pharyngitis, rheumatic fever, impetigo, endocartitis

182
Q

DOC for GABHS

A

PCN

183
Q

Course of trx for GABHS

A

10 days

184
Q

Hamophilus influenzae causes

A

sinusitis, otitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia

185
Q

Hib vaccine for children

A

Given at 2 months, with boosters at 4, 6, and 12 months.

186
Q

Vaccine not indicated for those 60 and older

A

Hib vaccine

187
Q

Hep B vaccine is given to

A

newborns before hospital discharge

188
Q

Influenza vaccine is given to those

A

6 and up

189
Q

Treatment for Lice

A

Permethrin

190
Q

Second DOC for scabies

A

Lindane

191
Q

Can penetrate the skin and has a potential for CNS toxicity in children

A

Lindane

192
Q

MOA for cephalosporins

A

bactericidal- interferes with cell wall synthesis

193
Q

MOA for fluoroquinolones

A

inhibit enzyme involved in bacterial DNA replication and transcription

194
Q

MOA for macrolides

A

bacteriostatic and bactericidal- inhibit protein synthesis

195
Q

Macrolide with most GI side effects

A

erythromycin

196
Q

MOA for sulfa drugs

A

bacteriostatic- inhibit enzyme that produces folic acid

197
Q

MOA for PCN

A

bactericidal- disrupt cell wall synthesis

198
Q

outpatient treatment for MRSA

A

TMP-SMX (bactrim)

199
Q

Patients with gonorrhea are also treated for

A

chlamydia

200
Q

Newborns are given this to prevent gonorrhea

A

erythromycin eye gtts

201
Q

Neisseria meningtides

A

Moraxella organism causing bacteremia

202
Q

Oropharyngeal candidiasis is known as

A

oral thrush

203
Q

risk factors for oropharyngeal candidiasis

A

immunocompromised, infant & elderly, taking corticorsteroids/chemo

204
Q

Trx for oropharyngeal candidiasis

A

nystatin antifungal swish and spit

205
Q

Otitis media is caused by bacteria when

A

it accompanies a bulging red or yellow tympanic membrane

206
Q

Otitis media with simple effusion means

A

probably caused by virus.

207
Q

bacterial otitis media is caused by

A

moraxella, s. pneumonia, or h. influenza

208
Q

viral otitis media is caused by

A

resp viruses

209
Q

Oral PCNs are absorbed better when

A

taken on empty stomach

210
Q

Pharyngitis trx is for

A

10 days

211
Q

Can determine if empirical testing is needed for pharyngitis

A

antigen detection test

212
Q

PCV13 is given to

A

children 2 months to 10 years

213
Q

Second dose of pneumococcal is given…

A

if last dose was given before 65.

214
Q

Polio vaccine dosing

A

4 doses

215
Q

Adults who work in healthcare or travel should recieve how many doses of polio

A

2 doses then a booster 1 year later

216
Q

Pregnancy category X

A

positive evidence for fetal abnormalities

217
Q

rotavirus dosing

A

3 doses orally at 2, 4, and 6 months of age

218
Q

complication of rotavirus

A

intussusception.

219
Q

Shingles pathophysiology

A

virus remains dormant until older and more immunocompromised

220
Q

unilateral, painful, vesicular rash on skin

A

shingles

221
Q

Recommend to vaccinate for herpes zoster for people

A

age 60 and older

222
Q

SJS is caused by

A

sulfa drugs and tylenol

223
Q

streptococcus pneumonia causes

A

TB

224
Q

Tertracyclines are contraindicated in children because

A

causes tooth discoloration

225
Q

The 5 cardinal points of treatment when rx an antibiotic

A

most effective, most cost-effective, narrowest spectrum, lowest toxicity, lowest potential for allergy

226
Q

Trx for otitis media

A

amoxicillin

227
Q

When giving Tamiflu for influenza virus, it must be given

A

within 48 hours symptoms began