Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 714 Maternal/Newborn > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the least effective contraception with a 22% rate within the first year?

A

Coitus Interupptus (withdrawl method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the calendar method?

A

Also known as natural family planning/fertility based awareness, it is a method of contraception where couples have periodic abstinence during the fertile periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 phases for natural family planning/fertility based awareness?

A

3 phases are identified:
Infertile phase-before ovulation
Fertile phase-Approximately 5 to days into the cycle
Infertile phase-After ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the guidelines for someone who wants to implement natural family planning?

A

1) Accurately record the number of days in each cycle counting from the first day of menses for a period of at least 6 cycles

2) The start of the fertile period is figured by subtracting 18 days from the number of days in a woman’s shortest cycle

3) The end of the fertile period is established by subtracting 11 days from the number of days of the longest cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the relationship between basal body temperature and ovulation?

A

Before ovulation, a woman’s basal body temperature is often less than 98.6.
The progesterone after ovulation causes basal body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can basal body temperature be used for conception/contraception?

A

By measuring oral temperature prior to getting out of bed each morning each morning to monitor ovulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the advantages to natural family planning?

What are the disadvantages to natural family planning?

A

Inexpensive, convenient, and no adverse effects

Reliability can be influences by many variables that impact temperature change (stress, fatigue, illness, alcohol, and warmth of sleeping environment). It also does not protect against STDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the consistence of cervical mucous during ovulation?

A

During ovulation the cervical mucous becomes thin and flexible under the influence of estrogen and progesterone to allow sperm viability and motility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Spinnbarkeit’s sign?

A

The ability of the cervical mucous to stretch between fingers, almost the consistency of an egg white.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is mittelschmerz?

A

Pain in the lower abdomen upon ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the nursing education for a patient who wants to use the cervical mucus method of contraception?

A

Ensuring good hand hygiene, begin examining mucus from the last day of the menstrual cycle. Mucous is obtained from the vaginal introitus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the disadvantages of a diaphragm?

A

Not recommended for women with a history of toxic shock or frequent urinary tract infections

Must be replaced every two years or 20% weight fluctuation, pregnancy, or pelvic surgery

Inconvenient, interfere with spontaneity, and requires reapplication with spermicidal cream, gel or foam with each act of coitus to be effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the clinical findings of TSS?

A

High fever
Faint feeling,
Drop in BP
Watery Diarrhea
Headache
Muscle Aches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What reduces the risk of TSS from a diaphram?

A

proper handwashing and removing diaphragm within 6 hours of coitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the client education for cervical caps?

A

It can be inserted up to six hours before intercourse and needs to be left in place at least 6 hours afterwards but for no more than 48 hours at a time.

Must be replaced every two years and refitted after any major gyn surgery, birth, or major weight fluctuation

Cap should be washed with mild soap and warm water for each use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the disadvantages of cervical caps?

A

Possible risk of TSS
Risk of allergic reaction
Does not protect against STIs
Contraindicated in women with abnormal paps or history of TSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a contraceptive sponge?

A

A small round, polyurethane sponge with one concave side containing N-9 spermicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is a contraceptive sponge used?

A

The contraceptive sponge is moistened before insertion, concave side is placed near the cervix, and needs to be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long can a contraceptive sponge provide protection for?

A

up to 24 hours

However it should not be left in for longer than 24-30 hours or it places the woman at risk for TSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are combined oral contraceptives?

A

Hormonal contraception containing estrogen and progestin, which acts by suppressing ovulation, begining the cervical mucus to block semen, and altering the uterine decidua to prevent implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the patient education points for combined oral contraceptives?

A

Instruct client to observe with adverse effects and danger signs of medication

If they miss a dose, instruct pt that if one pill is missed, take one as soon as possible. If 2 or 3 are missed-refer to manufacturers instructions, but the client should use alternitive forms of birth control until regular dosing is resumed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the serious complications of oral birth control pills?

A

ACHES
Abdominal pain
Chest pain/shortness of breath
Hedache
Eye problems
Severe leg pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the advantages of oral birth control pills?

A

Due to no direct relation to sexual acts, acceptability may be increased.

Can help control cramping, menstrual cycles, treat endometriosis, acne, ovarian cancer, ovarian cysts, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the disadvantages of birth control pills?

A

Do not protect against STIs
Increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, heart attack, hypertension, gallbladder disease, liver tumor.

Exasperates conditions affected by fluid retention (migrane, epilepsy, asthma, kidney or heart disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the patient education points for progesterone only contraception?

A

Take the pill at the same time everyday
Do not miss a pill
Must use alternate BC for the first month to prevent pregnancy q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the advantages/disadvantages of progesterone only birth control?

A

Advantages:
-Less adverse effects
-Considered safe with breast feeding
Disadvantages:
-Less effective in supressing ovulation
-Increase risk of ovarian cysts
-No STI protection
-Contraindicated in pts that have had bariatric surgery, lupus, severe cirrhosis, liver tumors, or current/past breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the forms of emergency contraception?

A

levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system, high doses of estrogen, or insertion of a copper IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a transdermal contraceptive patch?

A

A patch containing norelgestromin (progesterone) and ethinyl estradiol which is delivered at continuous levels through skin into subq tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the patient education for the transdermal contraceptive patch?

A

Apply the patch to dry skin overlying subq tissue of the buttock, abdomen, upper arm, or torso excluding breast area.

One patch per week, with no application on the 4th wekk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the disadvantages of the transdermal contraceptive patch?

A

Risk of DVT or venous thromboemolism is much higher due to the hormones entering directly into the bloodstreams

Rash or lesion can appear on patch site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Medroxyprogesterone?

A

an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection given to a female client every 11 to 13 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is a diaphragm used?

A

It is inserted over the cervix with spermicide jelly applied to the cervical side of the dome and around the rim up to 6 hours before intercourse, and taken out 6-24 hours after

You should empty bladder before placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the advantages of medroxyprogesterone?

A

Very effective and requires only 4 injections per year.
Does not impair lactation.
Possible absence of periods and decreased and bleeding.
Decreased risk of uterine cancer if used long-term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the disadvantages of medroxyprogesterone?

A

Adverse effects include decrease in bone mineral density, weight gain, increase in depression, and irregular vaginal spotting or bleeding.

Does not protect against STI’s.

Return to fertility can be delayed as long as up to 18 months after discontinuation.

Should only be used as a long-term method of birth control if other birth control methods are in adequate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What education should the nurse give to a patient who has received a medroxyprogesterone injection?

A

Avoid massaging injection site following administration to avoid accelerating medication absorption, which will shorten the duration of its effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the advantages of implantable progestin?

A

Mistake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the disadvantages of implantable progestin?

A

Etonogestrel can cause irregular menstrual bleeding.
Does not protect against STI’s.
Adverse effects include irregular and unpredictable menstruation, new changes, headache, acne, depression, decreased bone density, and weight gain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the contraindications of implantable progestin?

A

Contraindications include unexplained vaginal bleeding, lupus, severe cirrhosis, liver tumors, and breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Transcervical sterilization?

A

Insertion of small flexible agents through the vagina and cervix into the fallopian tubes.
This results in the development of scar tissue in the tubes preventing contraception.
Examination must be done after three months to ensure fallopian tubes are blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the advantages of transcervical sterilization?

A

Quick procedure that requires no general anesthesia.
Nonhormonal means of birth control. 99.8 % effective in preventing pregnancy.
Rapid return to normal activities of daily living.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the disadvantages?

A

Not reversible. Not intended for use in the client to us postpartum.
Delay ineffectiveness for three months. An alternative means of birth control should be used until confirmation of blocked fallopian tubes occurs.
Changes in menstrual patterns. Does not protect against STI’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is bilaterial tubal ligation (female sterilization)?

A

A surgical procedure consisting of severance and/or burning or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a vasectomy?

A

The cutting of the vas deferens in the male as a form of permanent sterilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What education should be given to a patient that has just received a vasectomy?

A

Reinforce the need for alternate forms of birth control for approximately 20 ejaculations or one week to several months to allow all the sperm to clear the vas deferens.

Following the procedure, scrotal support and moderate activity for a couple of days is recommended to reduce discomfort.

Follow-up is important for sperm count.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which STI is an aerobic gram-negative diplococcus, is the oldest communicable disease in the US, and women are often asymptomatic?

A

Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Syphilis?

A

A STI that is caused by treponema pallidum and manifests in 3 distinct stages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the stages of syphilis?

A

Primary: 5 to 90 days after exposure
Secondary: 6 weeks to 6 months
Tertiary: develops in one third of women infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

An infectious process that most commonly involves the fallopian tubes, uterus, and occasionally the ovaries and peritoneal surfaces
Multiple organisms have been found to cause PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If visible HSV lesions are present in a full term pregnant patient, what is advised?

A

Cesarean birth is recommended because material infection with HSV-2 can have adverse effects on mother and fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which STI is most threatening to the fetus and neonate?

A

Hep B, because of the risk of liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which STI exhibits a ‘fish-like’ odor?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What normal protocols must be avoided if pregnant mother has HIV?

A

No breastfeeding
No scalp electrode
Decrease the amount of time ruptured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What special precautions have to be taken with a baby that has an HIV + mother?

A

Ensure that baby is cleaned with soap and water prior to invasive procedures

Ex Vitamin K shot

Administer Zidovudine begining at 8-12 hours after delivery for the next 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is not technically an STD, but it the leading cause of neonatal morbidity/mortality in the US?

A

GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the risk factors for GBS?

A

LBW
Pre-term birth
Previous pregnancy with GBS+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When is GBS screening performed?

A

36-37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the treatment for GBS?

A

intrapartum IV prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are TORCH infections?

A

Acquired in utero or during birth/transplacental transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does the T in TORCH stand for?

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does the O in TORCH stand for?

A

Others, such as syphilis, varicella-zoster, parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What foes the R in TORCH stand for?

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the C in TORCH stand for?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does the H in TORCH stand for?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is Toxoplasmosis transmitted?

A

Touching cat liter
Undercooked meats

66
Q

What is the treatment for Toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine & Sulfadiazine

67
Q

If a mom is not immune to Rubella, what do we do?

A

Vaccinate immediately post partum

68
Q

How is CMV transmitted?

A

Through breastmilk, blood, sexual fluids, in utero during birth, contact with children transfer

DO NOT BREASTFEED

69
Q

How is CMV treated?

A

Ganciclovir

70
Q

How is Herpes Simplex treated?

A

Acyclovir medication at 36 prophylactically

71
Q

What is infertility? What are the categories?

A

A prolonged time to conceive (after trying for 1 year 2-3 times per week)

Primary: Never conceived
Secondary: Conceived once before

72
Q

What are the female contributing factors to infertility?

A

Ovulation disorders
Abnormalities to uterine tubes
Cervical abnormalities
Uterine abnormalities

73
Q

What could cause abnormalities to uterine tubes that could result in infertility?

A

Chlamydia can cause damage to the uterine tubes

74
Q

What type of cervical abnormality could cause infertility?

A

Acidic mucous

75
Q

What uterine abnormalities could cause infertility?

A

Endometriosis
Bicornuate uterus

76
Q

What are the male contributing factors to infertility?

A

Structural/hormonal abnormalities
Substance use
Enviromental
Advanced Age

77
Q

What types of structural/hormonal abnormalities can contribute to infertility?

A

Undescended testes
Hypospadias
Variocele
Seminal fluid abnormalities
Low testosterone

78
Q

What are some of the seminal fluid abnormalities that can contribute to infertility?

A

Increased Scrotal Heat
Sperm Abnormalities
-Azoospermia (no sperm)
-Oligospermia (few sperm)

79
Q

What do marijuana, alcohol and cocaine within two years of intended conception do to male fertility?

A

Depresses sperm count
Depresses testosterone

80
Q

What do cigarettes do to male fertility?

A

Decreases motility

81
Q

What environmental factors can contribute to infertility?

A

Lead and pesticides can reduce count

82
Q

What is sterility?

A

Inability to conceive

83
Q

When a male gets a sperm analysis done, what must he do before?

A

Abstain from sex for 2-5 days before procedure

84
Q

What does an endometrial biopsy show us?

A

An endometrial biopsy 2-3 days before menses shows us how well the endometrium responds to the progesterone released from corpus lutem after ovulation

85
Q

What are some non-invasive ways to test fertility?

A

Basal body temperature (not super reliable)
Hormonal Assessment
Pelvic Ultrasound
Spinnbarkeit (egg white appearance = max fertility)

86
Q

What are the contributing factors to the nausea and vomiting experienced during pregnancy?

A

Increased HCG
Increased pressure could contribute

87
Q

What are the contributing factors to the constipation that can be experienced during pregnancy?

A

Due to the increased transit time or increased absorption of water

High fiber diet can prevent this

88
Q

What happens to respiration and lung capacity during pregnancy?

A

Respiratory rate increases while total lung capacity decreases because the uterus pushes up into the diaphragm giving little room for lungs to expand
(Diaphragm can raise as much as 4 cm)

89
Q

What is the relationship between fundal height and gestation?

A

The cm correlate to how many weeks gestation from 18-30 weeks

90
Q

What are some of the skin changes experienced during pregnancy?

A

Cholasma (increased pigmentation in the face)
Linea Nigra (dark line of pigmentation from umbilicus to pubic area)
Striae Gravidarum (stretch marks)

91
Q

Describe the action of estrogen during the pregnancy

A

Estrogen rises in late pregnancy, supressing progesterone, and induces the oxytocin receptors preparing the uterus for birth

92
Q

What is the action of progesterone during pregnancy?

A

Supports the endometrium
Suppresses contractility of the uterus (blocked by estrogen late in pregnancy)

93
Q

What are the presumptive signs of pregnancy?

A

Amenorrhea
Fatigue
N/V
Breast Changes
Quickening
Uterine Enlargement

94
Q

What is ‘quickening’?

A

Light fluttering movements felt at 16-20 weeks

95
Q

What are the 8 probable signs of pregnancy?

A

Abdominal enlargement
Hegar’s Sign
Chadwick’s sign
Goddell’s sign
Ballottment
Braxton Hicks Contractions
Positive pregnancy test
Fetal Outline

96
Q

What is Hegar’s sign?

A

softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment due to increased blood flow

97
Q

What is Goddell’s sign?

A

softening of cervical tip

98
Q

What is Chadwick’s sign?

A

Deepened violet-bluish color of the cervix

99
Q

What is ballottement?

A

rebound of unengaged fetus

100
Q

What are Braxton’s hicks contractions

A

False contractions that are painless, irregular, and usually relieved by walking

101
Q

What are the 3 positive signs of pregnancy?

A

Fetal Heart sounds
Ultrasound
Fetal movement (by experienced practioner)

102
Q

What is Nagele’s rule?

A

First day of LMP
Subtract 3 months
Add 7 days
Adjust for year

103
Q

What is Gravida?

A

The number of pregnancies

104
Q

What is Parity?

A

The number of pregnancies that reach 20+ weeks

105
Q

In GTPAL-
What does T stand for?

A

Term
The number of pregnancies that made it to 37+ weeks

106
Q

In GTPAL-
What does P stand for?

A

Parity
The number of preterm pregnancies 20-38 weeks

107
Q

In GTPAL-
What does A stand for?

A

Abortions
Spontaneous or induced 19.6 weeks and below

108
Q

In GTPAL-
What does L stand for?

A

Number of living children

109
Q

What does the standard prenatal lab work consist of?

A

CBC
Blood type/rh Factor
UA
Heb B screening
Rubella Titer
Pap (gonorrhea and chlamydia)
HIV
VDRL (syphilis)

110
Q

What are the danger signs in the first trimester?

A

Vaginal Bleeding
Fever/chills
Diarrhea
Severe Vomiting
Burning on urination
Abdominal cramping

111
Q

What are some of the recommendations for the nausea and vomiting in the first trimester?

A

Eat dry carbs (cracker) before lifting head in the morning

Do NOT drink lots of fluids in the morning

High protein snack and prenatals at bedtime

112
Q

What are the recommendations for heartburn during pregnancy?

A

Small frequent meals
Sleep on incline/sit upright after meals
Decrease liquids while eating
Reduce liquid intake at bedtime
Medication

113
Q

How much water should you drink while pregnant?

A

Drink 8-10 glasses of water per day

114
Q

What are the recommendations to decrease constipation during pregnancy?

A

Increase fiber
Plenty of Fluids
Exercise
IRON may cause constipation

115
Q

What are the recommendations for decreasing leg cramps?

A

Extend leg straight
Dorsiflexion of foot
Heat is ok (if you are sure it’s not a blood clot)
Notify provider if it happens frequently or if there is swelling in one leg but not the other

116
Q

What is supine hypotension aka vena cava syndrome?

A

Uterus is on vena cava and reduces blood to the fetus, looks like shock, with low BP (lightheadness, fainting, SOB), and is avoided by never laying flat on back

117
Q

What a normal BMI?

A

18.5-24.9 BMI

118
Q

What is the recommendation of weight gain through pregnancy for someone with a normal BMI?

A

25-30lb
2.2-4.4 in first trimester
1lb per week in last 2 trimesters

119
Q

What are the recommendations for weight gain for someone with a underweight BMI?

A

<18.5
28-40lb

120
Q

What are the recommendations for weight gain for someone with a overweight BMI?

A

> 25
15-25lb

121
Q

What types of food have good folic acid content?

A

Leafy veggies
Dried peas/beans
Seeds
Orange juice

122
Q

Iron is best absorbed with?

A

Vitamin C

123
Q

What are high iron foods?

A

Beef liver
Red meats
Fish
Poultry
Dried peas and beans
fortified cereals and breads

124
Q

What are the 5 P’s?

A

Passenger
Passageway
Powers
Position of mother
Psychological response

125
Q

5 P’s:
What are the components of ‘passenger’?

A

Fetal presentation
Fetal lie
Fetal attitude
Fetal Position

126
Q

What does fetal presentation mean?

A

Part of fetus entering canal first

127
Q

What does fetal lie mean?

A

Relationship between maternal and fetal spine (longitudinal axis0

128
Q

What does fetal attitude mean?

A

Flexion or extension (fetal chin towards or away from chest)

129
Q

What does fetal position mean?

A

Four maternal quadrants

130
Q

5 P’s:
What are the components of ‘passageway’?

A

Shape of pelvis
Vagina
Pelvic floor muscles
Introitus (opening that leads to vaginal canal)

131
Q

5 P’s:
What are the components of ‘powers’?

A

Effacement: shortening, thinning, upward movement of cervic
Dilation: widening of cervix
Ferguson reflex: urge to bear down

132
Q

5 P’s:
What are the components of ‘position of mother’?

A

Gravity can help
Reposition as needed for comfort

133
Q

5 P’s:
What are the components of ‘psychologic response’

A

Anxiety and stress can hinder labor

134
Q

What are the components of fetal station?

A

-5 to +5 (- is towards mother)
0 is at ischial spinal process

135
Q

What is true labor **

A

Cervical change

136
Q

What are the 7 cardinal movements of labor in order?

A

1: Engagement-passes 0 station
2: Descent-progress through cervix
3: Flexion-fetal head meets resistance of cervix, brings chin towards chest
4: Internal rotation-corkscrew through pelvis
5: Extension-Passes under symphysis pubis and chin is away from chest
6: External rotation
7: Expulsion-birth

137
Q

What are the two opioids given during birth and why?

A

Nubian and stadol

They provide pain relief without respiratory depression

138
Q

When can opioids be given during birth?

A

Only before 6 cm or it can risk respiratory depression in baby.

Medication should be given at the peak of contraction (acme)

139
Q

Why should pain medication be given at the peak of contraction?

A

It minimizes the effect on the baby, and you should wait to push the rest until the next contraction

140
Q

What is a pudendal block?

A

Exerts its effects only in the vaginal vault, covering perineum and vagina.

It does take away the ferguson reflex, but has not maternal/fetal systemic effects

141
Q

When is a pudenal block given?

A

10-20 min before delivery

142
Q

What is a epidural?

A

The only form of anesthesia that can take the pain away and only allow them to feel pressure

143
Q

What are the risks of an epidural?

A

Maternal hypotension, so administer a 1000mL bolus before placement

144
Q

How is fetal monitoring altered by the administration of a epidural?

A

The decreased perfusion to uterus can cause placental insufficency which can appear as late decels

145
Q

What would not allow someone to get an epidural?

A

if their platelet count if <100,000 they can’t have an epidural

146
Q

Where is a spinal block administered?

A

In the OR

147
Q

What are the components of the umbilical cord?

A

two umbilical arteries
a single umbilical vein
an obliterated allantois duct

Which are all surrounded by Wharton’s jelly and contained within an outer layer of amnion

148
Q

What are the functions of the two umbilical arteries?

A

The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from fetal circulation to the placenta.

The two umbilical arteries converge together about at 5 mm from the insertion of the cord, forming a type of vascular connection called the Hyrtl’s anastomosis.

The primary function of Hartl’s anastomosis is to equalize blood flow and pressure between the umbilical and placental arteries.

149
Q

What are leopold manuvers?

A

Consists of 4 moves to determine:
Number of fetuses
Presenting part, fetal lie, and fetal attitude
Degree of descent of the presenting part into the pelvis
Location of the fetus’s back to assess for fetal heart tones.

150
Q

What is the order of leopold manuvers?

A

ID the fetal part in the fundus.
Locate and palpate the fetal back.
ID the presenting part.
Determine the descent of the presenting part.

151
Q

Where is an epidural administered?

A

within the epidural space at the 4th or 5th vertebrae.

152
Q

What is the difference between the primary and secondary ‘powers’?

A

Primary powers=contractions
Secondary powers=bearing down

153
Q

When the cervix is 100% effaced, how would it be described?

A

Paper thin

154
Q

What Hgb counts are considered to be low during pregnancy?

A

Hgb less than 11 mg/dL in the 1st & 3rd trimesters is considered low

Hgb less than 10.5 mg/dL in the 2nd trimester is considered low

155
Q

Why are iron supplements often added to the prenatal plan?

A

plan to facilitate an increase of the maternal RBC mass

156
Q

What are the caffeine limitations during pregnancy?

A

No more than 200 mg of caffeine a day which is the equivalent of 500 to 750 ml/day of coffee. Increased caffeine intake can increase the risk of spontaneous abortion or fetal intrauterine growth restriction.

157
Q

What weeks make up the first trimester?

A

1-13.6

158
Q

What weeks make up the second trimester?

A

14-27.6

159
Q

What weeks make up the third trimester?

A

28-40.6

160
Q

What are the test performed in the 2nd trimester?

A

CBC
1 hour glucose screen
Antibody screen for rh
May repeat STI testing

161
Q

What are the test performed in the third trimester between 35-37 weeks?

A

GBS Culture
May repeat CBC

162
Q

What are the tests performed in the third trimester between 40-42 weeks?

A

Non stress tests every 3 days
AFI (amniotic fluid index)
Ultrasound to monitor fetal wellbeing every week

NURS 714 Maternal/Newborn (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions