Test 1 Flashcards
Which of the following is the MOST dangerous type of threat when using virtualization?
VM Escape
Rogue VM
VM sprawl
Virtual NIC duplication
VM Escape
OBJ-4.2: VM escape refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or the host. As with any other software type, it is vital to keep the hypervisor code up-to-date with patches for critical vulnerabilities. VM escape is the biggest threat to virtualized systems. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. VM sprawl is the uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs.
Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop?
A. 5400 rpm
B. 10,000 rpm
C. 7200 rpm
D. 15,000 rpm
5400 rpm
OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.
What type of cloud model would allow the sharing of resources by multiple organizations to create a service that benefits all of its members?
Private Cloud
Public Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
Community Cloud
Community Cloud
OBJ-4.1: A community cloud in computing is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns, whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. Community Cloud is a hybrid form of private cloud. They are multi-tenant platforms that enable different organizations to work on a shared platform. Community Cloud may be hosted in a data center, owned by one of the tenants, or by a third-party cloud services provider and can be either on-site or off-site. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.
Dion Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize?
Plenum
Fiber
Shielded
Coaxial
Coaxial
OBJ-3.1: A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals surrounded by glass or plastic cladding, which guides the light pulses along the core, and a protective coating. The fiber optic cable is contained in a protective jacket and terminated by a connector. Fiber optic cables use light signals to carry data across a cable at extremely high bandwidths.
A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won’t turn on, and the battery won’t charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue?
Replace the DC jack
Replace the power adapter
Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet
Replace the battery
Replace the DC jack
OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates that the DC jack is faulty. Since the battery was replaced and the laptop continues to work, this indicates it isn’t a battery issue but is, instead, most likely a DC jack issue. The DC jack often gets broken on a laptop, and if the jack is broken, the device cannot charge or receive power from the power adapter or wall outlet.
You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist?
514
445
143
123
445
OBJ-2.1: Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. When the WannaCry ransomware was spreading rapidly across the internet, you could help protect your organization’s network by blocking ports 139 and 445 at your firewall to prevent your machines from getting infected over the internet. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.
Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?
427
443
389
445
427
OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.
Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use?
-5 VDC
+5 VDC
-24 VDC
+24 VDC
-24 VDC
OBJ-3.7: The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) of a laser printer is used to convert high voltage AC into lower voltage DC for the printer. The DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer’s logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.
You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his issue?
The CMOS battery needs to be replaces
The motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced
The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer
The power supply’s voltage switch is set to 240V but the power outlet is providing 110V
The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer
OBJ-5.2: If your computer won’t boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won’t start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won’t boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue’s source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) infrastructure?
Cable modem
Optical network terminal
Software-defined networking
Digital subscriber line
Cable Modem
OBJ-2.2: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.
On Tuesday evening, the company just pushed a new Windows 10 security update to all of its workstations. On Wednesday morning, the help desk receives numerous complaints about the network being slower than normal. Previously, the network was baselined at 1 Gbps as each workstation uses a wired CAT 6 connection. Today, a technician ran a speed test and saw the network was only reaching speeds of 100 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network slowdown?
The network was reconfigured from DHCP to static
The incorrect DHCP server configuration is being used
The network card drivers were updated last night
The incorrect DNS server configuration is being used
The network card drivers were updated last night
OBJ-5.7: Often, security updates, patches, and upgrades will reconfigure a network card’s drivers during a Windows security update. If this happens, the system may revert to a more generic version of the driver, decreasing speeds from 1 Gbps to 100 Mbps. The network card’s drivers should be rolled back to the previous driver to restore functionality and correct it. If there were configuration changes to the DNS or DHCP server, it would limit connectivity completely instead of simply slowing down the connection. If the network changed from DHCP to static assignments, the workstations would not get an APIPA address and would not have connected to the network at a slower speed.
Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?
USB 1.1
USB 2.0
USB 3.0
USB 1.0
USB 3.0
OBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the power supply needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
Continuous reboot
Distended capacitors
Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Burning smell
Burning smell
OBJ-5.2: A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.
Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default?
25
53
161
139
161
OBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.
Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem?
Validate the security certificate from the host
Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation
Ensure that port 20 open
Ensure the port 161 is open
Ensure that port 20 open
OBJ-5.7: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client’s authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open.
Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http://www.diontraining.com but can access https://www.diontraining.com?
80
445
53
443
80
OBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.
You are building a Desktop PC for a newly hired employee at Dion Training. The computer’s motherboard doesn’t have a wireless network adapter integrated into it, so you need to purchase an expansion card to provide this functionality. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the wireless network adapter card?
eSATA
PCIe x16
AGP
PCIe x1
PCIe x1
OBJ-3.4: PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has several PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Network adapters and Wi-Fi network cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x1 expansion slots or a USB connection for their connectivity. Graphics cards usually rely on a PCIe x16 expansion slot. eSATA is an external SATA port used to connect an external storage device such as a hard drive. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds.
You are connecting a laptop to a brand new digital high definition TV. Unfortunately, the laptop is a little outdated and only has an analog display output. Which of the following adapters could you use to convert the signal from analog to digital for use with the new television?
DVI-D to HDMI
VGA to DVI-D
S-Video to RCA
HDMI to VGA
VGA to DVI-D
OBJ-3.1: Since this question asks you to select the converter that can convert a signal from analog to digital, you need to consider which of the connectors are analog and digital. S-Video, RCA, and VGA are all analog. HDMI and DVI-D are both digital. Therefore, the correct answer is VGA (analog) to DVI-D (Digital). HDMI to VGA would be digital to analog. S-Video to RCA would be analog to analog. DVI-D to HDMI would be digital to digital.
You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur?
DHCP server
Proxy server
DNS server
TACACS+ server
DHCP server
OBJ-2.4: A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user.
You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply?
Input voltage
Number of SATA connectors
Amperage of 12V rail
Efficiency rating
Input voltage
OBJ-3.5: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide.
You are building a virtualization environment to host several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to the local corporate network and communicate with the host operating system, the other VMs, and the internal network clients. Still, they should not have access to the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?
Localhost
External
Internal
Private
Internal
OBJ-4.2: If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.
Tamera was responding to a complaint that one of the employees is having problems with the wired network connection on their laptop. She investigated the issue to see why it will not connect to the network. Tamera looked at the indicator lights, but she doesn’t see the blinking she expected to view. Instead, the light is steady. What is MOST likely the issue?
No network activity
Intermittent connectivity
Incorrect TCP/IP configuration
Low RF signal
No network activity
OBJ-5.7: If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts. Since this is a wired network connection, it cannot be a low RF signal as that is a wireless network problem.
You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the “Operating System Not Found” error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error?
An unsupported version of Linux installed
The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally
An incompatible partition is marked as active
Windows Startup services are not properly running
An incompatible partition is marked as active
OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.
You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of “OS not found” is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?
Repair the GPT
Perform a chkdsk
Repartition the drive
Replace the HDD with an SSD
Repair the GPT
OBJ-5.3: The “OS not found” error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the ‘bootrec /fixboot’ command to fix the GPT.
Your company has recently migrated much of your data center to the cloud. Now, your boss needs a method to monitor all services used in supporting your customers to be properly billed based on their usage. Which of the following cloud computing concepts is your boss describing?
Resource pooling
Measured services
Rapid elasticity
On-demand
Measured services
OBJ-4.1: Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.
Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP?
HTTPS
TFTP
DHCP
SNMP
HTTPS
OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over TCP port 443. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.
Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation?
Bluetooth
Zigbee
Z-Wave
NFC
Zigbee
OBJ-2.4: Zigbee is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. Zigbee is open-source, unlike Z-Wave, which is proprietary. Zigbee uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This higher frequency allows more data bandwidth at the expense of range than Z-Wave and the greater risk of interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall devices within a single network (65,000 compared to 232 for Z-wave), and there is no hop limit for communication between devices. Z-wave is a low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-wave uses radio frequencies in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz frequency ranges. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.
Which of the following is used to capture the logs from different devices across the network to correlate different events across multiple servers and clients?
Syslog server
Proxy server
DHCP server
DNS server
Syslog server
OBJ-2.4: A Syslog server is used to capture logs from different devices. It allows for the correlation of logs to simplify log review and an analyst’s ability to respond to alerts. For example, Syslog messages can be generated by Cisco routers and switches, servers and workstations, and collected in a central database for viewing and analysis. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture.
Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv4 address?
192:168:1:55
192.168.1.254
::1
00:AB:FA:B1:07:34
192.168.1.254
OBJ-2.5: An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.
Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations?
13
11
6
1
13
OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.
Which of the following virtualization concepts refers to a VM’s ability to have memory allocated for its use?
Resource pooling
Measured service
Synchronization
Virtual application streaming
Resource Pooling
OBJ-4.1: Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices and share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Virtual application streaming allows an application to be delivered to a workstation from the cloud.
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to send their emails when out of the office. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to send their mail?
IMAP
HTTPS
SMTP
POP3
SMTP
OBJ-1.4: You should configure SMTP since it is the only protocol used to send emails. POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.
What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?
Broadcast
Loopback
Multicast
Public
Loopback
OBJ-2.5: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts. A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service. The address shown is not a broadcast or multicast address. A public address is routable over the internet but ::1 is a loopback address and therefore not publicly routable on the internet.
Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default?
53
3389
427
389
389
OBJ-2.1: The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.
Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?
Rapid elasticity
Resource pooling
On-demand
Metered services
Rapid elasticity
OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization’s data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.
You are configuring a new client workstation on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?
Static
Dynamic
APIPA
Link-local
Dynamic
OBJ-2.5: A dynamic IP address should be used for client workstations and devices to ensure they are easy to configure and less prone to human error. When configuring a dynamic IP address, the DHCP server should issue the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address to the workstation or device. A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.
You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select?
Syslog server
IDS
IPS
Proxy server
IPS
OBJ-2.4: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that detects and prevents identified threats. Intrusion prevention systems continuously monitor your network, looking for possible malicious incidents, and capturing information about them. An IPS can block malicious network traffic, unlike an IDS, which can only log them. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.
Jason has just returned to his office after vacation and is attempting to access diontraining.com. He receives an error that he cannot connect to the website. He then tries to connect to the company’s local intranet server, which he can connect to without any issues. Next, he pings the IP address for diontraining.com and gets a successful connection. Finally, he tries to ping diontraining.com by its domain name, and then he receives an error. Which of the following commands should Jason enter NEXT to try and resolve this issue
ipconfig /renew
ipconfig /release
ipconfig /flushdns
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /flushdns
OBJ-5.7: Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server’s IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS. Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as, any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead.
Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 480 Mbps?
USB 1.1
USB 2.0
USB 3.0
USB 1.0
USB 2.0
OBJ-3.1: USB 2.0 can support data rates up to 480 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices?
POP3
HTTPS
SMTP
IMAP
IMAP
OBJ-1.4: You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email’s read state. If you configure POP3, the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server’s mailbox by default. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.
Dion Security Group has established a Security Operations Center (SOC) that operates 24/7. They have several 65” plasma TVs at the front of the room that are used as computer displays to show open tickets. You turned off the televisions to clean the screens and noticed that the company logo is still visible in each of the screens’ upper left corners. Which of the following should you do to correct this?
Degauss the television
Replace the HDMI cable
Replace the plasma TVs
Replace the video card
Replace the plasma TVs
OBJ-5.4: The logo in the upper left corner has been burned into the display since it is a static image. This is common with plasma displays and TVs. To fix this, you need to replace the TVs. If you plan to have a lot of static content on a display, you should use an OLED or LED display instead. If burn-in was experienced on old CRT monitors, you could run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in. Unfortunately, this will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED displays, though.
Susan, a computer technician, received a complaint from a client about an issue with their laptop. Based on the symptoms observed, she believes that there is an issue with the laptop’s memory. Which of the following symptoms was MOST likely observed during their troubleshooting?
Continuous reboots
Incorrect time in the BIOS
Distended capacitor
POST code beeps
Continuous reboots
OBJ-5.2: A bad or faulty RAM module can cause system reboots, diminished system performance, and slow loading of websites and programs. This gradual deterioration of performance, especially with memory-intensive programs, may indicate a problem with the laptop’s system memory. The system memory should be tested and replaced (if needed) to allow the laptop to begin working efficiently.
Which cellular technology is compromised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?
3G
4G
LTE
5G
3G
OBJ-1.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps.
Jason’s laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone’s flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue?
Digitizer
LCD panel
Inverter
Graphics card
Inverter
OBJ-5.4: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.
Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee’s office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee?
Install the latest security updates
Connect the device to a second monitor
Install the operating system
Connect the thin client to a printer
Install the necessary applications
Connect the thin client to the network
Install the latest security updates
Install the necessary applications
Connect the thin client to the network
OBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.
Jason is building a new gaming computer for his son. Jason has calculated that the required wattage needed is 420 watts to the video card and all of the other internal devices. Which of the following power supplies should Jason purchase to meet the minimum power requirements for this computer?
250 W
525 W
750 W
350 W
525 W
OBJ-3.5: When purchasing a new power supply, it is important to understand the wattage requirements. Since the new computer needs a minimum of 420 watts of power, you must find a power supply that is large enough to meet this demand. In this case, the minimum rating that would meet this requirement is the 525-watt power supply. If a power supply doesn’t have a high enough wattage rating to provide the power needed, some or all of the devices will not power on or function properly. If a power supply is chosen that is too large, it will generate excessive heat that can overheat the computer and its components.
You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. When you arrive at the workstation, you recognize an error message on the screen that reads, “Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart.” Which of the following actions should you take first?
Reboot the computer into recovery mode and initiate the disk restoral process
Reboot the computer and allow it to load back into Windows
Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter “Bootrec /fixmbr” at the command prompt
Reboot the computer into the BIOs to see if the boot order is set to HDD
Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter “Bootrec /fixmbr” at the command prompt
OBJ-5.3: To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select “Repair your computer”, and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command “bootrec /fixmbr” to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.
An employee’s workstation will operate for a short period of time, but then it unexpectedly shuts down. When you check the workstation, you hear the hum of the cooling fans. What is most likely the issue?
Defective case fan
GPS overheated
CPU overheated
Defective NIC card
CPU overheated
OBJ-5.2: If a computer’s CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU’s cooling fan isn’t working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.
Tony, a system administrator, set up a printer on John’s workstation. During the setup, Tony was able to print a test page. Later, when John attempted to print a document, an error message was displayed that indicates access was denied to the printer. John tried to restart the printer and workstation, but the same error message is displayed when he attempts to print a document. Which of the following MOST likely caused this issue?
The printer is offline
The printer lacks the memory required to process the document
The print spooler is hung and must be restarted
The user lacks adequate security permissions to the printer
The use lacks adequate security permissions to the printer
OBJ-5.6: A printer needs the user to have the proper permissions to print. Since Tony was a system administrator, he had adequate permissions to print the test page. But, if Tony neglected to add the proper permissions to John’s account, then John would be unable to print. This is indicated by the access denied error message received when he attempts to print a document. The printer is not offline since it is powered on and properly connected to the workstation. The print spooler is not hung as evidenced by the system administrator can print to it. Memory limitations can be a factor, but that produces a different error message.
You connect a VOIP device on a user’s desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?
Fiber
Coaxial
CAT 6
CAT 3
CAT 6
OBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device’s power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.
Your company’s printer is displaying an error of “Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty.” Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using?
Inkjet
Thermal
Laser
3-D
Impact
3-D
OBJ-3.7: 3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.
On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer’s market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure?
Memory card reader
Bluetooth card reader
DB-9 reader
IR reader
Bluetooth card reader
OBJ-1.3: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser’s credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square’s mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase. DB-9 is a type of serial port connector used on legacy desktops and laptops. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A memory card is a flash drive typically used for digital cameras and smartphones.
Which of the following protocols operates over port 3389 by default?
POP3
RDP
Telnet
SSH
RDP
OBJ-2.1: The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.
Jason’s new iPhone has locked up, and the touchscreen is unresponsive. He tries to tap the screen, press the buttons, and still, nothing happens. What should he do next?
Hold down the home button for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
Hold down power and volume buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide the power off
Hold down the power button and then the sleep/wake button simultaneously for about 10 seconds
Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
OBJ-5.5: Smartphones can become frozen, hung up, or locked up to the point they are unresponsive to touch or some button presses. The best solution is to hold down the power and volume down buttons simultaneously on an iPhone and then slide to power off.
Which of the following cellular technologies was not widely used outside of the United States?
CDMA
GSM
4G
3G
CDMA
OBJ-1.4: The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA was only popular in the United States with a few providers (Verizon and Sprint). Most of the world instead uses GSM. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.
You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community’s public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue?
Disable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access point
Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn’t blocking your access to the website
Enable DHCP inside of your laptop’s network adapter settings
Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server
Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server
OBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.
What command is used to test if your own network card’s driver is working properly?
ping 192.168.1.1
ping 127.0.0.1
ping 8.8.8.8
ping 1.1.1.1
ping 127.0.0.1
OBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC’s driver.
Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?
Transfer roller
Duplexing assembly
Transfer belt
Pickup roller
Transfer belt
OBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.
Which of the following is an APIPA or link-local address?
169.254.64.23
192.168.1.34
33.52.7.83
127.0.0.1
169.254.64.23
OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. An APIPA address is also referred to as a link-local address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.
Which of the following is used when a CDMA smartphone attempts to connect to the cellular network while traveling? (Select ANY that apply)
PRI
Baseband
PRL
Firmware
PRI
PRL
OBJ-1.4: The PRI and PRL must be updated and referenced when traveling. The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.
Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default?
Subnet mask
Static IP
Gateway
Dynamic IP
Gateway
OBJ-2.5: The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. The subnet mask is used in IPv4 to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. The subnet mask differentiates the two portions of an IP address into the Network ID and the Host ID.
A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST?
Backup the hard drive
Reformat the hard drive
Run diskpart
Run chkdsk
Backup the hard drive
OBJ-5.3: S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.
Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?
Incorrect antenna type
Signal attenuation
Bandwidth saturation
DHCP exhaustion
Signal attenuation
OBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas. DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.
What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Test the theory to determine the cause
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures
OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
A technician is troubleshooting a newly installed WAP that is sporadically dropping connections to devices on the network. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST during troubleshooting?
Bandwidth saturation
Encryption type
WAP placement
WAP SSID
WAP placement
OBJ-5.7: For optimal network performance, the placement of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) guidelines should be taken into consideration to ensure that the building’s construction doesn’t cause interference with the wireless signals. To determine if adequate coverage and signal strength is being received in the building, you can conduct a wireless site survey. The service set identifier (SSID) is a group of wireless network devices which share a common natural language label, such as a network name. The SSID would not affect the devices and cause sporadic connection drops. Bandwidth saturation is a phenomenon that occurs when all of a circuit’s available bandwidth in a given direction is being utilized by a large upload or download which can result in high latency and performance issues. Bandwidth saturation would not cause the wireless connection to drop, though. Encryption type refers to the type of security used on a wireless network, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3. The security type used on a network would not cause sporadic drops of the network connection, though.
Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?
802.11s
802.3at
802.11ac
802.3af
802.3af
OBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.
You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server’s mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements?
SMTP
IMAP
HTTPS
POP3
POP3
OBJ-1.4: You should configure POP3 because the mail is downloaded to the device and removes mail from the server’s mailbox by default. IMAP does not remove the mail from the server when the client connects but instead maintains a copy on the server indefinitely until the user forces it to be deleted. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.
Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server?
RAID 0
RAID 10
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10
OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.
Dion Training’s video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card?
The number of SATA connectors available
The power supply’s efficiency rating
The power supply supports a 12 VDC input
The power supply’s wattage rating
The power supply’s wattage rating
OBJ-3.5: Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system’s power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card. SATA connectors are not used with graphics cards but are instead used for storage devices and optical drives. The power supply should support 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input and provide 12 VDC, 5 VDC, and 3.3 VDC as its output. The power supply’s efficiency rating would tell the user how much of the input power is being converted to output power, but this is not important in deciding if the power supply can support the new graphics card.
When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?
VDI
Virtual NIC
VPN
VNC
Virtual NIC
OBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.
Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?
Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround
Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it to the network
Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network
Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB
Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network
OBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.
Which button on a desktop computer begins a reboot of the computer without power being removed from the computer’s components?
Hibernate
Suspend
Reset
Power
Reset
OBJ-3.4: The reset button is usually located on the front panel of a desktop computer next to the power button. When the reset button is pressed, it allows the user to reboot the computer without releasing power from the system’s components. This is often used when software has malfunctioned and caused the computer to halt or lock up. The power button is used to shut down or put the computer to sleep. There is usually not a dedicated suspend or hibernate button, but these are instead provided as software buttons in the operating system.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to connect two dissimilar networks such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the wide area network (WAN)?
Router
Hub
Managed switch
Access point
Router
OBJ-2.2: A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator.
The projector in the Dion Training conference room is creating a distorted image when in use. The technician measures the top of the screen at 72” wide and the bottom of the screen at only 66” wide. The technician checks the projector’s resolution and the resolution in the operating system’s display settings. They notice that they are both set correctly to HDTV (1920 x 1080) mode. Which of the following settings on the project should the technician adjust to fix this distortion?
Contrast
Brightness
Color depth
Keystone
Keystone
OBJ-5.4: A keystone effect occurs when the top of a projected image is wider or narrower than the bottom of the image. This creates a trapezoid instead of a rectangular image and leads to distortion. To fix the keystone effect in an image, you need to adjust the keystone setting in the projector. The brightness setting will increase or decrease the number of lumens of the projected image to make it lighter or darker. The contrast is the amount of difference between the whiteness and darkness in a projected image. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Brightness, contrast, and color depth do not affect the size or shape of the image being projected.
Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one?
Battery
Cellular card
Screen
DC jack
DC Jack
OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.
You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize?
Channel 11
Channel 10
Channel 9
Channel 12
Channel 11
OBJ-2.3: With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.
Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?
22
21
143
80
22
OBJ-2.1: Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.
Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?
Hub
Wireless access point
Router
Unmanaged switch
Router
OBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.
You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don’t have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?
USB 4-port hub
Port replicator
Thunderbolt
Docking station
Docking station
OBJ-1.3: A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.
