Test 1 Flashcards
Which of the following is the MOST dangerous type of threat when using virtualization?
VM Escape
Rogue VM
VM sprawl
Virtual NIC duplication
VM Escape
OBJ-4.2: VM escape refers to malware running on a guest OS jumping to another guest or the host. As with any other software type, it is vital to keep the hypervisor code up-to-date with patches for critical vulnerabilities. VM escape is the biggest threat to virtualized systems. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. VM sprawl is the uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs.
Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop?
A. 5400 rpm
B. 10,000 rpm
C. 7200 rpm
D. 15,000 rpm
5400 rpm
OBJ-3.3: Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.
What type of cloud model would allow the sharing of resources by multiple organizations to create a service that benefits all of its members?
Private Cloud
Public Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
Community Cloud
Community Cloud
OBJ-4.1: A community cloud in computing is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns, whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally. Community Cloud is a hybrid form of private cloud. They are multi-tenant platforms that enable different organizations to work on a shared platform. Community Cloud may be hosted in a data center, owned by one of the tenants, or by a third-party cloud services provider and can be either on-site or off-site. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.
Dion Training wants to install a network cable to run a television signal between two buildings. Which of the following cable types should it utilize?
Plenum
Fiber
Shielded
Coaxial
Coaxial
OBJ-3.1: A coaxial cable is a cable used to transmit video, communications, and audio. A coaxial or coax cable is most commonly used as a cable to connect a TV to a cable TV service. Coaxial cables are a specialized type of copper cabling that uses a copper core to carry the electrical signal while being enclosed by plastic insulation and shielding to protect the data transmission from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). An optical fiber consists of an ultra-fine core of glass to carry the light signals surrounded by glass or plastic cladding, which guides the light pulses along the core, and a protective coating. The fiber optic cable is contained in a protective jacket and terminated by a connector. Fiber optic cables use light signals to carry data across a cable at extremely high bandwidths.
A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won’t turn on, and the battery won’t charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue?
Replace the DC jack
Replace the power adapter
Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet
Replace the battery
Replace the DC jack
OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates that the DC jack is faulty. Since the battery was replaced and the laptop continues to work, this indicates it isn’t a battery issue but is, instead, most likely a DC jack issue. The DC jack often gets broken on a laptop, and if the jack is broken, the device cannot charge or receive power from the power adapter or wall outlet.
You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist?
514
445
143
123
445
OBJ-2.1: Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments. When the WannaCry ransomware was spreading rapidly across the internet, you could help protect your organization’s network by blocking ports 139 and 445 at your firewall to prevent your machines from getting infected over the internet. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.
Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?
427
443
389
445
427
OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.
Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use?
-5 VDC
+5 VDC
-24 VDC
+24 VDC
-24 VDC
OBJ-3.7: The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) of a laser printer is used to convert high voltage AC into lower voltage DC for the printer. The DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer’s logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.
You are attempting to troubleshoot a computer for a user. When you attempt to turn on the computer by pressing the power button, the computer turns on, and the fan spins normally. There is no output displayed on the screen from the PCIe x16 video card. You turn off the computer, remove the processor and the memory, and attempt to power on the computer again. During the boot-up sequence, you do not hear any POST beep codes, but the fans still spin normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his issue?
The CMOS battery needs to be replaces
The motherboard has failed and needs to be replaced
The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer
The power supply’s voltage switch is set to 240V but the power outlet is providing 110V
The power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer
OBJ-5.2: If your computer won’t boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won’t start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won’t boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue’s source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) infrastructure?
Cable modem
Optical network terminal
Software-defined networking
Digital subscriber line
Cable Modem
OBJ-2.2: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.
On Tuesday evening, the company just pushed a new Windows 10 security update to all of its workstations. On Wednesday morning, the help desk receives numerous complaints about the network being slower than normal. Previously, the network was baselined at 1 Gbps as each workstation uses a wired CAT 6 connection. Today, a technician ran a speed test and saw the network was only reaching speeds of 100 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network slowdown?
The network was reconfigured from DHCP to static
The incorrect DHCP server configuration is being used
The network card drivers were updated last night
The incorrect DNS server configuration is being used
The network card drivers were updated last night
OBJ-5.7: Often, security updates, patches, and upgrades will reconfigure a network card’s drivers during a Windows security update. If this happens, the system may revert to a more generic version of the driver, decreasing speeds from 1 Gbps to 100 Mbps. The network card’s drivers should be rolled back to the previous driver to restore functionality and correct it. If there were configuration changes to the DNS or DHCP server, it would limit connectivity completely instead of simply slowing down the connection. If the network changed from DHCP to static assignments, the workstations would not get an APIPA address and would not have connected to the network at a slower speed.
Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?
USB 1.1
USB 2.0
USB 3.0
USB 1.0
USB 3.0
OBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the power supply needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
Continuous reboot
Distended capacitors
Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Burning smell
Burning smell
OBJ-5.2: A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.
Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default?
25
53
161
139
161
OBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.
Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem?
Validate the security certificate from the host
Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation
Ensure that port 20 open
Ensure the port 161 is open
Ensure that port 20 open
OBJ-5.7: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client’s authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open.
Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http://www.diontraining.com but can access https://www.diontraining.com?
80
445
53
443
80
OBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.
You are building a Desktop PC for a newly hired employee at Dion Training. The computer’s motherboard doesn’t have a wireless network adapter integrated into it, so you need to purchase an expansion card to provide this functionality. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the wireless network adapter card?
eSATA
PCIe x16
AGP
PCIe x1
PCIe x1
OBJ-3.4: PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has several PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Network adapters and Wi-Fi network cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x1 expansion slots or a USB connection for their connectivity. Graphics cards usually rely on a PCIe x16 expansion slot. eSATA is an external SATA port used to connect an external storage device such as a hard drive. The accelerated graphics port (AGP) is a parallel expansion card standard that was originally designed for attaching a video card to a computer system to assist in the acceleration of 3D computer graphics. AGP has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds.
You are connecting a laptop to a brand new digital high definition TV. Unfortunately, the laptop is a little outdated and only has an analog display output. Which of the following adapters could you use to convert the signal from analog to digital for use with the new television?
DVI-D to HDMI
VGA to DVI-D
S-Video to RCA
HDMI to VGA
VGA to DVI-D
OBJ-3.1: Since this question asks you to select the converter that can convert a signal from analog to digital, you need to consider which of the connectors are analog and digital. S-Video, RCA, and VGA are all analog. HDMI and DVI-D are both digital. Therefore, the correct answer is VGA (analog) to DVI-D (Digital). HDMI to VGA would be digital to analog. S-Video to RCA would be analog to analog. DVI-D to HDMI would be digital to digital.
You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur?
DHCP server
Proxy server
DNS server
TACACS+ server
DHCP server
OBJ-2.4: A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server use to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching an end user.
You work as a computer technician for a production company that travels worldwide while filming and editing music videos. Due to the nature of video editing, you will be building a video production workstation for the company that will have the maximum amount of RAM, an 8-core CPU, a dedicated GPU, and a redundant array of solid-state devices for storage. You are now determining which power supply to install in the system. What is the MOST important characteristic to consider when choosing a power supply?
Input voltage
Number of SATA connectors
Amperage of 12V rail
Efficiency rating
Input voltage
OBJ-3.5: This question provides you with many details, but the key phrase in finding the answer is in the first sentence. This computer will be traveling worldwide, and the most important consideration will be the input voltage. If you choose a 120-volt power supply, it would be destroyed if plugged into a 240-volt outlet (commonly used outside the United States). Conversely, if you use a 240-volt power supply and plug it into a 120-volt outlet, it will not function due to the lower voltage. Therefore, you need to pick a power supply with dual voltage selection capability for maximum compatibility worldwide.
You are building a virtualization environment to host several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to the local corporate network and communicate with the host operating system, the other VMs, and the internal network clients. Still, they should not have access to the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?
Localhost
External
Internal
Private
Internal
OBJ-4.2: If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.
Tamera was responding to a complaint that one of the employees is having problems with the wired network connection on their laptop. She investigated the issue to see why it will not connect to the network. Tamera looked at the indicator lights, but she doesn’t see the blinking she expected to view. Instead, the light is steady. What is MOST likely the issue?
No network activity
Intermittent connectivity
Incorrect TCP/IP configuration
Low RF signal
No network activity
OBJ-5.7: If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts. Since this is a wired network connection, it cannot be a low RF signal as that is a wireless network problem.
You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the “Operating System Not Found” error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error?
An unsupported version of Linux installed
The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally
An incompatible partition is marked as active
Windows Startup services are not properly running
An incompatible partition is marked as active
OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.
You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of “OS not found” is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?
Repair the GPT
Perform a chkdsk
Repartition the drive
Replace the HDD with an SSD
Repair the GPT
OBJ-5.3: The “OS not found” error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the ‘bootrec /fixboot’ command to fix the GPT.
Your company has recently migrated much of your data center to the cloud. Now, your boss needs a method to monitor all services used in supporting your customers to be properly billed based on their usage. Which of the following cloud computing concepts is your boss describing?
Resource pooling
Measured services
Rapid elasticity
On-demand
Measured services
OBJ-4.1: Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.
Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP?
HTTPS
TFTP
DHCP
SNMP
HTTPS
OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over TCP port 443. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.
Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation?
Bluetooth
Zigbee
Z-Wave
NFC
Zigbee
OBJ-2.4: Zigbee is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. Zigbee is open-source, unlike Z-Wave, which is proprietary. Zigbee uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This higher frequency allows more data bandwidth at the expense of range than Z-Wave and the greater risk of interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall devices within a single network (65,000 compared to 232 for Z-wave), and there is no hop limit for communication between devices. Z-wave is a low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-wave uses radio frequencies in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz frequency ranges. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.
Which of the following is used to capture the logs from different devices across the network to correlate different events across multiple servers and clients?
Syslog server
Proxy server
DHCP server
DNS server
Syslog server
OBJ-2.4: A Syslog server is used to capture logs from different devices. It allows for the correlation of logs to simplify log review and an analyst’s ability to respond to alerts. For example, Syslog messages can be generated by Cisco routers and switches, servers and workstations, and collected in a central database for viewing and analysis. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture.
Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv4 address?
192:168:1:55
192.168.1.254
::1
00:AB:FA:B1:07:34
192.168.1.254
OBJ-2.5: An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.
Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations?
13
11
6
1
13
OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.
Which of the following virtualization concepts refers to a VM’s ability to have memory allocated for its use?
Resource pooling
Measured service
Synchronization
Virtual application streaming
Resource Pooling
OBJ-4.1: Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Measured service is a term that IT professionals apply to cloud computing that references services where the cloud provider measures or monitors the provision of services for various reasons, including billing, effective use of resources, or overall predictive planning. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices and share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Virtual application streaming allows an application to be delivered to a workstation from the cloud.
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to send their emails when out of the office. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to send their mail?
IMAP
HTTPS
SMTP
POP3
SMTP
OBJ-1.4: You should configure SMTP since it is the only protocol used to send emails. POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.
What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?
Broadcast
Loopback
Multicast
Public
Loopback
OBJ-2.5: In IPv6, ::1 is the loopback address. In IPv4, the loopback address is 127.0.0.1. The loopback address is used to send a test signal sent to a network destination to diagnose problems. A broadcast address is an IP address that is used to target all systems on a specific subnet network instead of single hosts. A multicast address is a logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network that are available to process datagrams or frames intended to be multicast for a designated network service. The address shown is not a broadcast or multicast address. A public address is routable over the internet but ::1 is a loopback address and therefore not publicly routable on the internet.
Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default?
53
3389
427
389
389
OBJ-2.1: The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.
Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?
Rapid elasticity
Resource pooling
On-demand
Metered services
Rapid elasticity
OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization’s data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.
You are configuring a new client workstation on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?
Static
Dynamic
APIPA
Link-local
Dynamic
OBJ-2.5: A dynamic IP address should be used for client workstations and devices to ensure they are easy to configure and less prone to human error. When configuring a dynamic IP address, the DHCP server should issue the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address to the workstation or device. A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.
You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select?
Syslog server
IDS
IPS
Proxy server
IPS
OBJ-2.4: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that detects and prevents identified threats. Intrusion prevention systems continuously monitor your network, looking for possible malicious incidents, and capturing information about them. An IPS can block malicious network traffic, unlike an IDS, which can only log them. A proxy server is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource. System Logging Protocol (Syslog) uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.
Jason has just returned to his office after vacation and is attempting to access diontraining.com. He receives an error that he cannot connect to the website. He then tries to connect to the company’s local intranet server, which he can connect to without any issues. Next, he pings the IP address for diontraining.com and gets a successful connection. Finally, he tries to ping diontraining.com by its domain name, and then he receives an error. Which of the following commands should Jason enter NEXT to try and resolve this issue
ipconfig /renew
ipconfig /release
ipconfig /flushdns
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /flushdns
OBJ-5.7: Whenever you have an issue where you can ping the server’s IP, but you cannot access it by its domain name, it has something to do with DNS. Being able to troubleshoot issues with internet connections is an important part of being an IT technician or administrator. The ipconfig /flushdns command provides you with a means to flush and reset the contents of the DNS client resolver cache. During DNS troubleshooting, if necessary, you can use this procedure to discard negative cache entries from the cache, as well as, any other dynamically added entries. Resetting the cache does not eliminate entries that are preloaded from the local Hosts file. To eliminate those entries from the cache, remove them from the hosts.ini file instead.
Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 480 Mbps?
USB 1.1
USB 2.0
USB 3.0
USB 1.0
USB 2.0
OBJ-3.1: USB 2.0 can support data rates up to 480 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.
You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices?
POP3
HTTPS
SMTP
IMAP
IMAP
OBJ-1.4: You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email’s read state. If you configure POP3, the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server’s mailbox by default. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.
Dion Security Group has established a Security Operations Center (SOC) that operates 24/7. They have several 65” plasma TVs at the front of the room that are used as computer displays to show open tickets. You turned off the televisions to clean the screens and noticed that the company logo is still visible in each of the screens’ upper left corners. Which of the following should you do to correct this?
Degauss the television
Replace the HDMI cable
Replace the plasma TVs
Replace the video card
Replace the plasma TVs
OBJ-5.4: The logo in the upper left corner has been burned into the display since it is a static image. This is common with plasma displays and TVs. To fix this, you need to replace the TVs. If you plan to have a lot of static content on a display, you should use an OLED or LED display instead. If burn-in was experienced on old CRT monitors, you could run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in. Unfortunately, this will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED displays, though.
Susan, a computer technician, received a complaint from a client about an issue with their laptop. Based on the symptoms observed, she believes that there is an issue with the laptop’s memory. Which of the following symptoms was MOST likely observed during their troubleshooting?
Continuous reboots
Incorrect time in the BIOS
Distended capacitor
POST code beeps
Continuous reboots
OBJ-5.2: A bad or faulty RAM module can cause system reboots, diminished system performance, and slow loading of websites and programs. This gradual deterioration of performance, especially with memory-intensive programs, may indicate a problem with the laptop’s system memory. The system memory should be tested and replaced (if needed) to allow the laptop to begin working efficiently.
Which cellular technology is compromised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols?
3G
4G
LTE
5G
3G
OBJ-1.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps.
Jason’s laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone’s flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue?
Digitizer
LCD panel
Inverter
Graphics card
Inverter
OBJ-5.4: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.
Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee’s office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee?
Install the latest security updates
Connect the device to a second monitor
Install the operating system
Connect the thin client to a printer
Install the necessary applications
Connect the thin client to the network
Install the latest security updates
Install the necessary applications
Connect the thin client to the network
OBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.
Jason is building a new gaming computer for his son. Jason has calculated that the required wattage needed is 420 watts to the video card and all of the other internal devices. Which of the following power supplies should Jason purchase to meet the minimum power requirements for this computer?
250 W
525 W
750 W
350 W
525 W
OBJ-3.5: When purchasing a new power supply, it is important to understand the wattage requirements. Since the new computer needs a minimum of 420 watts of power, you must find a power supply that is large enough to meet this demand. In this case, the minimum rating that would meet this requirement is the 525-watt power supply. If a power supply doesn’t have a high enough wattage rating to provide the power needed, some or all of the devices will not power on or function properly. If a power supply is chosen that is too large, it will generate excessive heat that can overheat the computer and its components.
You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. When you arrive at the workstation, you recognize an error message on the screen that reads, “Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart.” Which of the following actions should you take first?
Reboot the computer into recovery mode and initiate the disk restoral process
Reboot the computer and allow it to load back into Windows
Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter “Bootrec /fixmbr” at the command prompt
Reboot the computer into the BIOs to see if the boot order is set to HDD
Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter “Bootrec /fixmbr” at the command prompt
OBJ-5.3: To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select “Repair your computer”, and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command “bootrec /fixmbr” to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.
An employee’s workstation will operate for a short period of time, but then it unexpectedly shuts down. When you check the workstation, you hear the hum of the cooling fans. What is most likely the issue?
Defective case fan
GPS overheated
CPU overheated
Defective NIC card
CPU overheated
OBJ-5.2: If a computer’s CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU’s cooling fan isn’t working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.
Tony, a system administrator, set up a printer on John’s workstation. During the setup, Tony was able to print a test page. Later, when John attempted to print a document, an error message was displayed that indicates access was denied to the printer. John tried to restart the printer and workstation, but the same error message is displayed when he attempts to print a document. Which of the following MOST likely caused this issue?
The printer is offline
The printer lacks the memory required to process the document
The print spooler is hung and must be restarted
The user lacks adequate security permissions to the printer
The use lacks adequate security permissions to the printer
OBJ-5.6: A printer needs the user to have the proper permissions to print. Since Tony was a system administrator, he had adequate permissions to print the test page. But, if Tony neglected to add the proper permissions to John’s account, then John would be unable to print. This is indicated by the access denied error message received when he attempts to print a document. The printer is not offline since it is powered on and properly connected to the workstation. The print spooler is not hung as evidenced by the system administrator can print to it. Memory limitations can be a factor, but that produces a different error message.
You connect a VOIP device on a user’s desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?
Fiber
Coaxial
CAT 6
CAT 3
CAT 6
OBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device’s power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.
Your company’s printer is displaying an error of “Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty.” Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using?
Inkjet
Thermal
Laser
3-D
Impact
3-D
OBJ-3.7: 3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.
On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer’s market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure?
Memory card reader
Bluetooth card reader
DB-9 reader
IR reader
Bluetooth card reader
OBJ-1.3: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser’s credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square’s mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase. DB-9 is a type of serial port connector used on legacy desktops and laptops. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A memory card is a flash drive typically used for digital cameras and smartphones.
Which of the following protocols operates over port 3389 by default?
POP3
RDP
Telnet
SSH
RDP
OBJ-2.1: The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.
Jason’s new iPhone has locked up, and the touchscreen is unresponsive. He tries to tap the screen, press the buttons, and still, nothing happens. What should he do next?
Hold down the home button for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
Hold down power and volume buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide the power off
Hold down the power button and then the sleep/wake button simultaneously for about 10 seconds
Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off
OBJ-5.5: Smartphones can become frozen, hung up, or locked up to the point they are unresponsive to touch or some button presses. The best solution is to hold down the power and volume down buttons simultaneously on an iPhone and then slide to power off.
Which of the following cellular technologies was not widely used outside of the United States?
CDMA
GSM
4G
3G
CDMA
OBJ-1.4: The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA was only popular in the United States with a few providers (Verizon and Sprint). Most of the world instead uses GSM. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.
You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community’s public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue?
Disable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access point
Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn’t blocking your access to the website
Enable DHCP inside of your laptop’s network adapter settings
Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server
Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server
OBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.
What command is used to test if your own network card’s driver is working properly?
ping 192.168.1.1
ping 127.0.0.1
ping 8.8.8.8
ping 1.1.1.1
ping 127.0.0.1
OBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC’s driver.
Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass?
Transfer roller
Duplexing assembly
Transfer belt
Pickup roller
Transfer belt
OBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.
Which of the following is an APIPA or link-local address?
169.254.64.23
192.168.1.34
33.52.7.83
127.0.0.1
169.254.64.23
OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. An APIPA address is also referred to as a link-local address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.
Which of the following is used when a CDMA smartphone attempts to connect to the cellular network while traveling? (Select ANY that apply)
PRI
Baseband
PRL
Firmware
PRI
PRL
OBJ-1.4: The PRI and PRL must be updated and referenced when traveling. The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.
Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default?
Subnet mask
Static IP
Gateway
Dynamic IP
Gateway
OBJ-2.5: The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. The subnet mask is used in IPv4 to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. The subnet mask differentiates the two portions of an IP address into the Network ID and the Host ID.
A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST?
Backup the hard drive
Reformat the hard drive
Run diskpart
Run chkdsk
Backup the hard drive
OBJ-5.3: S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.
Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?
Incorrect antenna type
Signal attenuation
Bandwidth saturation
DHCP exhaustion
Signal attenuation
OBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas. DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.
What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Test the theory to determine the cause
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures
OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
A technician is troubleshooting a newly installed WAP that is sporadically dropping connections to devices on the network. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST during troubleshooting?
Bandwidth saturation
Encryption type
WAP placement
WAP SSID
WAP placement
OBJ-5.7: For optimal network performance, the placement of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) guidelines should be taken into consideration to ensure that the building’s construction doesn’t cause interference with the wireless signals. To determine if adequate coverage and signal strength is being received in the building, you can conduct a wireless site survey. The service set identifier (SSID) is a group of wireless network devices which share a common natural language label, such as a network name. The SSID would not affect the devices and cause sporadic connection drops. Bandwidth saturation is a phenomenon that occurs when all of a circuit’s available bandwidth in a given direction is being utilized by a large upload or download which can result in high latency and performance issues. Bandwidth saturation would not cause the wireless connection to drop, though. Encryption type refers to the type of security used on a wireless network, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3. The security type used on a network would not cause sporadic drops of the network connection, though.
Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?
802.11s
802.3at
802.11ac
802.3af
802.3af
OBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.
You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server’s mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements?
SMTP
IMAP
HTTPS
POP3
POP3
OBJ-1.4: You should configure POP3 because the mail is downloaded to the device and removes mail from the server’s mailbox by default. IMAP does not remove the mail from the server when the client connects but instead maintains a copy on the server indefinitely until the user forces it to be deleted. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.
Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server?
RAID 0
RAID 10
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10
OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.
Dion Training’s video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card?
The number of SATA connectors available
The power supply’s efficiency rating
The power supply supports a 12 VDC input
The power supply’s wattage rating
The power supply’s wattage rating
OBJ-3.5: Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system’s power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card. SATA connectors are not used with graphics cards but are instead used for storage devices and optical drives. The power supply should support 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input and provide 12 VDC, 5 VDC, and 3.3 VDC as its output. The power supply’s efficiency rating would tell the user how much of the input power is being converted to output power, but this is not important in deciding if the power supply can support the new graphics card.
When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network?
VDI
Virtual NIC
VPN
VNC
Virtual NIC
OBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.
Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?
Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround
Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it to the network
Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network
Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB
Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network
OBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.
Which button on a desktop computer begins a reboot of the computer without power being removed from the computer’s components?
Hibernate
Suspend
Reset
Power
Reset
OBJ-3.4: The reset button is usually located on the front panel of a desktop computer next to the power button. When the reset button is pressed, it allows the user to reboot the computer without releasing power from the system’s components. This is often used when software has malfunctioned and caused the computer to halt or lock up. The power button is used to shut down or put the computer to sleep. There is usually not a dedicated suspend or hibernate button, but these are instead provided as software buttons in the operating system.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to connect two dissimilar networks such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the wide area network (WAN)?
Router
Hub
Managed switch
Access point
Router
OBJ-2.2: A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator.
The projector in the Dion Training conference room is creating a distorted image when in use. The technician measures the top of the screen at 72” wide and the bottom of the screen at only 66” wide. The technician checks the projector’s resolution and the resolution in the operating system’s display settings. They notice that they are both set correctly to HDTV (1920 x 1080) mode. Which of the following settings on the project should the technician adjust to fix this distortion?
Contrast
Brightness
Color depth
Keystone
Keystone
OBJ-5.4: A keystone effect occurs when the top of a projected image is wider or narrower than the bottom of the image. This creates a trapezoid instead of a rectangular image and leads to distortion. To fix the keystone effect in an image, you need to adjust the keystone setting in the projector. The brightness setting will increase or decrease the number of lumens of the projected image to make it lighter or darker. The contrast is the amount of difference between the whiteness and darkness in a projected image. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Brightness, contrast, and color depth do not affect the size or shape of the image being projected.
Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one?
Battery
Cellular card
Screen
DC jack
DC Jack
OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.
You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize?
Channel 11
Channel 10
Channel 9
Channel 12
Channel 11
OBJ-2.3: With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.
Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?
22
21
143
80
22
OBJ-2.1: Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.
Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101?
Hub
Wireless access point
Router
Unmanaged switch
Router
OBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.
You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don’t have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?
USB 4-port hub
Port replicator
Thunderbolt
Docking station
Docking station
OBJ-1.3: A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.
Your company has decided to upgrade its legacy phone system to use VoIP devices instead. The new phones will download the configurations from a server each time they boot up. Which of the following ports needs to be opened on the firewall to ensure the phones can communicate with the TFTP server and download their boot-up configurations?
21
53
161
69
69
OBJ-2.1: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple protocol that provides a basic file transfer function with no user authentication. TFTP uses port 69 to communicate. TFTP is intended for applications that do not need the sophisticated interactions that File Transfer Protocol (FTP) provides. The File Transfer Protocol is a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client on a computer network. FTP uses port 21 to communicate. The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to translate requests for names into IP addresses, controlling which server an end-user will reach when they type a domain name into their web browser. DNS uses port 53 to communicate. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a networking protocol used for the management and monitoring of network-connected devices in Internet Protocol networks. SNMP uses port 161 to communicate.
(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real exam, you may be given a chart with numerous ports and protocols and be asked to drag and drop them to match the ports with the protocols.) What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize?
21, 22
20, 21
21, 23
22,23
21, 22
OBJ-2.1: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22. Port 23 is used by Telnet. If this were a question on the real exam, you would see a list of ports on one side and a list of protocols on the other, and you would drag and drop each one to match them up. (It might also have 4-6 different pairs to match up.)
What is the simplest and most cost-efficient way to allow other network users to access a printer if the printer does not have an RJ-45 or WiFi adapter available?
Order another printer with network capabilities and share it on the network
Establish a print share on the local host
Establish a printer share on the network switch
Order a printer port converter to a share a non-networked printer
Establish a print share on the local host
OBJ-5.6: The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.
What type of expansion bus technology uses lanes with point-to-point communication paths between two components on the motherboard?
AGP
PCIe
PCI-X
PCI
PCIe
OBJ-3.4: PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) uses lanes between any two intercommunicating devices. This utilizes a separated pair of wires for both directions of traffic. This increases the bus lanes’ speed since there is no possibility of collisions or waiting for other devices to finish communicating. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. AGP, PCI, and PCI-X are older technologies that rely on shared busses for communication.
Which of the following ports is used for the request and distribution of DHCP configuration information?
67
162
80
53
67
OBJ-2.1: The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper).
Which of the following types of optical discs can only support storing up to 700 MB on a single piece of media?
CD-RW
BD-R
DVD-R
SD
CD-RW
OBJ-3.3: A CD can store up to 700 MB. A DVD can store 4.7 GB for a single-layer disc or 8.5 GB for a dual-layer disc. A Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB for a single-layer disc or 50 GB for a dual-layer disc. A SD card is a type of memory card and is not considered an optical disc.
Which of the following ports are used by the NetBIOS protocol to share files and printers on a Windows network? (Select ANY that apply)
139
443
110
20
139
OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.
Dion Training has asked you to consult on the installation of their new file server. The current server consists of a RAID 5 array with three 1 TB 7200 RPM hard disk drives. Due to the increased reliance on the new file server, you have been asked to recommend a RAID solution that will help ensure there is no unscheduled downtime, no data loss, and increase speed/performance over the current file server. Based on these requirements, which of the following RAID solutions should you recommend?
RAID 10
RAID 5
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 10
OBJ-3.3: A RAID 10 is the best solution to meet all of these requirements since it provides a fully redundant RAID with both the advantages of mirroring and disk striping. RAID 5 provides redundancy, but it will not improve the speed/performance over the current file server in use since it was also a RAID 5. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.
Eleanor, a user, contacts the help desk to report that her workstation will not boot up this morning. The help desk technician verifies that the workstation’s memory, power supply, and monitor function properly. The technician believes that the hard drive is not recognized by the system based on an error message displayed on the screen. Which of the following error messages was being displayed?
Operating system not found
BIOS ROM checksum error
NTLDR not found
No boot device available
No boot device available
OBJ-5.3: “No boot device available” is an error message that indicates the workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. If the error message were “Operating system not found” or “NTLDR not found,” this would indicate that the hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. The “BIOS ROM checksum error” would indicate an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive.
The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue?
Rollback the print drivers on the print server
Disable the SSID broadcast on the wireless access point
Update the print drivers on each employee’s machine
Configure a static IP for the printer
Configure a static IP for the printer
OBJ-5.7: Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.
A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine?
Enable virtualization within Windows
Enable virtualization within the BIOS
Verify AMD-V is installed
Verify Hyper-V is installed
Enable virtualization within the BIOS
OBJ-4.2: By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.
Which of the following network configurations on a virtual machine are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself?
Localhost
Private
Internal
External
Internal
OBJ-4.2: Virtual machines can have their network configured as internal to prevent them from communicating with the internet. When configured to internal, the VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.
Your Windows 10 machine has just crashed. Where should you look to identify the cause of the system crash and how to fix it?
POST
MAC
BSOD
DDOS
BSOD
OBJ-5.2: A stop error, commonly called the blue screen of death, blue screen, or BSoD, is an error screen displayed on a Windows computer system following a fatal system error. It indicates a system crash, in which the operating system has reached a condition where it can no longer operate safely. Each BSOD displays a “stop code” that can research the cause of the error and how to solve it. A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique physical hardware address for each Ethernet network adapter that is composed of 12 hexadecimal digits. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources. The Power On Self Test (POST) is a built-in diagnostic program that checks the hardware to ensure the components required to boot the PC are present and functioning correctly.
Dion Training has created a custom corporate application for its employees to access its student information database. This application is not found in the public App Store and must be installed directly on the device by one of the Dion Training system administrators. Which of the following technologies should the administrator use to install a profile with their security credentials and this custom application on an employee’s iPhone?
CDMA
GSM
NVMe
MDM
MDM
OBJ-1.4: Apple’s iOS prevents custom applications from being loaded onto the device by default. To install a customer corporate application, the system administrator must install a profile with their security credentials along with the application onto the device using a mobile device management (MDM) suite. Once installed, the system administrator must go to Settings -> General -> Profiles and mark it as Trusted. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI.
You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD?
Enable the power-saving mode of the SSD
Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of hte SSD
Disable memory caching on the SSD
Enable the paging file within the operating system
Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD
OBJ-3.3: An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the hard drive’s lifespan. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn’t matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when using an SSD to extend its lifespan.
You have just set up a Minecraft server on a spare computer within your network and want your friends to connect to it over the internet. What do you need to configure in your SOHO router to allow your friends to connect to the new Minecraft server you created?
Configure your Wi-Fi to use Channel 11
Configure port forwarding
Update the firmware
Enable DHCP
Configure port forwarding
OBJ-2.5: Port forwarding occurs when a router takes requests from the Internet for a particular application, such as HTTP/port 80), and sends them to a designated host on the local area network. This question did not mention that Wi-Fi was being used in the 2.4 GHz frequency range, therefore using channels 1, 6, and 11 is not required to minimize interference. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP does not need to be configured to use a server and most servers use static IP addresses instead of dynamic ones. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types.
You need to determine the best way to test operating system patches in a lab environment before deploying them to your automated patch management system. Unfortunately, your network has several different operating systems in use, but you only have one machine available to test the patches on. What is the best environment to utilize to perform the testing of the patches before deployment?
Bypass testing and deploy patches directly in to the production environment
Virtualization
Purchase additional workstations
Sandboxing
Virtualization
OBJ-4.2: When you have a limited amount of hardware resources to utilize but have a requirement to test multiple operating systems, you should set up a virtualized environment to test the patch across each operating system before deployment. You should never deploy patches directly into production without testing them first in the lab. Virtualization will allow the organization to create a lab environment without significant costs. Purchasing additional workstations would be costly and more time-consuming to configure.
A customer’s computer has a noisy, whining sound coming from it when in use. You opened the case and did not see any dust on the fans. What should you attempt next to eliminate the noise?
Apply a small amount of oil to the fan’s bearings
Replace the fans
Clean the fans using a damp cloth
Apply compressed air to each of the fans
Apply a small amount of oil to the fan’s bearings
OBJ-5.2: The best step would be to apply a small amount of oil to each of the fan’s bearings, as this will eliminate the noise. If the fans had been dusty, you would instead apply compressed air or clean the fan blades using a damp cloth. Since there was no dust noticed, this cannot be the whining source, and instead, you should apply oil to the bearings. Over time, dust can get into the fan bearings, causing increased friction when spinning and creating a whining sound. If this doesn’t solve the noise, then you would replace the case fans.
Which application would NOT allow you to sync your data between your Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS devices?
DropBox
Google Drive
Shadow Copy
OneDrive
Shadow Copy
OBJ-4.1: Shadow Copy will not sync your data between Windows, macOS, Android, and iOS devices because it only works on Windows devices. OneDrive, Google Drive, and DropBox allow you to configure their synchronization applications on all four of these operating systems to keep them synced with the latest version in the cloud service. These applications are all a form of SaaS (software as a service). Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.
What is the name of the printer concept that is used a page description language that produces higher quality outputs at the expense of speed?
Line Printer Daemon
Internet Printing Protocol
Printer control language
PostScript
PostScript
OBJ-3.6: Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PS produces higher quality outputs. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is the page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.
You have been asked to install a network cable inside a conduit placed underground and connected to two buildings located about 1 KM apart. Which of the following cable types should you choose?
Coaxial
Fiber
Plenum
Shielded
Fiber
OBJ-3.1: A fiber optic cable is a network cable that contains strands of glass fibers inside an insulated casing. They’re designed for long-distance, high-performance data networking, and telecommunications. If you are dealing with connecting two networks over a long distance (over a few hundred meters), you should use a fiber optic cable. Shielded and plenum copper cables can only cover a distance of approximately 100 meters in length. Coaxial cables can cover a maximum distance of 200 to 500 meters in length.
Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP?
DHCP
SSH
SNMP
TFTP
SSH
OBJ-2.1: The transmission control protocol (TCP) is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that operates at the transport layer to provide connection-oriented, guaranteed delivery of packets. Hosts must first establish a session to exchange data and then confirm the delivery of packets using acknowledgments when using TCP. TCP is relatively slow in comparison to UDP. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) is a protocol used to get a file from a remote host or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP is commonly used with embedded devices or systems that retrieve firmware, configuration information, or a system image during the boot process. TFTP operates over UDP port 69. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper). The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.
Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv6 address?
::1
00:AB:FA:B1:08:34
192:168:1:55
192.168.1.254
::1
OBJ-2.5: IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits, but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.
Dion Training has just installed a new web server and created an A record for DionTraining.com. When users try entering www.DionTraining.com, though, they get an error. You tell their network administrator that the problem is because he forgot to add the appropriate DNS record to create an alias for www to the domain’s root. Which type of DNS record should be added to fix this issue?
PTR
NS
AAAA
CNAME
CNAME
OBJ-2.6: A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME). An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.
Dion Training’s file server uses a RAID 5 for its main data store. Recently, the RAID began flashing from green to yellow. Additionally, an alert was received that stated, “RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE”. Unfortunately, the company no longer has any spare 1 TB, 5400 RPM Seagate drives, so a technician replaces DISK1 with a 1 TB, 7200 RPM Western Digital drive. When the technician attempts to rebuild the array, the drive stays in degraded operation and continues to alert that “RAID ARRAY DISK1 FAILURE” is occurring. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
Incorrect SCSI ID set
Bad SATA cable
The HDD is incompatible
The new drive is not formatted as FAT32
The HDD is incompatible
OBJ-5.3: In this scenario, likely, the replacement HDD may not be compatible with the RAID. This will cause the RAID to stay degraded and the alert to continue to display. Whenever you need to replace a disk in a RAID, it is considered a best practice to replace it with the same brand and model of the hard drive. For this reason, most professionals purchase spare hard drives when initially building out their RAID array.
You are troubleshooting an issue on a client’s computer and need to make some computer changes to test your theory of probable cause. What should you do BEFORE you make any changes to the computer to test your theory?
Order a spare power supply in case you need to replace it
Create a system restore point in the operating system
Verify that a recent backup of all the client’s important files has been created
Provide the customer with an invoice for the work
Verify that a recent backup of all the client’s important files has been created
OBJ-5.1: You should always ensure that a recent backup of all of the client’s important and critical files has been created before making any changes to the computer. After all, it is easy to replace hardware if you break the computer, but the client’s personal files may be irreplaceable. For example, if you accidentally delete or remove the customer’s pictures of their baby, you can’t just take new baby pictures to replace them!
A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the motherboard needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?
Burning smell
Continuous reboot
Distended capacitors
Incorrect date/time on the workstation
Distended capacitors
OBJ-5.2: A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.
Which of the following devices should be installed as an intermediary between your clients and the web servers they want to connect to make an HTTP request from the client, check it, and then forward it to its destination?
Proxy server
DNS server
DHCP server
File server
Proxy server
OBJ-2.4: A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination computer on the Internet. When the reply comes back, it checks it and then shuttles it back to the LAN computer. A proxy can be used for other types of traffic too. A proxy server can usually operate either as a transparent service, in which case the client requires no special configuration or as a non-transparent service that requires configuration. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching a user. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host’s MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns.
Which cloud computing concept allows users to store files on a cloud-based server when necessary and copy that data from the cloud, and put it back on the device when space once again becomes available on the device?
Synchronization application
Shared resources
On-demand
Resource pooling
On-demand
OBJ-4.1: On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. In this question, the cloud storage is provisioned and deprovisioned automatically for the user, and thereby it would be categorized as on-demand. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content. Shared resources are any resources shared by multiple users or systems within an internal or cloud-based network.
You are working as a network technician and need to create several Cat 5e network cables to run between different computers and the network jacks on the wall. The connections between the switch, the patch panel, and the wall jacks have already been installed and tested. Which of the following tools would NOT be necessary to complete this task?
Cable crimper
Punchdown tool
Wire stripper
Cable tester
Punchdown tool
OBJ-2.8: A punchdown tool is used to connect a network cable (such as Cat 5e) to a patch panel, 110-block, or the inside portion of a wall jack, therefore it is not needed for this task. A wire stripper is used to remove the outer plastic shielding from the Cat 5e cable so that you can reach the inner wiring pairs. The cable tester is used to verify the electrical connections in a twisted pair or coaxial cable. A cable crimper is used to join the internal wires of a twisted pair cable with metallic pins houses inside a plastic connector, such as an RJ-45 connector.
Which of the following BEST describes how a DHCP reservation works?
By letting the network switches assign IP addresses from a reserved pool
By leasing a set of reserved IP addresses according to their category
By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope
By assigning options to the computers on the network by priority
By matching a MAC address to an IP address within the DHCP scope
OBJ-2.6: When the client requests an IP address by sending a message on the network to the DHCP server, the DHCP server will assign an IP from its DHCP scope to the client and reserve it based on its MAC address. DHCP reservations allow the DHCP server to pre-set an IP address to a specific client based on its MAC address. This ensures that the client will always get the same IP address from the DHCP server when it connects to the network. DHCP reservations are usually used with servers or printers on your internal network and are rarely used with end-user or client devices.
Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device?
IDS
UTM
IPS
Syslog
UTM
OBJ-2.4: A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security-related measures, combining the work of a firewall, malware scanner, and intrusion detection/prevention. A UTM centralizes the threat management service, providing simpler configuration and reporting than isolated applications spread across several servers or devices. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Unlike an IPS, which can stop malicious activity or policy violations, an IDS can only log these issues and not stop them. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) conducts the same functions as an IDS but can also block or take actions against malicious events. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network.
Which of the following sequence of events properly identifies the steps of a laser printer’s imaging process?
Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
Peter is attempting to print to his office printer, but nothing comes out. Yesterday, his printer was working just fine. Peter does not notice any errors on the taskbar’s printer icon. Which of the following actions should Peter try FIRST to solve this issue?
Cancel all documents and print them again
Check the status of the printer server queue
Check that the printer is not offline
Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer
Check the status of the print server queue
OBJ-5.6: When this issue occurs, it is often because the system properly sent the print job to the print queue, but the print queue has become stuck. If no error is shown in the taskbar’s printer icon, the user should open the print queue to determine if the print job has become stuck. If it is, then the print queue can be emptied or reset.
You are troubleshooting a customer’s PC. You realize there is a problem with the RAM and decided to replace the faulty module. You turn on the PC, and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does hearing a single beep indicate?
CMOS battery needs to be replaced
BIOS completed POST
Possible faulty RAM module
BIOS detected an error
BIOS completed POST
OBJ-5.2: During the bootup process, a power-on self-test (POST) is performed. A single beep is commonly used to indicate the successful completion of the POST. Based on the POST results, different series of beeps may be played to indicate the status of the system. For example, if a single beep was heard, this could indicate a successful POST after a new hardware installation has been completed. Each manufacturer uses different POST codes, so it is important to consult the manual for the motherboard or BIOS in use by the system.
Which type of internet connection allows for high-speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) connection?
Fiber
Satellite
DSL
Cable
Cable
OBJ-2.7: A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. “Fiber to the X” (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user’s network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user’s home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection).
Whenever you reboot your domain controller, you notice it takes a very long time to boot up. As the server is booting, you hear noises that sound like a steady series of clicks coming from the hard drive. Which of the following is the BEST action to help speed up the boot time of the server?
Defragment the hard drive
Perform a DIsk Cleanup
Terminate processes in the Task Manager
Remove unnecessary applications from startup
Defragment the hard drive
OBJ-5.3: Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn’t have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster. Based on the clicking noises, it sounds like the system has to access many parts of the drive to load the files.
Which of the following types of laptop displays would utilize a fluorescent backlight to illuminate the image?
OLED
Plasma
LCD
LED
LCD
OBJ-1.2: A LCD (TFT) with fluorescent backlight has been the standard display technology for the last few years. The backlight is a fluorescent bulb that illuminates the image, making it bright and clear. An inverter supplies the correct AC voltage to the backlight from the laptop’s DC power circuits. More modern laptops use LED displays that replace the fluorescent backlight with an LED backlight. OLED and plasma displays do not use a backlight.
Which of the following protocols operates over port 139 by default?
SMB
HTTPS
IMAP
NetBIOS
NetBIOS
OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.
William would like to use full-disk encryption on his laptop. He is worried about slow performance, though, so he has requested that the laptop have an onboard hardware-based cryptographic processor. Based on this requirement, what should William ensure the laptop contains?
PAM
FDE
TPM
AES
TPM
OBJ-3.4: This question is asking if you know what each acronym means. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based cryptographic processing component that is a part of the motherboard. A Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) is a device that looks like a USB thumb drive and is used as a software key in cryptography. Full Disk Encryption (FDE) can be hardware or software-based. Therefore, it isn’t the right answer. The Advanced Encryption System (AES) is a cryptographic algorithm. Therefore, it isn’t a hardware solution.
Which option would you MOST likely use to configure PXE to set up remote imaging on a computer during a deployment?
BIOS boot option
Secure boot configuration
Power management configuration
Windows boot menu
BIOS boot option
OBJ-3.4: To configure a computer to utilize the PXE boot option, you need to configure it under the BIOS boot option. The Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an industry-standard client/server interface that allows networked computers that are not yet loaded with an operating system to be configured and booted remotely by an administrator. Secure boot is a security system offered by UEFI that is designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. Power management allows Windows to reduce or turn off the power supplied to hardware components to save energy.
Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer?
Fiber
Cable
DSL
Satellite
DSL
OBJ-2.7: DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). “Fiber to the X” (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user’s network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user’s home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps). A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite.
Which of the following networked hosts should be installed to prevent users from being overwhelmed with junk emails?
Syslog server
Spam gateway
Web server
Proxy server
Spam gateway
OBJ-2.4: A spam gateway is a server or network appliance used to prevent users from being overwhelmed with spam or junk email. Spam gateways use blocklists to prevent emails from being accepted or routed from known malicious email addresses and domains. A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server that provides that resource. A proxy server can be used to filter content and websites from reaching a user. A Syslog server is a server that collects diagnostic and monitoring data from the hosts and network devices across a given network. A web server is a server that accepts requests through HTTP or HTTPS for a webpage and delivers the webpage and other requested resources to the user.
You are working as part of the server team for an online retail store. Due to the upcoming holidays, your boss is worried that the current servers may not be able to handle the increased demand during a big sale. Which of the following cloud computing concepts can quickly allow services to scale upward during busy periods and scale down during slower periods based on the changing user demand?
On-demand
Metered services
Rapid eslasticity
Resource pooling
Rapid elasticity
OBJ-4.1: Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed.
The accounting department has been relocated to a new area of the building, which is more than 70 meters away from the closest IDF. To comply with an SLA that requires that 10Gb speeds be provided, what type of media should be installed?
802.11ac
CAT5e
802.11n
CAT6a
CAT6a
OBJ-3.1: Cat6a is the only one listed that can meet 10 Gbps. CAT5e and 802.11 ac support speeds up to 1 Gbps. 802.11n supports speeds of up to 600 Mbps.
Which of the following provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism to positively identify an organization as the authorized sender of email for a particular domain name?
DMARC
SMTP
DKIM
SPF
DKIM
OBJ-2.6: DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) provides a cryptographic authentication mechanism. This can replace or supplement SPF. To configure DKIM, the organization uploads a public key as a TXT record in the DNS server. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) uses a DNS record published by an organization hosting an email service. The SPF record identifies the hosts authorized to send emails from that domain, and there must be only one per domain. SPF does not provide a cryptographic authentication mechanism like DKIM does, though. The Domain-Based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework can ensure that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC relies on DKMI for the cryptographic authentication mechanism, making it the incorrect option for this question. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol for electronic mail transmission, which does not utilize cryptographic authentication mechanisms by default.
John is setting up 100 Windows 10 computers for a new corporate office. He wants to ensure that unauthorized applications are prevented from being installed during the bootup process. What feature should he ensure is enabled?
Full disk encryption
RAM integrity checking
BIOS password required
Secure Boot
Secure Boot
OBJ-3.4: The purpose of Secure Boot is to prevent malicious and unauthorized apps from loading into the operating system (OS) during the startup process. Secure Boot is enabled by default in Windows 10. When the PC starts, the firmware checks the signature of each piece of boot software, including UEFI firmware drivers (also known as Option ROMs), EFI applications, and the operating system. If the signatures are valid, the PC boots and the firmware gives control to the operating system. The OEM can use instructions from the firmware manufacturer to create Secure boot keys and to store them in the PC firmware. When you add UEFI drivers, you’ll also need to make sure these are signed and included in the Secure Boot database. Full disk encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. RAM integrity checking is conducted by default on most systems during the initial boot process but it doesn’t check the contents of the memory for malware. The BIOS password would prevent the system from booting up without the correct password being entered, but this would not prevent unauthorized applications from being installed during the bootup process.
You want to boot from a removable USB device to troubleshoot your Windows 10 laptop. During your rebooting of the machine, which key should you press to enter the boot order menu?
F8
Command + R
F11
F12
F12
OBJ-3.4: F12 is the most commonly used key used to enter the BIOS / UEFI boot order menu. The boot order is a menu that allows you to select which device you wish to boot from, such as the hard drive, DVD, or a removable USB device. F11 during the boot up process will cause the system to boot into recovery mode on a Windows workstation. F8 is used to invoke the Advanced Boot Options menu to allow the selection of different startup modes for troubleshooting. This is done as part of Windows and not the BIOS / UEFI. The command + R is used on the OS X system to boot into recovery mode.
Which of the following is used to connect Cat 5e or above networks in an MDF or IDF?
110 punchdown block
F type
RJ-11
66 punchdown block
110 punchdown block
OBJ-3.1: A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punchdown block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables. F type connectors are used for coaxial cables, not Cat 5e network cables. RJ-11 is used to terminate telephone lines, not Cat 5e network cables.
A network technician needs to connect two switches. The technician needs a link between them that is capable of handling 10 Gbps of throughput. Which of the following media would BEST meet this requirement?
Coax cable
Fiber optic cable
Cat 5e cable
Cat 3 cable
Fiber optic cable
OBJ-3.1: To achieve 10 Gbps, you should use Cat 6a, Cat 7, Cat 8, or a fiber optic cable. Since fiber optic was the only option listed here, it is the best answer. A Cat 5e can only operate up to 100 meters at 1 Gbps. A Cat 3 cable can only operate at 100 meters at 10 Mbps. A traditional ethernet coaxial cable network can only operate at 10 Mbps, but newer MoCA coaxial ethernet connections can reach speeds of up to 2.5 Gbps.
What does VDI stand for?
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
Virtual Desktop Instances
Virtualized Data Infrastructure
Virtual Desktop Integration
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
OBJ-4.1: VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) centralizes instances for desktops that run on a single server utilizing the resources and performance from a single server. A thin client or an end-user then accesses the virtual desktops through a web browser. It is important to have sufficient resources on the central server to reduce lag time and provide an adequate user experience. VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) is used in large enterprise businesses to focus on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.
A cybersecurity analyst wants to install a network appliance to conduct packet capturing of the network traffic between the router and the firewall on the network. The device should not be installed in line with the network, so it must receive a copy of all traffic flowing to or from the firewall. Which of the following tools is required to meet these requirements?
Network tap
WiFi analyzer
Toner probe
Loopback plug
Network Tap
OBJ-2.8: A network tap is used to create a physical connection to the network that sends a copy of every packet received to a monitoring device for capture and analysis. A WiFi analyzer can determine the wireless network’s signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.
What type of cable is most commonly used to terminate a serial connection to a modem?
DB-9
LC
RJ-11
RJ-45
DB-9
OBJ-3.1: A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable.
A computer technician is trying to set up a shared printer on the corporate network. The users must send print jobs directly to the printer, and the printer will be used by multiple operating systems, including Windows, macOS, and Linux. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet these requirements best?
Bonjour
Virtual printer
TCP/IP print server
AirPrint
TCP/IP printer server
OBJ-3.6: The technician should set up a TCP/IP print server since it will eliminate any compatibility issues associated with using different operating systems and allow the users to send jobs directly to the printer. TCP/IP printing is considered a high-speed and reliable method for sending a print job directly to a printer. AirPrint is a feature in the macOS and iOS operating systems, it does not support Windows or Linux. Bonjour is Apple’s implementation of zero-configuration networking and does not support Windows or Linux systems. Virtual printers can print a document to a PDF or XPS file, therefore this will not let user’s send documents to the printer for physical printing.
Your company has two office buildings which are connected via a copper network cable that is buried underground. There is some construction being performed near the buildings. Now, the second building discovers they have suffered a network outage that doesn’t appear to be temporary. What is the MOST likely cause of the outage?
Cross-talk on the cable
Signal attenuation
An open circuit has been created
Electromagnetic interference on the cable
An open circuit has been created
OBJ-5.7: Since the issue started after construction began, it is most likely that the construction crew broke the cable during digging operations. This can cause an open circuit or short circuit, depending on how the cable was cut or broken by the construction workers. This can be verified using a Time-Domain Reflectometer to determine exactly where in the cable the break has occurred. Once the location is identified, the cable can be repaired or spliced to return it to normal operations.
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?
802.11n
802.11g
802.11ax
802.11ac
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
OBJ-2.3: The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.
Dion Training has decided to use a PaaS solution to host their training courses. The service charges are based on the number of students enrolled in the courses each month. Which type of cloud computing concept is being demonstrated by this pricing strategy?
Metered service
Resource pooling
Rapid elasticity
Synchronization apps
Metered service
OBJ-4.1: Resources are measured through metering on a per-use basis. The metering measurement is based on the type of resources such as storage, processing, bandwidth, or active users. The metering mechanism should be accessible to the customer via a reporting dashboard, providing complete transparency in usage and billing. Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis. For example, Dion Training used the AWS Lambda serverless product in some of our automation. This service charges us $0.20 for every 1 million requests processed. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Rapid elasticity is used to describe scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high resource number of allocation and deallocation requests. Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices, as well as share the cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user’s changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.
Which of the following network devices is used to put each connected network host to its own collision domain?
Repeater
Unmanaged switch
Hub
Access point
Unmanaged switch
OBJ-2.2: A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection.
Which of the following types of hard drives would be used in a gaming laptop to increase the system’s boot-up performance while providing a large amount of storage at a lower overall cost?
SSD
Optical drive
Magnetic drive
Hybrid drive
Hybrid drive
OBJ-1.1: A hybrid hard drive (SSHD) is a storage drive that combines the large storage capacity of an HDD with the faster read/write speed of an SSD. The majority of the drive uses a spinning disk and actuator arm, like a traditional magnetic drive, but it also contains a small SSD (solid-state drive) as part of the combined hybrid drive unit. This allows data to be written to either the SSD portion (for data accessed more frequently like the OS and programs) while using the HDD portion to store larger amounts of rarely accessed files (such as photos and video files). Hybrid hard drives constantly monitor the data retrieved from storage, and it automatically determines which data you open the most. It places the files that you use most often on the SSD to read/write that data faster. A magnetic drive is a traditional hard disk drive (HDD). A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. An optical drive is a storage device that uses a CD, DVD, or Blu-Ray disc to store and retrieve data.
Which of the following requires the use of a physical printer to print a document?
Print to Network
Print to Image
Print to XPS
Print to PDF
Print to network
OBJ-3.6: Printing to a network printer still requires access to a physical device connected to the network. The other options (Print to Image, Print to PDF, Print to XPS, and similarly Print to File) are all virtual printing methods. These methods will create a file of a specific type with the contents of the printed information. These methods allow a user the ability to print to a file, a PDF (Portable Document Format), XPS (XML Paper Specification - a Microsoft alternative to PDF), or an image (photo).
A technician receives a report that a VoIP phone is experiencing a “no network connectivity” error. The technician notices the Cat6a patch cable running from the back of the phone is routed behind the user’s rolling chair. The cable appears to have been rolled over numerous times by the user, and it looks flattened from the abuse. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the connectivity issues being experienced on the VoIP phone?
Transmit and receive reversed
Cross-talk
Excessive collisions
Improperly crimped cable
Cross-talk
OBJ-5.7: Crosstalk is defined as an effect caused by the unintentional and undesired transmission (leakage) of a signal from one cable to another. Due to the abuse of the cable being run over repeatedly by the user’s chair, the cable’s shielding could have been damaged and the cable may no longer be made up of the same consistency. This can lead to crosstalk amongst the cable pairs, or even opens/shorts of the wires in those cable pairs.
A customer is complaining that they cannot connect to the local network share drive. You run the command ‘ipconfig /all’ from their workstation, and it returns an IP of 169.254.34.12. Which of the following is the problem with this workstation?
The workstation couldn’t reach the proxy server
The workstation couldn’t reach the DNS server
The workstation couldn’t reach the gateway
The workstation couldn’t reach the DHCP server
The workstation couldn’t reach the DHCP server
OBJ-5.7: Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.34.12, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. APIPA serves as a DHCP server failover mechanism and makes it easier to configure and support small local area networks (LANs). If no DHCP server is currently available, either because the server is temporarily down or because none exists on the network, the computer selects an IP address from a range of addresses (from 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255) reserved for that purpose.
Which of the following technologies is often used indoors by companies to locate a shopper’s position in a store and provide them time-sensitive offers or discounts?
GPS
Bluetooth
Cellular
Wi-Fi
Bluetooth
OBJ-1.4: A mobile device can use its internal GPS, cellular, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi radios to identify its location. When indoors, the devices can use either Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to determine their location. Bluetooth can be used within a building to provide an accurate of the device within 3-4 meters. Bluetooth location services are often used to identify where in a store a customer is located and present them with targeted offers. For example, if the store identified that you were in the frozen foods section, they might send you a push notification offering you a discount on a pint of ice cream. Wi-Fi positioning systems use the signal strength or angle of arrival of a signal to determine the device’s location within 1-4 meters. The use of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi to determine the device’s location is known as an internal positioning system (IPS). Cellular radios can provide an approximate location based upon the triangulation of your position between different cellular towers. A GPS (global positioning system) device is used to determine a receiver’s position on the Earth based on information received from 24 GPS satellites, which operate in a constellation in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO). The receiver must have a line-of-sight to four of the GPS satellites continuously to accurately determine its position on the earth (latitude, longitude, and altitude). The device’s GPS receiver can provide an accurate location up to 10 meters.
What is the lowest layer (bottom layer) of a bare-metal virtualization environment?
Hypervisor
Guest operating system
Physical hardware
Host operating system
Physical hardware
OBJ-4.2: The bottom layer is physical hardware in this environment. It is what sits beneath the hypervisor and controls access to guest operating systems. The bare-metal approach doesn’t have a host operating system. A hypervisor is a program used to run and manage one or more virtual machines on a computer. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor. A host operating system is an operating system that is running the hypervisor.
A penetration tester wants to build a workstation that will be used to brute force hash digests. Which of the following is the BEST option to ensure sufficient power and speed to crack them?
Integrated GPU
Multi-core CPI
7200-RPM HDD
Dedicated GPU
Dedicated GPU
OBJ-3.4: Dedicated GPUs are designed to conduct complex mathematical functions extremely quickly. If you want to build a system to perform the cracking of a password, hash, or encryption algorithm, it is important to have a high-speed, dedicated GPU. The reason to use a GPU instead of a CPU for password cracking is that it is much faster for this mathematically intensive type of work. Cracking passwords, hashes, and encryption is a lot like mining cryptocurrency in that using dedicated GPUs will give you the best performance.
What type of cable should be used to connect a laptop directly to another laptop to form an Ethernet network?
Straight-through cable
Crossover cable
Patch cable
Serial cable
Crossover cable
OBJ-3.1: A crossover cable should be used to connect two similar devices (PC to PC, Router to Router, Switch to Switch, etc.) to create a network. For an ethernet cable, this should be a network cable with a T568A wiring standard on one end and a T568B wiring standard on the other end of the cable to create a crossover cable. A straight-through or patch cable is a network cable that uses the same wiring standard on both ends such as T568A to 5T568A or T568B to T568B. A serial cable is a data cable that transmits data a single bit at a time. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.
Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access diontraining.com but can access the website by its IP address?
67
80
443
53
53
OBJ-2.1: The Domain Name System (DNS) servers provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses and are essential for locating resources on the Internet. Most local networks also use DNS for name resolution. Typically, the DNS server would be the gateway address, though this may not be the case on all networks. Often two DNS server addresses (preferred and alternate) are specified for redundancy. DNS operates over TCP/UDP port 53, and if that is blocked, the client will be unable to convert the domain name (diontraining.com) to its IP address. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68.
A customer tried to install a PCIe x8 expansion card into a PCIe x16 slot on the motherboard. While the expansion card fits into the slot without any issues, it does not perform as the customer expected. How fast will a PCIe x8 expansion card run if installed in a PCIe x16 slot?
The card will run at x1 speed
The card will run at x4 speed
The card will run at x16 speed
The card will run at x8 speed
The card will run at x1 speed
OBJ-3.4: While a PCIe x8 card will fit into either an x8 or x16 slot, it will only run at optimal speed when placed into an x8 slot. If the x8 card is placed into an x16 slot, it will reduce the speed to the equivalent of a 1x slot to ensure compatibility and reliability. Even though placing an x8 card into an x16 slot is supported, it is generally considered a bad practice. Instead, you should only insert an x8 card into an x8 slot for optimal performance.
Which of the following types of networks would be created if a wireless access point, a microwave link, and a satellite link were combined in a mesh?
WMN
LAN
WAN
PAN
WMN
OBJ-2.3: The 802.11s standard defines a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN). Unlike an ad hoc network, nodes in a WMN (called Mesh Stations) can discover one another and peer, forming a Mesh Basic Service Set (MBSS). The mesh stations can perform path discovery and forwarding between peers, using a routing protocol, such as the Hybrid Wireless Mesh Protocol (HWMP). A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.
Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to deliver broadband internet access using a fiber connection to the user’s home or office?
Cable modem
Digital subscriber line
Optical network terminal
Software-defined networking
Optical network terminal
OBJ-2.2: An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems.
Which of the following types of network switches allows an administrator to configure advanced networking and security features?
Hub
PoE switch
Unmanaged switch
Managed switch
Managed switch
OBJ-2.2: A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network.
A client is attempting to power on their computer, but it keeps booting to the incorrect hard drive. Which of the following actions should you perform to attempt to fix this problem?
Reconfigure the boot order within Windows
Fress F8 repeatedly during the boot process to enter the boot menu
Unplug any external hard disks
Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI
Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI
OBJ-5.3: If the system still fails to boot up from the correct drive, then go into the BIOS/UEFI setup program and check the existing boot order settings. If they are in the wrong order, reconfigure them to ensure the usual boot device is listed first in the list and then restart the computer. There is no need to unplug the exteranl hard disks since you can simply change the boot order in the BIOS. The F8 key will allow the user to choose to boot into Windows in regular or safe mode. This worked by default in Windows 7, 8, and 8.1, but need to be enabled before it will work in Windows 10. The technician cannot configure the boot order in Windows without first booting into Windows from the hard drive, so the technician would still need to reconfigure the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI first.
Which of the following wireless standards should you implement if the existing wireless network only allows for three non-overlapping channels, and you need additional non-overlapping channels to prevent interference with neighboring businesses in your office building?
802.1q
802.11ac
802.11b
802.11g
802.11ac
OBJ-2.7: Wireless B and G only support 3 non-overlapping channels (1, 6, 11). Wireless N and Wireless AC supports the 5 GHz spectrum, which provides 24 non-overlapping channels. The 801.q standard is used to define VLAN tagging (or port tagging) for Ethernet frames and the accompanying procedures to be used by bridges and switches in handling such frames. 802.1q is not a wireless networking standard.
Which of the following wiring standards should be used when installing ethernet cabling in an office or data center?
T-568B
RS-232
RJ-11
RG-6
T-568B
OBJ-3.1: The T568A and T568B standards are used when installing ethernet cabling. If both ends of the cable use T568A, the cable being created is called a straight-through or patch cable. If one end of the cable is T568A and the other is T568B, then the cable is called a crossover cable. By default, the Department of Defense uses T568A writing on both ends of a cable, and most other organizations use the ANSI/TIA/EIA standards that use T568B on both ends of the cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet.
Which of the following types of memory relies on temporary storage space on the hard drive that is used when there is insufficient physical memory available to perform a given task?
Virtual memory
VRAM
SODIMM
ECC
Virtual memory
OBJ-3.2: Virtual memory is an area on the hard disk allocated to contain pages of memory. When the operating system doesn’t have sufficient physical memory (RAM) to perform a task, pages of memory are swapped to the paging file. This frees physical RAM to enable the task to be completed. When the paged RAM is needed again, it is re-read into memory. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device. Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.
Dion Training just installed a new webserver within a screened subnet. You have been asked to open up the port for secure web browsing on the firewall. Which port should you set as open to allow users to access this new server?
443
21
143
80
443
OBJ-2.1: The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.
Which of the following cables is MOST widely used by modern Android smartphones and tablets?
Micro USB
USB-C
Mini USB
Lighting
USB-C
OBJ-1.3: Modern Android devices most commonly use USB-C connections. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Before USB-C, Android devices used either Micro USB or Mini USB connectors. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, Mp3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices. Android devices do NOT use the lightning cable because it is a proprietary 8-pin port and connector used solely by Apple devices. The Lightning connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. Lightning is a proprietary computer bus and power connector created by Apple. The lightning cable is used by every iPhone from the 5 to 13 series. Newer iPads have shifted to the use of USB-C for charging instead of the lightning cable, though.
You have connected your laptop to the network using a CAT 5e cable but received an IP address of 169.254.13.52 and cannot connect to www.DionTraining.com. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
Failed DNS resolution
Duplicate IP address
Poisoned ARP cache
DHCP failure
DHCP failure
OBJ-5.7: A DHCP Server is a network server that automatically provides and assigns IP addresses, default gateways, and other network parameters to client devices. It relies on the standard protocol known as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol or DHCP to respond to clients’ broadcast queries. Since you have received an APIPA address (169.254.13.52), this signifies a DHCP failure. If a user is unable to access a website by using its domain name but can by its IP address, then this indicates a DNS resolution issue instead. ARP caches rely on layer 2 addresses known as MAC addresses, not IP addresses. Duplicate IP addresses will create an error on the screen instead of issuing an APIPA address as shown in this example.
Jason’s cellphone company advertises that they offer unlimited data. The internet at Jason’s studio was not working today, so he turned on his mobile hotspot to upload the videos recorded today. Initially, the data transfer was occurring without any issues and Jason observed that his data was uploading at 25 Mbps. After 20-30 minutes, though, the speed of the connection dropped to only 0.125 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this drop in speed during the upload process?
The smartphone is undergoing a DDoS attack
The smartphone’s battery has been depleted
The smartphone’s 802.11 radio is broken
The smartphone reached the data cap for the month
The smartphone reached the data cap for the month
OBJ-1.4: A data cap or bandwidth cap is a service-provider imposed limitation on the amount of data transferred by a user’s account or device over the cellular network. Many smartphone plans that advertise unlimited data still have a transfer limit. Once the limit is reached, these plans will either prevent all data transfer from occurring or slow down the speeds of data transfer. For example, T-Mobile offers unlimited data in the United States, but if a user transfers over 50GB of data then their data is deprioritized and transmitted at slower speeds. Other carriers will use a data throttling method, instead, which slows down all data sent for the remainder of the customer’s billing cycle. A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is a denial of service attack that uses multiple compromised computers, called zombies, to launch the attack against a target. Based on the scenario, there is no evidence that the smartphone’s battery is depleted since the phone is still online and transmitting data. The smartphone is not using Wi-Fi to transmit the data and there is no evidence that the 802.11 (Wi-Fi) radio is broken.
You want to buy a new computer that will allow you to run at least 3 virtual machines (VMs) at the same time to practice for your CompTIA exams. You also know in the future that you would like to set up a virtual ethical hacking lab with numerous VMs to study for the CompTIA PenTest+ exam. Which TWO of the following components is the MOST important to upgrade if you want to simultaneously run numerous VMs?
CPU
SDD
RAM
NIC
HDD
GPU
CPU
RAM
OBJ-4.2: If you want good performance for a computer used for extensive virtualization (such as multiple virtual machines running at once), you should maximize the CPU and the RAM. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively. These are the most important components when building a virtualization machine to support numerous VMs.
What type of wiring standard is used with POTS?
ST
F type
RJ-45
RJ-11
RJ-11
OBJ-3.1: POTS (Plain Old Telephone System) is an older standard used for telephone systems. An RJ-11 wiring standard is used to terminate both ends of a standard phone line. This is also used for DSL lines and VoIP ATA (Analog Telephony Adapter) devices. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. The F-type connector is used with coaxial cables. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.
Dion Training is upgrading its wired network from an older CAT5e network to a CAT 7 network. The network technician has run out of patch cables and asks you to create a straight-through patch cable. Which of the following tools is used to connect an RJ-45 connector to a patch cable?
Punchdown tool
Crimper
Cable stripper
Cable tester
Crimper
OBJ-2.8: A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place. The RJ-45 connection is the standard one used for wired ethernet networks. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A cable stripper is used to remove the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its internal wires (twisted pairs). A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable.
You are trying to install Hyper-V on a new laptop, but you keep receiving an error during installation that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following characteristics of the laptop’s processor should you investigate as the MOST likely issue?
Hyper-threading (HT) Technology
Virtualization (VT) support
Number of cores available
Cache size
Virtualization (VT) support
OBJ-4.2: CPU Virtualization is a hardware feature found in all current AMD & Intel CPUs that allows a single processor to act as if it was multiple individual CPUs. This allows an operating system to more effectively & efficiently utilize the computer’s CPU power to run faster. This is enabled or disabled on supported processors within your system’s BIOS. HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. The cache is an extremely fast internal memory located in the CPU. The number of cores is defined by the processor’s multicore capability such as dual-core, quad-core, or octo-core.
Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency bands and reaches speeds of 108 Mbps to 600 Mbps?
802.11ac
802.11b
802.11a
802.11g
802.11n
802.11ax
802.11n
OBJ-2.3: The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth. The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.
You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of “OS not found” is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error?
Replace the HDD with an SSD
Repartition the hard disk
Perform a chkdsk
Repair the MBR
Repair the MBR
OBJ-5.3: The “OS not found” error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the ‘bootrec /fixmbr’ command to fix the MBR.
Dion Training’s RAID 5 array consists of three 10,000 RPM 3.5” hard disk drives. The RAID is reporting that its health has become degraded. A technician replaces a faulty hard drive in the RAID with a new hard drive that is the same size and model as the previously failed drive. Users are now reporting that access to the share drive hosted by this RAID is slower than normal. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the slower performance on the RAID?
I/O caching has been disabled on the RAID
The technician replaced the incorrect drive
The technician should have installed an SSD
The RAId array is rebuilding itself
The RAID array is rebuilding itself
OBJ-5.3: The RAID 5 array is rebuilding itself and causing slower performance. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. When a disk fails in the RAID 5 array, the drive can continue to operate without data loss using the remaining two hard drives. When a failed drive is replaced, the RAID array must be rebuilt by calculating the missing data that was previously stored on the failed drive and copying it to the new drive. This process will slow down the overall performance of the RAID until the array is fully rebuilt and performance returns to normal. The technician cannot replace an HDD with an SSD without replacing the entire RAID. RAID arrays should use the same size and model of hard drives for best performance. The technician could not have replaced the wrong drive otherwise the entire RAID would fail since only a portion of the data on the RAID would remain (one of three drives). The technician did not change any settings in the question so it is unlikely that I/O caching was changed or disabled.
Which of the following hard drive form factors would be connected to your laptop internally using a Micro SATA connection?
1.8”
3.5”
2.5”
M.2
1.8”
OBJ-1.1: A laptop hard drive usually comes in either the 2.5” form factor or the 1.8” form factor. When a 1.8” form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector’s larger size. An M.2 is a new set of form factors for an SSD that uses a mini card interface that is faster than a SATA connection. A 3.5” drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers.
Which of the following cable types can support speeds of up to 10 Gbps for up to 100 meters?
Cat 6a
Cat 5
Cat 6
Cat 5e
Cat 6a
OBJ-3.1: Only Cat 6a can support 10 Gbps for up to 100 meters in length. While Cat 6 can support 10 Gbps, it can only support it up to 55 meters before the signal attenuation becomes too great to use reliably.
What printer concept is a page description language that produces faster outputs at the expense of quality?
Internet Printing Protocol
Printer control language
Line Printer Daemon
PostScript
Printer Control Language
OBJ-3.6: Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PCL produces faster outputs that are of lower quality. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is a page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.
You are building a virtualization environment to practice your penetration testing skills. This will require that you install several vulnerable Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network but should not communicate with the host operating system or the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?
Internal
External
Private
Localhost
Private
OBJ-4.2: The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select internal, it can communicate between the host and the VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.
A workstation in Dion Training’s conference room is experiencing an issue when trying to boot up. When the workstation is powered on, the workstation displays an error stating that a bootable device cannot be found. The technician enters the UEFI environment and sees that the hard disk drive is no longer being recognized by the system. The technician shut down the workstation, opened the case, and verified that the memory modules and cables are properly connected to the internal hard disk drive. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the workstation’s failure to recognize the internal hard disk drive?
The boot order of the devices is incorrect
The workstation is overheating
There is a mix of DDR3 and DDe5 modules installed
The workstation’s hard drive is failing
The workstation’s hard drive is failing
OBJ-5.3: If the hard drive fails, the workstation will experience data loss or fail to boot up. Since the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the internal hard disk drive, it has either failed or is disconnected. Since the technician verified the hard drive was properly cabled, the drive itself must have failed. If the boot order of the devices is incorrect, the system would still try to boot from each connected drive before issuing the no bootable device error message. If the system was overheating, it would cause intermittent reboots instead of failing to find a bootable device. Each motherboard will only support certain types of memory modules, so it is not possible to use both DDR3 and DDR4 in the same workstation. DDR3 and DDR4 are two different form factors that use different notches, therefore, they will physically not fit into a different type of slot.
Your home network has a wireless access point (WAP) that allows your smartphone and tablet to connect to your internal network. The WAP is connected to a router and a cable modem to provide internet access. A coaxial cable carries the network traffic from the cable modem to the cable company’s central office for transmission to and from the internet. Which of the following types of networks would best describe this network configuration between your home network and the internet through your cable modem connection?
MAN
WAN
PAN
LAN
WAN
OBJ-2.7: A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. This is usually a DSL, cable connection, fiber connection, or satellite connection in a home network. A local area network (LAN) is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media. A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area.
The large multi-function printer in your office is shared between 12 people. Unfortunately, it has stopped working, and the technicians have determined it must be replaced. A new printer has been ordered, but it will be 2 weeks until it arrives. The only other printer available in your office is the manager’s printer, but it is connected via USB to their workstation. One of the technicians would like to share the manager’s printer with the other 12 employees for the next 2 weeks as a temporary workaround. Unfortunately, there are no spare wired network jacks available in the office to connect the printer to the network directly, but there is a wireless access point nearby. Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to allow the 12 employees to access the manager’s printer?
Share the printer directly from t he manager’s computer by creating a share and giving the other employee’s access rights to the share
Purchase a portable wireless print server and connect the printer to it using USB
Configure a new printer on each user’s workstation and point it to the manager’s IP address
Provide a USB thumb drive to each employee so that they can transfer their files to the manager’s computer for direct printing.
Purchase a portable wireless print server and connect the printer to it using USB
OBJ-3.6: The BEST solution would be to use a wireless print server to connect the printer to it using USB. This wireless print server can then receive the print jobs directly from all of the network users. It is not recommended that the technician create a share on the manager’s computer or set the printer configuration to the manager’s IP address since all print jobs would fail anytime the manager shut down or restarted their computer. Using a USB drive to transfer the files to the manager’s computer each time someone wanted to print is also not a good solution since this is difficult for the users and will be disrupting the manager’s work every time someone needed to print something.
Thor is working as a contractor for the Department of Defense (DoD). To better secure their systems, each laptop is equipped with a device that requires all employees to insert their employee identification badges into the computer to log in. Each identification badge has an electronic chip embedded into the badge. The employee must enter a PIN to unlock the digital certificate stored in this badge to authenticate to the login server. Which of the following technologies is used to read the employee’s badge?
Barcode scanner
ADF
Smart card reader
Magnetic reader
Smart card reader
OBJ-1.1: A smart card reader is a device, either built-in or attached as a peripheral, that uses a slot or NFC to interact with a smart card. A smart card, chip card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system. A barcode scanner or barcode reader is a handheld or pen-shaped device designed to scan barcodes. A barcode is a pattern of different sized parallel bars, typically representing a product number, such as an ISBN, EAN, or UPC. The reader uses a sensor mechanism (typically either a photodiode, laser, or CCD) to read the intensity of light reflected by the barcode. The reader then reports the number back to application software, which links it to a product database. A magnetic stripe reader also called a magstripe reader, is a hardware device that reads the information encoded in the magnetic stripe located on the back of a plastic badge. The magnetic stripe on the back of a badge is composed of iron-based magnetic particles encased in plastic-like tape. An automatic document feeder (ADF) is a device that feeds media automatically into a scanner or printer.
Which of the following is categorized as a public IP address?
172.30.15.12
169.25.12.64
11.120.32.41
192.168.0.2
11.120.32.41
OBJ-2.5: To communicate on the Internet, a host must obtain a unique public IP address. Typically this is allocated by an Internet Service Provider. If an address is not an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), a private IP address (10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x), or a localhost IP (127.0.0.1), then it is considered a public IP address.
Which of the following cloud computing resources are MOST important when determining a cloud file-storage synchronization application’s performance?
Disk speed
I/O bandwitdth
CPU utilization
RAM utilitzation
I/O bandwidth
OBJ-4.1: I/O bandwidth is the measurement of the amount of input and output operations that can be performed within a given time. The higher the I/O bandwidth, the faster and more efficient a cloud file-storage synchronization application will become. Applications that rely on large amounts of reading and writing of data require a high amount of I/O bandwidth. Disk speed is not nearly as important since most cloud file-storage systems use a virtualized file system for storage and do not rely on a single disk. Instead, they rely on a storage area network or a virtualized storage solution. The CPU and RAM utilization on the system would not have as large of an impact on the performance as the I/O bandwidth.
Which of the following storage types utilize a NAND chipset mounted directly onto the motherboard instead of a mechanical spinning drive to store data?
NVMe
SSD
HDD
SATA
NVMe
OBJ-3.3: NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a storage controller mounted on the motherboard. It utilizes a NAND chipset and connects via the motherboard’s PCIe bus for increased speed. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a personal computer storage device that stores data in non-volatile special memory instead of on disks or tape. While SSDs also avoid spinning drives, they cannot be mounted directly onto the motherboard. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a device providing persistent mass storage for a workstation or laptop by saving data even when the computer is turned off. Data is stored using platters with a magnetic coating that are spun under disk heads that can read and write to locations on each platter known as sectors. Serial ATA (SATA) is the most widely used interface for hard disks on modern desktop and laptop computers. SATA uses a 7-pin L-shaped data connector with one device per port. SATA operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, or 6 Gbps. SATA drives can also use a 15-pin power connector.
Which of the following is NOT a common voltage produced by the power supply of a computer?
5 VDC
3.3 VDC
6 VDC
12 VDC
6 VDC
OBJ-3.5: Power supplies in a computer convert high voltage alternating current (115 VAC or 220 VAC) to three lower direct current voltages: 3.3 VDC, 5 VDC, and 12 VDC. The 12 VDC is used by hard drives, CD/DVD drives, cooling fans, and other high-power devices. The 3.3 VDC and 5 VDC are used by digital circuits like the motherboard and the system’s expansion cards.
Dion Training’s video editing laptop has a defective keyboard. You have been asked to replace the keyboard. What type of cable should be connected to the internal laptop keyboard during your replacement?
USB
ZIF
SATA
Ribbon Cable
Ribbon Cable
OBJ-1.1: A ribbon cable is any cable with wires that run parallel on a flat plane down the length of the cable. Ribbon cables are typically used to connect internal components in laptops to save space. These laptop ribbon cables are usually hardwired into one component and connect to the motherboard or other components with a small connector clip. A zero insertion force (ZIF) socket is a processor socket type that allows the chip to be placed in the socket with as little risk of damaging the pins on the processor chip. Serial ATA (SATA) is the most widely used interface for hard disks on modern desktop and laptop computers. SATA uses a 7-pin L-shaped data connector with one device per port. SATA operates at bandwidths of 1.5 Gbps, 3 Gbps, or 6 Gbps. SATA drives can also use a 15-pin power connector. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.
Rick has just received a new Google Pixel smartphone and installed all of his favorite apps, including a different style virtual keyboard. After about 6 months of use, he noticed that the smartphone has become slow, and the virtual keyboard is not responding properly when keys are pressed or becomes completely unresponsive. What is the FIRST solution to try to fix this issue?
Factory reset the phone
Clear system cache from recovery mode
Close the app in the background and restart the app
Soft reset the phone
Close the app in the background and restart the app
OBJ-5.5: The simplest and most efficient way to fix unresponsive apps is to close the app running in the background and restart the app again. A custom virtual keyboard app can often cause performance decline and unresponsiveness, and the virtual keyboard will lock up. It is always a good practice to always close apps running in the background to reduce resource consumptions. If this doesn’t solve the issue, then a soft reset or factory reset may be needed.
Which type of technology imitates hardware without relying on the CPU being able to run the software code directly?
Simulator
Virtual machine
Hypervissor
Emulator
Emulator
OBJ-4.2: Emulators emulate hardware without relying on the CPU being able to run code directly. Virtual machines use CPU self-virtualization, to whatever extent it exists, to provide a virtualized interface to the real hardware. A simulator is a limited scope that is usually used in training to mimic a real system’s functionality. Emulators were created before virtualization and operate much slower than a true virtualization environment with a hypervisor.
A user is complaining that they are hearing a grinding noise coming from their workstation. You begin to troubleshoot the issue and determine that it is not an issue with the hard drive but is instead caused by the power supply’s fan. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this issue?
Replace the power supply’s fan
Spray a little bit of WD-40 into the fan to lubricate it
Replace the power supply
Spray the fan with compressed air to remove any dirt, debris, or dust
Replace the power supply
OBJ-5.2: If the fan in the power supply is faulty, replace the entire power supply. You should never attempt to repair or fix a broken power supply or broken power supply cooling fan due to the power supply’s high voltage electrical components. When a fan creates a grinding sounds, this is evidence of an impending failure and the device needs to be replaced. Technicians should never open a power supply or replace any of its internal components, therefore the entire power supply should be replaced in this scenario.
A car dealer recently set up an impact printer in their automotive repair shop. Unfortunately, the printer’s output is now starting to crease the paper as it is printed which can lead to a paper jam during feeding. Which of the following might be causing these issues? (Choose TWO)
Incorrect tension setting
The print head needs to be replaced
Excess paper in the feed path
Incorrect paper size
Excess paper in the feed path
Incorrect paper size
OBJ-5.6: An impact printer is widely used in situations where multi-part documents, invoices, or contracts need to be produced on carbon paper. These printers use specialized paper fed through the printer by holes on the edges of the paper on what is called a tractor. The paper can crease if the wrong size paper is used or excess paper in the feed path causes bunching up of the paper being fed. The print head does not affect the feeding of the paper in an impact printer. The tension setting being incorrect will lead to the paper pooling or bubbling up during feeding, but it wouldn’t necessarily cause creasing.
Your company is experiencing slow network speeds of about 54Mbps on their wireless network. You have been asked to perform an assessment of the existing wireless network and recommend a solution. You have recommended that the company upgrade to an 802.11n or 802.11ac wireless infrastructure to obtain higher network speeds. Which of the following technologies allows an 802.11n or 802.11ac network to achieve a speed greater than 54 Mbps?
PoE
MIMO
LWAPP
WPA2
MIMO
OBJ-2.3: One way 802.11n and 802.11ac networks achieve superior throughput and speeds by using multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) and multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO), respectively. MIMO uses multiple antennas for transmission and reception, which results in higher speeds than 802.11a and 802.11g networks, which can only support up to 54 Mbps of throughput. Wireless N and Wireless AC networks also utilize the 5 GHz frequency band, allowing them to achieve speeds greater than 54 Mbps. WPA2 is a wireless encryption standard and can be used with Wireless G, N, AC, or AX. Using WPA2 does not increase the speed of the wireless network. Power over Ethernet (POE) is a technology that lets network cables carry electrical power. POE is defined in the IEEE 802.3af. PoE does not affect the speed of a wireless network. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. This can reduce the amount of time spent on configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting a large network. LWAPP does not affect the speed of a wireless network.
You are setting up a cable television in a customer’s home. Which connector type should be used to connect the TV tuner to the wall jack when using a coaxial cable?
DB-9
ST
RJ-45
F type
F type
OBJ-3.1: The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.
Which of the following ports should a client use to automatically request an IP address from the server?
67
69
123
25
67
OBJ-2.1: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses port 67 and is a network management protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for automatically assigning IP addresses and other communication parameters to devices connected to the network using a client-server architecture. Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses port 123 and is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses port 69 and is a simple lockstep File Transfer Protocol that allows a client to get a file from or put a file onto a remote host. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25 and is an internet standard communication protocol for electronic mail transmission.
As a PC Technician, you are on the road most of the day and use a laptop. When you get back to your office at the end of the day, you would like to be able to quickly connect a larger external monitor, keyboard, and mouse to your laptop through a single USB port to perform additional work on the larger screen. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above?
Docking station
Thunderbolt
Port replicator
USB 4-port hub
Port replicator
OBJ-1.3: A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.
What are the dimensions of a MicroATX motherboard?
6.7 “x 6.7”
11” x 9.6”
9.6” x 9.6”
3.6” x 2.9”
9.6” x 9.6”
OBJ-3.4: The mATX (microATX) motherboard’s form factor is 9.6” x 9.6” in size (24 cm x 24 cm). The mATX form factor is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. An mATX motherboard is backward-compatible with the larger ATX motherboard since it contains the same mounting point locations as the full-size board. An ATX motherboard’s form factor is 12” x 9.6” in size (305mm x 244mm). ITX is a series of form factors that began with the mini-ITX, but there is no specific size called ITX. The mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor is 6.7” x 6.7” in size (17 cm x 17cm). The mITX is commonly used in smaller computer systems with a small form factor (SFF) case. These motherboards are usually used in computers designed for passive cooling and a low power consumption architecture, such as a home theater PC system.
You are troubleshooting a Windows 10 workstation for a customer. You have identified the problem and performed a quick backup of the system. What is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology?
Test the t heory to determine the cause
Document findings, actions, and coutcomes
Establish a theory of probably cause
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Establish a theory of probably cause
OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Dion Training wants to order some new laptops for their video editors. The video editors want to ensure the display has the best color accuracy when using a 60 Hz refresh rate. Which of the following types of displays should the company purchase to meet this requirement?
Plasma
IPS
TN
VA
IPS
OBJ-1.2: An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.
You are attempting to install a full-sized PCIe network interface card into a 1U server, but it is too tall to fit into the machine. Which of the following do you need to install first to install the full-sized PCIe network interface card into the server?
PCIe x16 card
SCSI card
AGP card
Riser card
Riser card
OBJ-3.4: A riser card is a right-angle expansion card used to extend a slot for a card in a computer to make room to plug it in. They are most commonly used in low-profile, 1U and 2U rackmount chassis or embedded systems. Riser cards plug into their respective bus (they are available for PCI, PCI-X, AGP, AGP Pro, PCI Express, ISA, or other busses) and rotate the peripheral cards plugged into the riser card so that they are parallel with the motherboard. Riser cards are available in 1-slot passive risers up to 3-slot passive riser cards for 2U rackmounts. An AGP, SCSI, or PCIe x16 expansion card is a fixed size and shape that cannot be reduced to fit in a 1U server.
Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Japan due to government regulations?
14
11
6
1
14
OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.
You have been asked to connect three 802.11a devices to an 802.11g access point configured with WEP. The devices are within 20 feet of the access point, but they still cannot associate with the access point. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the devices not associating with the WAP?
Signal loss
Mismatched encryption
Interference
Frequency mismatch
Frequency mismatch
OBJ-2.7: 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz band, while 802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz band. Therefore, 802.11a devices will be unable to communicate with 802.11b or 802.11g access points. Wireless networks utilize three different frequency bands: 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz. The 2.4 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. The 5 GHz frequency band is used by 802.11a, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax. The 6 GHz frequency band is used by Wi-Fi 6E under the 802.11ax standard.
Dion Training has just installed a brand new email server. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow the new server to receive email on behalf of diontraining.com?
MX
A
CNAME
PTR
MX
OBJ-2.6: An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME).
Which of the following network performance metrics is used to represent variable delay experienced by a client when receiving packets from a sender?
Throughput
Jitter
Latency
Bandwidth
Jitter
OBJ-5.7: Jitter is a network condition that occurs when a time delay in the sending of data packets over a network connection occurs. Jitter is a big problem for any real-time applications you may be supporting on your networks, like video conferences, voice-over IP, and virtual desktop infrastructure clients. Latency is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a network. Usually, we measure network latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from the source to a destination. Bandwidth is the maximum rate of data transfer across a given network. Now, bandwidth is more of a theoretical concept that measures how much data could be transferred from a source to a destination under ideal conditions. Therefore, we often measure throughput, instead of bandwidth, to monitor our network performance.
Which cellular technology utilizes new frequency bands to reach proposed speeds of up to 70 Gbps?
5G
LTE
4G
3G
5G
OBJ-1.4: 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an average speed of 55 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps. Mid-band 5G reaches an average speed of 150 Mbps with a theoretical speed of 1.5 Gbps. High-band 5G reaches an average speed of 3 Gbps with a theoretical speed of up to 70 Gbps. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.
Which of the following is a public IP address?
10.3.2.1
192.168.2.1
8.4.2.1
169.254.2.1
8.4.2.1
OBJ-2.5: The IP address of 8.4.2.1 is public and is therefore routable. The IP address of 10.3.2.1 is a private Class A IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 192.168.2.1 is a private Class C IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 169.254.2.1 is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Address), and therefore non-routable.
A salesman has been traveling to different businesses all day to give a sales presentation. Each time, he starts up his laptop and logs into Windows to show his PowerPoint presentation to the customer. During his second appointment, his laptop lost power and shut itself off abruptly. He arrives at his third appointment and plugs in his laptop to recharge it. When he powers on his laptop, he sees a very low-resolution version of his normal desktop. He attempts to change the resolution from 800 x 600 to 1920 x 1080 (his normal resolution) but cannot find it in the Display Settings options inside of Windows. Which of the following could be the cause of this error?
Corrupted memory module
Corrupted or missing display driver
Graphics card failure
Corrupted motherboard firmware
Corrupted or missing display driver
OBJ-5.4: If your display is shown in low resolution (640 x 480 or 800 x 600), but the computer isn’t in Safe Mode, it is usually a driver issue. For some reason, the laptop’s display driver has become corrupted between the salesman’s last appointment and this appointment. Without a valid display driver, Windows will revert to the “Generic VGA” driver, limiting the system’s highest resolution to 1024 x 768. To solve this issue, you should reinstall a new display driver for the laptop’s appropriate graphics card.
What is the name of a computer system that is designed to perform a specific and dedicated function?
Embedded system
Legacy system
Patch system
UTM system
Embedded system
OBJ-2.4: An embedded system is a computer system designed to perform a specific, dedicated function. These systems can be as small and simple as a microcontroller in an intravenous drip-rate meter or as large and complex as an industrial control system managing a water treatment plant. Embedded systems might typically have been designed to operate within a closed network. The network elements are all known to the system vendor, and there is no connectivity to wider computer data networks. A legacy system is no longer directly supported by its vendor. Networks often need to retain hosts running DOS or legacy versions of Windows (8.1 and earlier) or old-style mainframe computers to run services that are too complex or expensive to migrate to a more modern platform. Legacy systems usually work well for what they do (which is why they don’t get prioritized for replacement), but they represent very severe risks in terms of security vulnerabilities. Unified threat management (UTM) devices are network appliances that provide all the security functions of a firewall, malware scanner, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanner, data loss prevention, content filtering, and other security devices into a single device or appliance. Patch systems are used to conduct patch management across your organization’s network
Several users from the Sales & Marketing department have called the service desk complaining that they cannot access the internet from their workstations. You arrive at the salesperson’s workstation, open the command prompt, and enter the command IPCONFIG. The command returns an IPv4 address of 10.1.2.3, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, and a default gateway of 10.1.2.1. You attempt to run the command “ping 8.8.8.8” but get the message “Request timed out” displayed four times on the screen. You attempt to ping the IP of the salesperson’s workstation sitting next to this workstation and receive four successful replies from the command. You then try to ping the gateway (10.1.2.1) but again receive the message of “Request timed out” on your screen. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with the salespeople’s internet connectivity?
The router that connects the Sales and Marketing department to the rest of the company is not functioning properly
This is a DNS issue since you cannot access the internet
The wireless access point in the Sales and Marketing department is not working properly
The salespeople are getting APIPA addresses from the DHCP server
The router that connects the Sales and Marketing department to the rest of the company is not functioning properly
OBJ-5.7: Since you can ping other workstations within the Sales & Marketing department, but you cannot successfully ping the gateway device (the router), this indicates that the router is non-functioning at this time. If the router is not functioning, the workstations will be unable to access any devices or servers outside of the Sales & Marketing department since the router is necessary to connect them to those devices.
