Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
what does a medical director do?
A
acts as a liaison to authorize EMTs to provide medical care in the field
2
Q
continuous quality improvement (CQI)
A
a system of internal and external reviews of the EMS system to identify areas of improvement and minimize errors
3
Q
evidence based medicine (EBM)
A
focuses on procedures that have been proven useful in improving patient outcomes
4
Q
what are the four licensure levels of the EMS system?
A
EMR
EMT
AEMT
paramedic
5
Q
EMRs…
A
provide care before ambulance arrives
may assist in ambulance
6
Q
EMTs…
A
have training in basic life support (BLS):
automated external defibrillation
airway adjuncts
assisting patients with certain medications
7
Q
AEMTs…
A
have training in specific aspects of advanced life support:
IV (intravenous) therapy
administration of limited emergency medications
8
Q
paramedics…
A
have extensive ALS training:
endotracheal intubation
emergency pharmacology
cardiac monitoring
9
Q
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
A
prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment
10
Q
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
A
penalizes violations of patients’ health care information and privacy
11
Q
medical control
A
physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone or indirectly by protocol or guidelines, as authorized by the medical director
12
Q
mobile integrated health care (MIH)
A
providing healthcare within the community instead of in a hospital or physician’s office
13
Q
primary prevention
A
efforts to prevent an illness or injury from ever occurring
14
Q
secondary prevention
A
efforts to limit the effects of an illness or injury that you cannot completely prevent
15
Q
public safety access point
A
a call center that is staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for emergency services
16
Q
acute stress reactions
A
reactions to stress that occur during a traumatic situation
17
Q
aerosol-generating procedure
A
treatment that increases the risk for transmission of infections that are spread through the air or by droplets
18
Q
airborne transmission
A
spread of organism via droplets or dust
19
Q
bloodborne pathogens
A
pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans
20
Q
burnout
A
combination of exhaustion, cynicism, and reduced performance as a result of long-term job stresses in health care and other high-stress professions
21
Q
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
A
primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US
22
Q
communicable disease
A
disease that can be spread from one person or species to another
23
Q
contamination
A
presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient’s body
24
Q
critical incident stress management (CISM)
A
a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing emergency services personnel to physical and emotional equilibrium
25
direct contact
exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact
26
distress
a negative response to a stressor
27
exposure
a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, bodily fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner which suggests disease transmission may occur
28
foodborne transmission
contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease
29
hepatitis
inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection
30
symptoms of hepatitis
fever
loss of appetite
jaundice
fatigue
altered liver function
31
host
organisms or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent
32
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), damaging the cells in the body's immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers
33
immune
the body's ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease
34
indirect contact
exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object
35
infection
the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites
can occur with or without signs or symptoms
36
infection control
procedures to reduce transmission of infections among patients and health care personnel
37
infectious disease
medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body
38
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace
39
pathogen
microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host
40
personal protective equipment (PPE)
protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material
41
posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
delayed stress reaction to a prior incident, often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident
42
resilience
capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from distress
43
standard precautions
protective measures that have been traditionally developed by the CDC for use in dealing with potential exposures to communicable diseases
44
vector-borne transmission
use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another
45
abandonment
unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient
46
advance directive
written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions
47
algor mortis
cooling of the body after death until it matches the ambient temperature
48
assault
unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm
49
battery
unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent
50
bioethics
the study of ethics related to issues that arise in healthcare
51
breach of confidentiality
disclosure of information without proper authorization
52
compensatory damages
damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident
53
competent
able to make rational decisions about personal well-being
54
consent
permission to render care
55
contributory negligence
legal defense that may be raised when the defendant thinks that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff
56
decision-making capacity
ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care
57
defamation
communication of false information about a person that is damaging to the person's reputation
58
dependent lividity
blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin
59
depositions
oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath
60
discovery
phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case
61
do not resuscitate (DNR)
written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest
62
duty to act
a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care
63
emancipated minor
person who is under the legal age in a given state but is considered a legal adult because of other circumstances
64
expressed consent
type of consent in which a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport
65
false imprisonment
confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent
66
forcible restraint
the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action
67
Good Samaritan laws
statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good-faith emergency medical care
68
when do Good Samaritan laws not apply?
when on duty
69
gross negligence
conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for duty or standard of care
70
health care proxy
type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his/her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity
71
implied consent
type of consent in which a person is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he/she would want treatment
72
informed consent
permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives have been explained
73
in loco parentis
legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of the parents
74
kidnapping
seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force
includes transporting a competent adult for treatment without his/her consent
75
libel
false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing
76
negligence
failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide
77
protected health information (PHI)
any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual, including any part of a patient's medical record or payment history
78
punitive damages
damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for public safety
79
putrefaction
decomposition of body tissue
definitive sign of death
80
rigor mortis
stiffening of the body muscles
definitive sign of death
81
scope of practice
most commonly defined by state law and outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient
82
slander
false and damaging information that is communicated by spoken word
83
standard of care
accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession that are written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm
84
statute of limitations
time within which a case must be commenced
85
superior
nearer to the head than a specific reference point
86
inferior
nearer to the feet than a specific reference point
87
lateral
parts of the body that lie further from the midline
88
medial
parts of the body that lie closer to the midline
89
proximal
structures that are closer to the trunk
90
distal
structures that are farther from the trunk
91
superficial
on the skin
92
deep
farther inside the body
93
ventral
belly side of the body
94
dorsal
spinal side of the body
95
anterior
front surface of the body
96
posterior
back surface of the body
97
palmar
front region of the hand
98
plantar
bottom surface of the foot
99
apex
tip of a structure
100
flexion
decreasing the angle of a joint
101
extension
increasing the angle of a joint
102
adduction
motion toward the midline
103
abduction
motion away from the midline
104
bilateral
appears on both sides of the midline
105
prone
lying facedown
106
supine
lying face up
107
Fowler position
semi-reclining position with head elevated
108
base station radios
any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed place
109
cellular telephone
a low-power portable radio that communicates through an interconnected series of repeater stations called cells
110
channel
an assigned frequency or frequencies that are used to carry voice and/or data communications
111
therapeutic communication
principles of communicating with patients in a manner that achieves a positive relationship
112
Shannon-Weaver communication model
1. sender takes a thought
2. encodes it into a message
3. sends the message to the receiver
4. receiver decodes the message
5. sends feedback to the sender
113
ethnocentrism
considering your own cultural values more important than those of others
114
cultural imposition
forcing your values onto others
115
facilitation
encouraging the patient to talk more or provide more information
116
pause
gives the patient space and time to think and respond
117
reflection
restating a patient's statement made to you to confirm your understanding
118
confrontation
making a patient who is in denial or in a mental state of shock focus on urgent and life-critical issues
119
CHART method
chief complaint
history
assessments
Rx (treatment)
transport
120
SOAP method
subjective
objective
assessment
plan
121
mobile radio
radio that is installed in a vehicle and used to communicator with dispatcher and medical control
122
portable radios
handheld devices that are helpful when away from the ambulance to communicate with dispatch, another unit, or medical control
123
repeater
special type of base station radio that receives messages and signal on one frequency and automatically retransmits them on a second frequency, allowing two mobile or portable units that cannot reach each other to communicate using its greater power and antenna
124
telemetry
allows electronic signals to be converted into coded, audible signals that can be transmitted by radio or telephone to a receiver with a decoder at the hospital
125
scanner
radio receiver that scans across several frequencies
126
simplex
single-frequency radio that is push to talk, release to listen (transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously)
127
duplex
simultaneous talk-listen
128
multiplex
utilizes two or more frequencies
129
trunking systems
allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequencies
130
federal communications commission (FCC)
regulates all radio operations in the United States
131
neonate
birth to 1 month
132
infant
1 month to 1 year
133
how much of a neonate's body weight does the head account for?
25%
134
how much does a neonate grow each day?
1 ounce
135
moro reflex
neonate opens arms wide, spreads fingers, and seems to grab at things
136
palmar grasp
occurs when an object is placed into the neonate's palm
137
rooting reflex
neonate instinctively turns head when something touches its cheek
138
sucking reflex
occurs when a neonate's lips are stroked
139
fontanelles
spaces between the bones that eventually fuse to form the skull
140
how long does it take for the posterior fontanelle to fuse?
3 months
141
how long does it take for the anterior fontanelle to fuse?
9 to 18 months
142
preconventional reasoning
children act to avoid punishment and get what they want
143
conventional reasoning
children look for approval from peers and society
144
postconventional reasoning
children make decisions guided by their conscience
