Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Lab Medicine II > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

FSH in males

A
  • acts on seminiferous tubules to produce sperm

- acts on seminiferous tubules to release inhibin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inhibin B

A

acts on anterior pituitary to inhibit production of FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

LH in males

A
  • acts on Leydig cells to produce testosterone

- testosterone has negative feedback on anterior pituitary to inhibit LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

hypogonadotropic hypogonadism pathophysiology

A
  • secondary

- pituitary does not secrete enough LH and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

hypogonadotropic hypogonadism causes

A
  • hyperprolactinemia (increased dopamine inhibits GnRH)
  • Kallmann’s syndrome
  • opiates
  • diabetes
  • GnRH agonist therapy (prostate cancer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hypogonadotropic hypogonadism labs

A
  • low or normal LH
  • low FSH
  • low testosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Kallmann’s Syndrome characteristics

A
  • X linked recessive trait
  • most common congenital gonadotropin deficiency
  • micropenis and cryptorchidism
  • cleft lip
  • hearing loss
  • abnormal tooth
  • can’t distinguish odors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hypergonadotropic hypogonadism

A
  • primary gonadal dysfunction
  • failure in testosterone = increased LH
  • sertoli cell dysfunction = increased FSH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hypergonadotropic hypogonadism labs

A
  • low testosterone
  • increased LH
  • increased FSH
  • usually low sperm count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome

A
  • hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
  • XXY (diagnose with chromosome analysis)
  • infertile or reduced fertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome physical characteristics

A
  • breast development
  • small testicular size
  • female pubic hair pattern
  • tall, thin, long arms
  • azoospermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cryptorchidism

A
  • one or both testes fail to descend from abdomen
  • most common defect of male genitals
  • most descend within first year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cryptorchidism treatment

A
  • orchioplexy

- untreated has higher risk of testicular cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

anorchia

A
  • both testes absent at birth
  • fail to develop within 8 weeks = female genitalia develop
  • develop but lose function 8-10 weeks = ambiguous genitalia
  • function loss after 14 weeks = partial male genital with no testes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HCG stimulation/challenge

A
  • collect basal and post HCG injection testosterone
  • Increase = cryptorchidism
  • Absence = anorchia

HCG causes leydig cells to secrete androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

natural decline in testosterone

A
  • decreased libido
  • fatigue
  • elevated LH
  • low testosterone
  • low sperm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

defects in androgen action physiology

A
  • testosterone normally binds to androgen receptors

- absence of receptors cause testicular feminization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

defects in androgen action labs

A
  • elevated testosterone

- elevated LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

defects in androgen action labs

A
  • intersex

- 5 alpha reductase enzyme deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

intersex physiology

A
  • born with primary sex characteristics of one sex
  • develop secondary sex characteristics different than expected
  • cryptorchid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

androgen insensitivity

A
  • partial resistance to testosterone
  • hypogonadism
  • cryptorchidism
  • gynecomastia
  • serum testosterone is normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

testosterone labs

A
  • evaluate in morning with highest level at 0800
  • excess production induces premature puberty in males
  • assess hypogonadism, pituitary gonadotropin, impotency, cryptorchidism, and part of infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FSH in females

A
  • stimulates development of follicles in ovaries

- acts on granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

LH in females

A
  • stimulates development of corpus luteum in ovaries
  • acts on theca interna cells
  • surge causes ovulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is number of days in menstrual cycle determined

A

time required for development of follicles and corpus luteum after menstruation and feedback effect of estrogen and progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

estrogen

A
  • estradiol, estrone, and estriol

- made by ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

estrogen stimulate growth and development of

A
  • uterus, fallopian tubes, vagina, external female sex organs
  • endometrial proliferation
  • breast development
  • skeletal growth
  • fat deposition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

progesterone

A
  • produced by corpus luteum

- best test to determine if ovulation has occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

menses steps

A
  1. pituitary secretes LH and FSH
  2. estrogen inhibits secretion of LH and FSH
  3. pituitary secretes large amount of LH (despite inhibition) immediately before ovulation
  4. after ovulation corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone to inhibit LH and FSH
  5. degradation of corpus luteum causes estrogen and progesterone levels to fall, allowing LH and FSH levels to rise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

primary amenorrhea

A

-no menses by age 16
or
-no menses by 14, absence of breast development, and less than 3% height for age range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

primary amenorrhea pearls

A
  • if normal pubertal development think structural

- if delayed pubertal development thing genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

turner syndrome

A
  • primary amenorrhea cause (premature ovarian failure)
  • most common chromosomal abnormality, XO
  • short stature with webbing of neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

turner syndrome labs

A
  • high LH

- high FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

turner syndrome treatment

A
  • growth hormone
  • age <12 androgen therapy
  • age >12 hormone replacement with estrogen/progesterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

secondary amenorrhea

A

-had menses but no menses for 3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

causes of secondary amenorrhea

A
  • pregnancy most common
  • menopause second most common
  • premature ovarian failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

menopause

A
  • high FSH

- no menses for 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

premature ovarian failure

A
  • menopause under the age of 40

- FSH and LH are elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

secondary amenorrhea caused by hypothalamic pituitary issues

A
  • low frequency of GnRH pulses
  • hyperprolactinemia
  • Low to normal FSH
  • high prolactin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

PCOS pathophysiology

A
  • rapid GnRH pulses increase LH synthesis with excessive androgen secretion
  • excess androgens cause hirsutism, development of male characteristics, and amenorrhea
  • infertility varies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PCOS physical presentation

A
  • history irregular menses
  • androgenic features
  • central obesity
  • mood disturbance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

PCOS labs

A
  • insulin resistance
  • LH exaggerated surge
  • testosterone >20
  • dyslipidemia
  • pelvic ultrasound not required for diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

asherman syndrome

A
  • caused by infection of uterine lining (endometriosis) or vigorous curettage causing scarring
  • causes secondary amenorrhea with normal FSH
  • estrogen and progesterone given after scar tissue removed
  • high risk for spontaneous abortion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

progesterone withdraw test

A
  • administer progesterone for 10 days
  • therapeutic and diagnostic
  • withdraw of medication should cause bleeding
  • absence of bleeding indicates lack of estrogen or uterine abnormality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

nonobstructive azoospermia

A
  • failure of testes to produce sperm due to absence of germ cells and failure of spermatogenesis
  • often have elevated FSH
46
Q

obstructive azoospermia

A
  • blockage of ducts
  • cystic fibrosis
  • STDs
47
Q

semen analysis components

A
  • sperm count
  • semen examination
  • seminal cytology
48
Q

semen analysis indications

A
  • evaluate sperm quality
  • infertility
  • document adequate vasectomy
49
Q

causes of abnormal semen analysis

A
  • heat/cold
  • light
  • inadequate abstinence
50
Q

low or absent fructose in semen analysis

A

-associated with congenital absence of the vas deferens and seminal vesicles
or
-ejaculatory duct obstruction

51
Q

fern test (cervical mucus) indications

A
  • timing of ovulation
  • determine ovarian function near menopause
  • determine spontaneous rupture of membranes
52
Q

post coital cervical mucus indications

A

measure ability of sperm to penetrate mucus and maintain motility

53
Q

anti-Mullerian hormone

A
  • in males, high levels inhibit the development of the female reproductive tract
  • in females, low levels until puberty when produced by ovaries
  • disappears from ovary when menopause starts
54
Q

anti-Mullerian hormone clinical usage

A
  • assess ovarian reserve (predict menopause timing)
  • IVF
  • predict ovarian loss after chemo
  • biomarker for PCOS
  • can be measured at any point during cycle
55
Q

fetal nuchal translucency

A
  • screens for pregnancies that need diagnostic testing

- increased could indicate trisomy 18, 21, or cardiac anomalies

56
Q

chorionic villus sampling indications

A
  • abnormal nuchal translucency
  • advanced maternal age
  • history genetic disorder
57
Q

chorionic villus sampling risks

A
  • miscarriage

- leakage of amniotic fluid

58
Q

amniocentesis indications

A
  • fetal maturity in respiratory distress
  • genetic abnormalities
  • Rh incompatibility
  • neural tube defects
  • high risk patients
59
Q

cell free DNA

A
  • prenatal screening for trisomy and other genetic abnormalities
  • amniocentesis or CVS are the gold standard
60
Q

triple marker

A
  • AFP, estriol, HCG
  • identifies down’s, neural tube defects, placental insufficiency, oligohydramnios
  • is not diagnostic and needs follow up confirmation testing
61
Q

alpha-fetoprotein indications

A
  • neural tube defect
  • body wall defect
  • also used as tumor marker
62
Q

estriol

A
  • predominant estrogen in pregnancy

- decreased values can indicate fetal distress

63
Q

serum HCG rule of 10’s

A

10 units at missed period
100,000 units at 10 week peak
10,000 units at term

64
Q

HCG utility

A
  • not used to determine week of pregnancy

- used in evaluation of triple marker

65
Q

HCG and ectopic pregnancy

A
  • serial HCG every 48 hours
  • HCG can both rise and fall in ectopic
  • the initial 48 hour rise can mimic intrauterine pregnancy
66
Q

down syndrome triple marker

A
  • low AFP
  • low estradiol
  • high HCG
67
Q

trisomy 18 triple marker

A
  • low AFP
  • low estradiol
  • low HCG
68
Q

neural tube defect triple marker

A
  • high AFP

- estradiol and HCG not applicable

69
Q

fetal fibronectin

A
  • used to detect rupture of membranes
  • help to predict preterm delivery to initiate early intervention
  • 24 to 34 week gestation
  • <3 cm dilated and intact membrane
70
Q

fetal fibronectin predictive value

A
  • negative highly predictive that labor will not occur next 7 to 14 days
  • positive indicates delivery likely next 7-14 days
71
Q

group B strep

A
  • common cause of neonatal pneumonia
  • screen at 35-37 weeks
  • positive gets ABX
  • if positive once then positive for all subsequent pregnancies
72
Q

TORCH

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other agents (syphilis, HIV, varicella, fifth disease)
Rubella
CMV
HSV

disease that can cause microcephaly, mental impairment, or death

73
Q

toxoplasmosis

A
  • immunosuppressed can have CNS lesions

- congenital microcephaly, chronic retinitis, convulsions

74
Q

syphilis

A
  • sores on infected infants are contagious

- most symptoms develop later after birth

75
Q

CMV

A
  • most common congenital viral infection with majority asymptomatic
  • hearing loss is most common manifestation
76
Q

CMV screening

A
  • only screened if symptomatic or exposed

- be suspicious of mono like symptoms during pregnancy

77
Q

HSV patterns

A
  • localized to skin, eyes, mouth
  • localized to CNS
  • disseminated involving multiple organs
78
Q

stool for occult blood pearls

A
  • fecal DNA more sensitive for cancer screening

- fecal immunochemical test (FIT) more specific for lower GI bleeding

79
Q

fecal immunochemical test

A
  • positive needs colonoscopy
  • detects hemoglobin with no lifestyle changes prior to test
  • high temperature and delayed time to sample can alter results
80
Q

APT test

A
  • done on newborn
  • differentiate if bloody stool source is maternal or newborn
  • normal is no newborn blood detected
81
Q

fecal fat

A
  • gold standard for diagnosing steatorrhea
  • deficiency of pancreatic digestive enzymes or bile
  • falsely high: enema, laxative, mineral oil
  • falsely low: Metamucil, barium
82
Q

fecal leukocytes

A
  • evaluate diarrhea due to infection/inflammation
  • 10 to 15% of stools with invasive pathogen have absence of fecal leukocytes
  • normal stool has no leukocytes
83
Q

stool culture

A
  • must be ordered separately from other stool tests
  • one negative is not end point with patients showing infectious disease
  • normal flora can become pathogenic after alterations by ABX
  • after some Tx repeat culture for test of cure
84
Q

C. Diff toxin assay

A
  • patients with diarrhea who have recently taken ABX
  • immunosuppressed patient with diarrhea without history of ABX use
  • symptoms occur 4-10 days after ABX
  • usually hospital acquired
85
Q

LP contraindication

A
  • increased ICP
  • severe degenerative joint disease
  • infection near LP site
86
Q

CSF critical values

A

neutrophils >20
glucose <20
protein >45

87
Q

traumatic blood in CSF

A
  • blood decreases with subsequent vials
  • clotting may be present
  • centrifuge of sample has clear supernatant
88
Q

glucose in CSF

A
  • changes in blood sugar reflected in CSF 1 hour later
  • decreases with bacterial infection
  • CSF glucose <60% of BG = infection or neoplasm
89
Q

protein in CSF

A
  • normally very little protein due to difficulty crossing blood brain barrier
  • reliable indication of CSF pathology
90
Q

serum vs CSF protein electrophoresis in regards to multiple sclerosis

A

-abnormal result is finding 2 or more bands in the CSF not present in the serum

91
Q

lactic acid in CSF

A
  • used to differentiate between bacterial and nonbacterial meningitis
  • increased in cerebral hypoxia or ischemia
92
Q

lactate dehydrogenase in CSF

A

-can differentiate between bacterial and viral meningitis

93
Q

syphilis serology in CSF

A

-ordered if serum RPR is positive

94
Q

glutamine in CSF

A
  • most prominent amino acid in CSF

- detect and evaluate hepatic encephalopathy/coma

95
Q

CRP in CSF

A
  • acute phase reactant

- non elevated levels = no bacterial meningitis

96
Q

cloudy CSF

A

-potentially contagious until proven otherwise

97
Q

most common causes of bacterial meningitis in children

A
  • H influenzae type B

- Group B strep

98
Q

most common causes of bacterial meningitis in adults

A
  • meningococci

- pneumococci

99
Q

peritoneal transudate appearance

A
  • clear
  • serous
  • light yellow
100
Q

peritoneal exudate appearance

A
  • cloudy
  • turbid
  • milky
101
Q

transudates

A
  • extravascular fluid from increased fluid pressure or decreased colloid oncotic forces
  • low protein
  • low specific gravity
102
Q

transudate causes

A
  • CHF
  • cirrhosis
  • nephrotic syndrome
103
Q

exudates

A
  • extravascular fluid due to vessel alteration during inflammation
  • increased protein
  • increased specific gravity
104
Q

exudates causes

A
  • infection
  • malignancy
  • vascular disease
  • trauma
105
Q

CSF tubes and tests

A
  1. chemistry/serology
  2. microbiology
  3. hematology
  4. additional studies/repeat cell count
106
Q

light’s criteria

A

fluid is exudate if one or more conditions met

  1. serum protein exceeds 0.5
  2. LDH pleural:serum exceeds 0.6
  3. pleural LDH exceeds 2/3 upper level of normal for serum
107
Q

inflammatory versus non-inflammatory synovial fluid

A
  • non inflammatory: high viscosity, clear, <2000 WBC

- inflammatory: low viscosity, cloudy, 5000-75000 WBC

108
Q

gout crystal analysis

A

-negatively birefringent under polarized light (yellow)

109
Q

pseudo gout crystal analysis

A

-positively birefringent (blue)

110
Q

sweat chloride

A

gold standard to diagnosis cystic fibrosis

Lab Medicine II (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions