Test 1

Question 1

CLIA

clinical laboratory improvement amendments

Answer 1

laws and regulations governing how labs are operated

Question 2

waived tests

Answer 2

tests often done in office that don’t require CLIA oversight

Question 3

POCT

point of care testing

Answer 3

CLIA waived testing

Question 4

quality control

Answer 4

testing run on control materials periodically to assure that an assay or test is reliable

Question 5

quality assurance

Answer 5

programs within a lab to assure accurate and reliable results

Question 6

proficiency testing

Answer 6

perioding testing required to assure that technical personnel are performing tests correctly and getting accurate results

Question 7

incidence of disease

Answer 7

number of new cases of a disease during a specified period of time and population

Question 8

prevalence

Answer 8

number of existing cases of disease during a specified period of time and population

Question 9

predictive value

Answer 9

ability of a screening test result to correctly identify disease state

Question 10

pretest probability

Answer 10

the probability of the target disorder before a diagnostic test result is known

Question 11

critical/panic value

Answer 11

lab value that requires immediate notification to the provider for urgent action

Question 12

normal range

Answer 12

range of value determined by the lab to encompass values within 2 standard deviations of the mean for a large population, 5% of normal values fall out of this range

Question 13

specificity

Answer 13

• ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease
• identify the true negative
• highly specific test unlikely to give false positive
• used to confirm results of screening tests

Question 14

sensitivity

Answer 14

• ability of a test to identify who truly has a disease
• identify the true positive
• acts as screening test

Question 15

pretest or preanalytical issues

Answer 15

issues related to patient, proper test selection, consent, preparation, specimen collection, specimen storage and transport

Question 16

intratest or analytical issues

Answer 16

may include issues related to testing procedures, interference, reagents, QC

Question 17

posttest or postanalytical issues

Answer 17

includes issues related to calculating, reporting, and interpreting results, follow-up

Question 18

tube draw order

Answer 18

blue, red, gold, green, purple, gray

Question 19

lavender tube

Answer 19

• contains EDTA

- hematology, CBC, making blood smears

Question 20

light blue tube

Answer 20

• contains sodium citrate

- coagulation studies like PT/INR

Question 21

green tube

Answer 21

• contains heparin

- plasma chemistry studies

Question 22

WBC panic value

Answer 22

<2000

>30000

Question 23

Hb/Hgb Panic values

Answer 23

<5

>20

Question 24

HCT panic values

Answer 24

<20%

>60%

Question 25

neutrophils

Answer 25

- most numerous - most important - only ethnic difference - pyogenic bacterial infection

Question 26

neutrophilia

Answer 26

- acute bacterial infection - inflammation - myeloproliferative

Question 27

neutropenia

Answer 27

- overwhelming infection - viral infection - aplastic anemia

Question 28

eosinophil

Answer 28

- parasite defense | - allergic reaction

Question 29

eosinophilia

Answer 29

- parasite infection - allergy - UC/crohns

Question 30

eosinopenia

Answer 30

- stress - cushings - drugs

Question 31

basophil

Answer 31

allergic reaction

Question 32

basophilia

Answer 32

- myelocytic leukemia - acute basophilic leukemia - inflammation - allergy

Question 33

basopenia

Answer 33

- stress | - prolonged steroid use

Question 34

monocyte

Answer 34

severe infection

Question 35

monocytosis

Answer 35

- bacterial infection - TB - syphilis

Question 36

monocytopenia

Answer 36

- prednisone - overwhelming infection - HIV - aplastic anemia

Question 37

Lymphocyte

Answer 37

viral infection

Question 38

lymphocytosis

Answer 38

- mononucleosis - pertussis - CLL, ALL

Question 39

shift to the left

Answer 39

-increase in number of immature granulocytes -neutrophils -increase bands to >80% found in pregnancy, bacterial infection, hemorrhage, myeloproliferative disorder

Question 40

leukocytosis

Answer 40

WBC > 10,000 - bacterial/viral infections - dehydration - leukemia - inflammation - prednisone - hemorrhage/hemolysis - demargination of cells

Question 41

leukopenia

Answer 41

WBC < 4,000 - overwhelming bacterial infection - viral infection - bone marrow disorder - over hydration - medications

Question 42

acute lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 42

- lymphoblasts present | - 1/3 of childhood cancers

Question 43

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Answer 43

- predominant small mature lymphocyte | - smudge cells

Question 44

acute myeloid leukemia

Answer 44

-blasts present in peripheral blood

Question 45

chronic myeloid leukemia

Answer 45

- philadephia chromosome | - basophilia and neutrophilia

Question 46

reticulocytes

Answer 46

immature RBC

Question 47

normal/decreased reticulocyte

Answer 47

- iron deficient anemia - anemia of chronic disease - lead poisoning - B12/folate deficiency - aplastic anemia

Question 48

elevated reticulocyte

Answer 48

- hemolytic anemia - hemorrhage - early treatment nutritional deficiency

Question 49

iron deficient anemia

Answer 49

- most common cause of anemia - causes: malnutrition, chronic blood loss, pregnancy - microcytic - hypochromic - decreased RBC - high RDW - decreased ferritin is earliest finding and persists

Question 50

sideroblastic anemia

Answer 50

- bone marrow produces ringed sideroblast rather than normal RBC - body has iron but can't incorporate it into hemoglobin

Question 51

Why separate serum from RBC

Answer 51

blood glucose will decrease

Question 52

what is drawn first

Answer 52

blood cultures for sterility

Question 53

primary polycythemia

Answer 53

- RBC high - EPO low - caused by abnormality of cells in marrow

Question 54

secondary polycythemia

Answer 54

- RBC high - EPO high - caused by disorder originating outside of marrow

Question 55

microcytic anemia

Answer 55

``` TAILS Thalassemia Anemia of Chronic Disease Iron Deficiency anemia Lead toxicity Sideroblastic ```

Question 56

Thalassemia lab finding

Answer 56

- Low MCV - Normal RDW - Increased iron - Decreased TIBC - Abnormal Hemoglobin electrophoresis (Hb A2)

Question 57

Normocytic anemia

Answer 57

- Hemorrhagic/Hemolytic | - aplastic

Question 58

macrocytic anemia

Answer 58

B12/folate deficiency