Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

14th Amendment-

A

No state will “deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of its laws.

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2
Q

Substantive due process-

A

When the law limits the liberty of all persons to do something.

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3
Q

Equal Protection-

A

When the law limits some persons, but not others, to do something.

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4
Q

Minimal scrutiny-

A

Rational basis test. The law or action is valid if there is any conceivable rational basis on which the classification might relate to any legitimate governmental interest.

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5
Q

Intermediate scrutiny-

A

The law must be substantially related to important government objectives. Generally applied to gender discrimination cases.

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6
Q

Strict scrutiny-

A

Law will be upheld only if it is necessary to promote a compelling state interest. Generally applied to issues such as race.

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7
Q

The Commerce Clause

A

Article 1, Section 8 states that the congress has the power to “regulate commerce with foreign nations and among the several states and with the Indian tribes.”

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8
Q

Interstate commerce-

A

Gibbons vs Ogden. Congress has authority to regulate as long as “the commerce substantially affected commerce involving more than one state”

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9
Q

Police powers-

A

State and local governments have the authority to regulate affairs within their borders. Laws enacted to police powers carry a strong presumption of validity.

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10
Q

Supremacy Clause-

A

The Constitution, laws and treaties of the United States are the “supreme law of the land.”

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11
Q

Doctrine of Preimption

A

A doctrine under which certain federal laws preempt or take precedence over certain state or local laws.

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12
Q

First Admendment

A

Courts generally have protected this right to the fullest extent possible.

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13
Q

A restriction of commercial speech is valid if it(name 3):

A

1) Seeks to implement a substantial government interest
2) Directly advances that interest
3) Goes no further than necessary to accomplish the objective

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14
Q

Establishment Clause-

A

The government cannot establish a state- sponsored religion or pass laws that endorse religion or show a preference for one religion over another.

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15
Q

A government law concerning religion is legal if (name 3):

A

1) Must be secular in aim
2) Must not have the primary effect of advancing or inhibiting religion
3) Must not create an excessive government entanglement with religion

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16
Q

Free exercise clause-

A

A person can hold any religious beliefs including no beliefs.

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17
Q

Due Process-

A

No person shall be deprived of life, liberty and property without due process of law. 5th and 14th amendment

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18
Q

Procedural Due Process-

A

Requires that any government decision to take life, liberty or property must be fairly made. A person must be allowed at least an opportunity to object to a proposed action before a fair, neutral decisionmaker.

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19
Q

Substantive due process-

A

Focuses on the content, or substance of the legislation (the law itself).

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20
Q

Fundamental rights-

A

If a law or other governmental action limits a fundamental right, the law or action will be held to violate substantive due process unless the law or action promotes a compelling state interest.

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21
Q

Non-fundamental rights-

A

If a law or governmental action does not involve a fundamental right, it does not violate substantive due process so long as it rationally relates to any legitimate governmental end.

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22
Q

Judicial review-

A

The process by which a court decides on the constitutionality of legislative acts and actions of the executive branch.

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23
Q

Jurisdiction-

A

Authority of a court to hear a case.

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24
Q

Four types of jurisdiction:

A

1) Jurisdiction over persons (in personam jurisdiction)
2) Jurisdiction over property (in rem jurisdiction)
3) Jurisdiction over subject matter
4) Jurisdiction of federal courts

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25
Q

Personal jurisdiction-

A

Generally a court can exercise personal jurisdiction over residents of a certain geographical area.

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26
Q

Long-arm statutes (corporations)-

A

Minimum contacts with a corporation is generally met if the corporation does business within the state.

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27
Q

Long arm statutes (people)

A

A defendant must have certain minimum contacts with that state for the statute to apply.

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28
Q

Jurisdiction over property-

A

A defendant must have certain minimum contacts with that state for the statute to apply.

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29
Q

Jurisdiction over subject matter-

A

The jurisdiction of a court can be limited by the types of cases it can hear. Court of general jurisdiction. Court of limited jurisdiction.

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30
Q

Original Jurisdiction-

A

Court in which a case is heard for the first time.

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31
Q

Appellate Jurisdiction-

A

Court that reviews decisions made by the court with original jurisdiction. These courts review questions of law, not the facts.

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32
Q

Federal jurisdiction-

A

The federal court’s jurisdiction extends to cases involving the federal constitution, federal laws or treaties.

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33
Q

Federal courts can hear question in regards to _______ of ______.

A

Diversity of citizens cases.

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34
Q

What are the requirements for diversity of citizens cases?

A

!) More than 75,000

2) Citizens of different states.
3) Citizens of different countries.

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35
Q

Exclusive jurisdiction-

A

Where only one court can hear a case.

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36
Q

Concurrent jurisdiction-

A

Where more than one court can hear a case.

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37
Q

Jurisdiction of cyberspace-

A

A sliding scale standard.

38
Q

Venue-

A

The most appropriate location for a trial. The geographical district where a case should be heard.

39
Q

Pleadings-

A

the pleading filed by the P. alleging wrongdoing by the D. Must prove that court has jurisdiction, show facts that P. is entitled to win, state what remedy P. is seeking.

40
Q

Summons-

A

Document informing a D. that a lawsuit has been filed against him/her. This is served on the D.

41
Q

Defendant’s answer-

A

Either admits, denies, or states D. does not know the allegations made in complaint. Wil include counterclaims and affirmative defenses.

42
Q

Affirmative defenses-

A

New facts that will result in the dismissal of the action.

43
Q

Motion for judgment on the pleadings-

A

The court only considers the pleadings when making its decision. Will only be granted when facts are not in dispute.

44
Q

Motion for summary judgment-

A

Court will consider other evidence. Will not be granted if facts are in dispute.

45
Q

Discovery-

A

A phase in a lawsuit whereby the parties obtain information from each other and witnesses.

46
Q

Voi Dire-

A

Where the attorneys question prospective jurors to find any biases or connections they may have.

47
Q

Challenges for cause-

A

Where the attorneys question prospective jurors to find any biases or connections they may have.

48
Q

Peremptory challenges-

A

No reason has to be given why party strikes juror. Cannot exclude for race or gender.

49
Q

Motion for Judgment NOV-

A

Asking judge to reverse jury verdict because it was unreasonable and wrong.

50
Q

Motion for new trial-

A

Asking judge to set aside verdict and conduct a new trial because judge made wrong decisions or there is new evidence.

51
Q

Negotiation-

A

Parties attempt to settle their dispute with no formal third-party assistance.

52
Q

Mediation-

A

Third party assists parties in settling the dispute themselves. Nonbinding.

53
Q

Arbitration-

A

A third party hears a dispute and renders a legally binding decision.

54
Q

Torts-

A

A civil wrong not arising out of a breach of contract. A legal duty that proximately causes harm or injury to another.

55
Q

Intentional torts against persons-

A

A wrongful act knowingly or intentionally committed. The tortfeasor must intend the act, the result of which harms another; an evil or harmful motive is not required

56
Q

Tortfeaser-

A

one who commits a tort.

57
Q

Assault-

A

Any word or action intended to make another person fearful of immediate physical harm.

58
Q

Battery-

A

The unprivileged, intentional touching of another. An unexcused and harmful or offensive physical contact intentionally performed. Offensive determined by reasonable person standard.

59
Q

Defenses to Assault and Battery

A

1) Consent
2) Self defense
3) Defense of others (reasonable manner)
4) Defense of property (reasonable force)

60
Q

False imprisonment-

A

The intentional confinement or restraint of another person’s activities without justification. Must have probable cause.

61
Q

Defamation-

A

Anything publicly written (libel) or publicly spoken (slander) that causes injury to another’s good name, reputation or character.

62
Q

Libel-

A

Written defamation. General damages are sufficient

63
Q

Slander-

A

Special damages must be provided.

64
Q

Defenses against defamation-

A

1) Truth.

65
Q

Defamation of public figures-

A

to recover, the P. must show the defamatory statement was made with actual malice

66
Q

Invasions of Privacy-

A

A person has the right to solitude and freedom from prying public eyes.

67
Q

Trespass to land-

A

Occurs whenever a person, without permission, enters onto, above, or below the surface of land owned by another; or causes anything to enter onto the land; or permits anything to remain on it.

68
Q

Real property-

A

Land and anything permanently attached to land.

69
Q

Trespass per se-

A

Person entering property to commit an illegal act is liable

70
Q

Defenses to trespass to land-

A

1) Entering property to assist another in danger

2) Licensee defense (one invited onto property) (also called the “meter reader” defense.

71
Q

Personal property-

A

Any property that is not real property

72
Q

Conversion-

A

When personal property is wrongfully taken from its rightful owner and placed in the service of another.

73
Q

Wrongful interference with a business contractual relationship-

A

1) A valid enforceable contract must exist between two parties.
2) A third party must know that the contract exists.
3) The third party must intentionally cause either of the two parties to breach the contract.

74
Q

Wrongful interference with a business relationship-

A

Businesses can do things to attract customers, but they cannot interfere unreasonably with another’s business in an attempt to gain a share of the market.

75
Q

Appropriation-

A

The use of another’s name, likeness or other identifying characteristics without permission and for the benefit of the user.

76
Q

Disparagement of property-

A

Occurs when falsehoods are made about another’s product or service.

77
Q

Slander of title-

A

The publication of a statement that denies or casts doubt on another’s legal ownership of any property causing financial loss to that company.

78
Q

Slander of quality-

A

The publication of false information about another’s product alleging it is not what the seller claims.

79
Q

Negligence-

A

The failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise in the same or similar circumstances.

80
Q

Duty of care-

A

Duty of all persons to exercise a reasonable amount of care in their dealings with others.

81
Q

Duty of professionals-

A

If a person has knowledge, skill or intelligence superior to that of an ordinary person (doctors, lawyers, architects, accountants, etc.) their training and expertise is taken into account in determining what is reasonable care for professionals.

82
Q

Compensatory damages-

A

Actual value of injuries or damages sustained.

83
Q

Punitive damages-

A

Money awarded to a P. to punish a D. for particularly egregious acts and to deter others from acting similarly.

84
Q

Causation in fact-

A

if an injury would not have occurred without the D.’s act, then there is causation in fact.

85
Q

Proximate cause-

A

legal cause.

86
Q

Superseding cause-

A

An independent intervening force that breaks the connection between a D.’s wrongful act and an injury to another.

87
Q

Assumption of the risk-

A

A P. who voluntarily enters into a risky situation, knowing the risk involved, will not be allowed to recover.

88
Q

Contributory negligence-

A

A theory in tort law under which a P.’s own negligence contributed to or caused his/her own injuries. Contributory negligence is an absolute bar to recovery. Very few states use this rule today.

89
Q

Comparative negligence-

A

Liability for injuries resulting from negligent acts is shared by all persons who were negligent (including P.) on the basis of each person’s proportionate carelessness. Most states have this. Two forms:

90
Q

Good Samaritan statutes-

A

Good samaritan statutes – state statutes which provide that persons who give emergency services to, or rescue others in peril – unless they do so recklessly and cause further harm – cannot be successfully sued for negligence.

91
Q

Strict liability-

A

liablity without fault. (dangerous dogs, construction, etc)