Test 01 Flashcards
- An Indian Citizen has declared renunciation
of his citizenship in 2015 when his son was
10 years old. Subsequently, his declaration
of renunciation was successfully registered.
Which of the following fundamental rights
will be enjoyed by his son as of today? - Right to Privacy
- Protection against arrest and detention
- Right to Freedom of speech and
expression
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 1.C
• Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian Citizenship.
Upon registration of that declaration, that person ceases to be a citizen of India. Further when a person
renounces his Indian Citizenship, every minor Child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. However,
when such a child attains the age of 18, he may resume Indian Citizenship.
• In this case, the Child will also stand to lose its citizenship because of being a minor. He will continue to
be a minor even as of today (14 years). Thus, he won’t be considered as an Indian Citizen. Hence, he will
be able to enjoy only those fundamental rights which are available to both citizens and foreigners:
o Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14)
o Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
o Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21). Right to Privacy has been declared as a
fundamental right by Supreme Court under Article 21. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Right to education (Article 21A)
o Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22). Hence option 2 is correct.
o Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23).
o Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc., (Article 24).
o Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
o Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
o Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
o Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article
28).
• The following rights are available only for Indian Citizens:
o Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15)
o Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)
o Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions (Article 19). Hence option 3 is not correct.
o Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29)
o Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
- Consider the following objectives:
- Political Justice
- Economic Liberty
- Equality of Status
- Unity and Integrity of the Nation
Which of the above-given objectives are
stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of
India?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q 2.A
• The preamble of the Indian Constitution-
• WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
o JUSTICE, social, economic, and political; Hence statement 1 is correct.
o LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship; Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all, Hence statement 3 is
correct.
o FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
Hence statement 4 is correct.
• IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
• Preamble reveals the source of authority of the constitution which is “the authority from the people of
India”.
• It declares the nature of the Indian state as sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, and republican
polity.
• It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives of the constitution.
• It also mentions the date of adoption of the constitution which is November 26, 1949.
3. Consider the following statements regarding President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution: 1. There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation. 2. When it is imposed, the President can assume to himself any of the powers vested in the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 3.B
• A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two
months from the date of its issue.
• However, if the proclamation of President’s Rule is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been
dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without
approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok
Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the meantime. If approved by both
the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months. It can be extended for a
maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• President may by Proclamation:
o assume to himself all or any of the functions of the Government of the State and all or any of the
powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than
the Legislature of the State; Hence statement 2 is correct.
o declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of
Parliament;
o make such incidental and consequential provisions as appear to the president to be necessary or
desirable for giving effect to the objects of the Proclamation
E9 Partnership recently seen in the news is
related to
(a) promoting hydrogen as a fuel.
(b) ensuring quality education for all.
(c) developing 5G technology.
(d) facilitating vaccine for under developed
countries.
Q 4.B
• E9 is a forum of nine countries, namely Bangladesh, Brazil, China, Egypt, India, Indonesia, Mexico,
Nigeria and Pakistan that aims at achieving the goals of UNESCO’s Education For All (EFA)
initiative.
• E9 Partnership was first established in 1993, formed to achieve the goals of UNESCO’s Education For All
(EFA). E9 Partnership is working for the achievement of SDG4 – Education 2030.
• Recently, Minister of State for Education attended a consultation meeting of Education Ministers of E9
countries on the theme ‘E9 initiative: Scaling up digital learning to accelerate progress towards SDG4’.
• Hence, option (b) is correct answer.
5. The Second Schedule of the Constitution contains the administrative provisions pertaining to: 1. Comptroller and Auditor General 2. Judges of High Courts 3. Members of Parliament 4. Members of Union Public Service Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 5.A
• Second Schedule contains the provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges etc. of the
following:
o The President of India
o The Governors of States
o The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
o The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
o The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
o The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
o The Judges of the Supreme Court
o The Judges of the High Courts
o The Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
• The provisions in the Second Schedule can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
- Since independence, many laws have been
enacted by the state to give effect to the
various Directive Principles under part IV of
the Constitution. In this context consider the
following statements: - The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and
the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980,
enactments give effect to Article 50. - Khadi and Village Industries Board
gives effect to Article 43. - 73rd Constitutional amendment Act
gives effect to Article 40.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 6.C
• Statement 1 is not correct: Article 48A seeks to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard
forests and wildlife. Article 48 seeks to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and
scientific lines and prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle, and improve
their breeds.
o Hence, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, have been
enacted to give effect to Article 48A, not Article 50.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 43 seeks to promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation
basis in rural areas.
o Hence, Khadi and Village Industries Board, Khadi and Village Industries Commission, Small-Scale
Industries Board, etc have been set up to give effect to Article 43.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 40 seeks to organize village panchayats and endow them with the
necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government.
o Hence, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has been passed to give effect to Article 40.
7. 'Darbar Move' recently seen in the news is associated with (a) Central Vista Redevelopment Project. (b) shifting of Uttarakhand High Court. (c) tiger relocation project. (d) bi-annual shifting of the capital of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
Q 7.D
• Recently, for the first time in 144 years, the Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) administration has decided to halt
the bi-annual shifting of the capital, called ‘Durbar move’ due to the ongoing Covid-19 crisis.
• Darbar Move is a century-old practice in which the government functions for six months each in the two
capitals of the State, Srinagar and Jammu i.e, bi-annual shifting of the capital.
• The government will function in Srinagar, the summer capital of the State, till late October and then move
to Jammu, the winter capital, in the first week of November.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.
- Consider the following statements regarding
the Parliamentary form of government: - The ministers operate on the principle of
secrecy of procedure. - The ministers are members of both the
legislature and the executive. - The Prime Minister is the leader of the
council of ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 8.D
• Following are some of the features of the parliamentary form of government in India:
o Nominal and Real Executives: The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular
executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Thus, the President is
head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government. Article 74 provides for a
council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his
functions. The advice so tendered is binding on the President.
o Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the
government. The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President; other
ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the prime minister. However, when no single
party gets the majority, a coalition of parties may be invited by the President to form the government.
o Collective Responsibility: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers
are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article
75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies
that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., the council of ministers headed by the prime
minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
o Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political
party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In the case of the coalition government, the
ministers are bound by consensus.
o Double Membership: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This
means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of Parliament. The Constitution
stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive
months ceases to be a minister. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The leadership of the Prime Minister: The Prime Minister plays a leadership role in this system of
government. He is the leader of the council of ministers, the leader of the Parliament, and the
leader of the party in power. In these capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the
functioning of the government. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved
by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can
advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections.
This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary
system.
o Secrecy: The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge
information about their proceedings, policies, and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before
entering their office. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the President.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
9. With respect to the effect of National emergency on fundamental rights consider the following statements: 1. When a National emergency is proclaimed Article 19 is automatically suspended. 2. During a National emergency a presidential order suspending enforcement of any fundamental rights requires parliament approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 9.B
• Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on Fundamental Rights. Article 358
deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals
with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).
• Article 19 containing six rights can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on
the grounds of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion.
• Article 19 is automatically suspended only when the grounds for the proclamation of emergency is
either war or external aggression. This provision was not there initially and was added by the 44th
constitutional amendment. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Article 359 authorizes the president to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental
Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement.
• The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the
Presidential Order.
• Further, the suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period
as mentioned in the order, and the suspension order may extend to the whole or any part of the
country. Such presidential order should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways. Firstly, the President
cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by
Articles 20 to 21. In other words, the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during an emergency.
• Secondly, only those laws which are related to the emergency are protected from being challenged and not
other laws, and the executive action taken only under such a law, is protected.
- Who among the following was not a member
of the drafting committee of the Constituent
Assembly?
(a) B. N. Rau
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
(d) K. M. Munshi
Q 10.A
• On 29th August 1947, the Constituent Assembly through a resolution appointed a Drafting Committee to
scrutinise the draft of the text of the Constitution of India prepared by Constitutional Adviser and to
submit to the Assembly for consideration the text of the draft constitution as revised by the committee.
• The Drafting Committee had seven members:
o Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar;
o N. Gopalaswami;
o B.R. Ambedkar;
o K.M Munshi;
o Mohammad Saadulla;
o B.L. Mitter and
o D.P. Khaitan.
• At its first meeting on 30th August 1947, the Drafting Committee elected B.R Ambedkar as its Chairman.
• Towards the end of October 1947, the Drafting Committee began to scrutinise the Draft
Constitution prepared by the B.N Rau, the Constitutional Advisor. It made various changes and
submitted the Draft Constitution to the President of the Constituent Assembly on 21st of February 1948.
• Majority of the debates in Constituent Assembly revolved around the Draft Constitution(s) prepared by
the Drafting Committee. Out of 165 sitting of the Constituent Assembly, 114 were spent debating the
Draft Constitution(s).
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
- Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the Constituent Assembly? - It was a fully sovereign body, which
could frame any Constitution it pleased. - It was indirectly elected by the people
- It became the first parliament of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 11.D
• The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
Cabinet Mission Plan.
• The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The
Assembly was empowered to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to
India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It worked as a legislative body i.e. two separate functions were assigned to the Assembly - making of a
constitution for free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the country. Thus, the Assembly became the
first Parliament of free India (Dominion Legislature). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it
met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar. These two functions continued till
November 26, 1949, when the task of making the Constitution was over.
• Although the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India on the basis of
adult franchise, the Assembly comprised representatives of all sections of Indian society—Hindus,
Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo–Indians, Indian Christians, SCs, STs including women of all these
sections. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Consider the following statements with
reference to the Right to Freedom of
Religion (Article 25-28) provided under Part
III of the Indian Constitution: - They cover only religious beliefs but not
religious practices and rituals. - No religious instruction shall be
provided in any educational institution
administered by the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 12.D
o Right to practice: Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies, and exhibition of
beliefs and ideas.
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice, and propagate religion.
From the above, it is clear that Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs but also religious
practices (rituals). Moreover, these rights are available to all persons–citizens as well as non-
citizens. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly
maintained out of State funds.
• However, this provision shall not apply to an educational institution administered by the State but
established under any endowment or trust, requiring imparting of religious instruction in such
institution. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
13. Which of the following is essentially not a feature of a federal polity? (a) Dual citizenship (b) Independent judiciary (c) Rigid Constitution (d) Supremacy of the Constitution
Q 13.A • Dual citizenship is not an essential feature of a federal polity. In some federal countries like India, there is single citizenship. Essential features of a federal polity: Rigid constitution Supremacy of Constitution Independent judiciary
14. Consider the following pairs: Procedure Description/Purpose 1. Initiative : To settle a proposed legislation by direct votes of the electorate. 2. Recall : To seek the opinion of the electorate on an important public question through direct vote. 3. Plebiscite : To remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 14.A
• Initiative is a method by means of which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for
enactment. A referendum is a procedure whereby proposed legislation is referred to the electorate
for settlement by their direct votes. Any proposed law can, with sufficient backing, be put on the
ballot in an election. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the
expiry of his term when he fails to discharge his duties properly. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• A plebiscite is a method of obtaining the opinion of people on any issue of public importance. It is a
direct vote of the qualified electors of a state in regard to some important public question. Hence pair 3 is
not correctly matched.
15. Which of the following provisions are Fundamental Duties under Part IVA of the Indian Constitution? 1. To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions. 2. To protect and improve the rivers and wildlife. 3. To promote equal justice and welfare of the people. 4. To promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q 15.D
• The eleven Fundamental Duties enshrined in Part IVA under Article 51A of the constitution are -
• To oblige with the Indian Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions such as the National
Anthem and Flag. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• To promote the spirit of harmony and brotherhood amongst all the people of India and renounce
any practices that are derogatory to women. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including lakes, wildlif• To promote equal justice and welfare of the people comes under Article 39A and Article 38
respectively. It forms the part of the Directive Principles of State Policy enumerated in Part IV of
the constitution. Hence statement 3 is not correct.e, rivers, forests, etc. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
16. Which of the following two Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) have been given precedence over Fundamental Rights under Article 14 and Article 19? (a) Article 38 and Article 40 (b) Article 50 and Article 51 (c) Article 44 and Article 48 (d) Article 39 (b) and Article 39 (c)
Q 16.D
• Article 39 (b) provides for the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the
common good and Article 39 (c) provides for the prevention of concentration of wealth and means
of production.
o If a law is made to give effect to DPSPs in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) and in the process, the
law violates Article 14, Article 19, or Article 31, then the law should not be declared
unconstitutional and void merely on this ground.
o Any such law which contains the declaration that it is to give effect to DPSPs in Article 39(b) &
Article(c) shall not be questioned in a court of law.
• These two Directive Principles (under Article 39 (b) and Article 39 (c)) thus have been given precedence
over Fundamental Right 14 (Right to Equality) and Fundamental Right 19 (Freedom of Speech and
Expression). Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
17. With reference to the Directive Principles provided under part IV of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Promoting cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas. 2. Public assistance in case of old age, sickness, and disablement, and right to work. 3. Promoting the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society. 4. Promoting the voluntary formation of cooperative societies. Which of the directive principles given above are based on Gandhian ideology? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 17.C
To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas (Article 43).
o To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional
management of cooperative societies (Article 43B).
o To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of
the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).
• To secure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old
age, sickness, and disablement(article 41).
18. Consider the following statements regarding the applicability of fundamental rights to armed forces: 1. Parliament can restrict but cannot abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces. 2. The expression 'members of the armed forces’ not just includes soldiers but even civilian employees such as mechanics, cooks, etc. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 18.B
• Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or ‘abrogate’ the fundamental rights of the members
of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The expression members of the armed forces’ also covers such employees of the armed forces as
barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
19. Which of the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1858 is/are correct? 1. It created the new office of Secretary of State. 2. It abolished the Court of Directors and Board of Control. 3. Viceroy was made the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 19.D
• The 1858 Act is also known as the Act for the Good Government of India.
o It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control
over Indian administration. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of
Directors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed
the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was
the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first
Viceroy of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
20. Which of the following statements regarding Democracy is/are correct? 1. It is a form of government that guarantees economic development. 2. It seeks to promote and accommodate social diversity. 3. It aims to promote the dignity and freedom of its citizens. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 20.B
dictatorships have a slightly higher rate of economic growth. Economic development depends on several factors: the country’s population size, global situation. Overall, we cannot say that democracy is a guarantee of economic development. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Democracies usually develop procedures to accommodate various social divisions leading to greater chances of producing a harmonious social life. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and
freedom of the individual.
- Consider the following statements regarding Vardhanas
- The founder of the family of Harsha was Pushyabhuti.
- Pushyabhutis were the feudatories of the Guptas.
- Aihole inscription of Pulakesin II mentions the defeat of Pulakesin by Harsha.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
- Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Early Life of Harsha
The founder of the family of Harsha was Pushyabhuti.
Pushyabhutis were the feudatories of the Guptas. They called themselves Vardhanas.
The most important military campaign of Harsha was against the Western Chalukya ruler Pulakesin II.
the Aihole inscription of Pulakesin II mentions the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin, who after this
achievement assumed the title Paramesvara. Hiuen Tsang’s accounts also confirm the victory of
Pulakesin.
- Consider the following statements regarding Pushyamitra Sunga
- The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in-chief under the
Mauryas. - Pushyamitra was a staunch follower of Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
- Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Sungas
The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in-chief
under the Mauryas.
Pushyamitra was a staunch follower of Brahmanism.
Buddhist sources refer him as a persecutor of Buddhism.
- Consider the following statements regarding Satavahanas
- The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka.
- Gautamiputra Satakarni became famous for his book Gathasaptasati, also called Sattasai.
- Nasik and Nanaghad inscriptions throw much light on the reign of Gautamiputra Satakarni.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
- Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Satavahanas
The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka.
Hala became famous for his book Gathasaptasati, also called Sattasai.
o It contains 700 verses in Prakrit language. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Among the inscriptions, the Nasik and Nanaghad inscriptions throw much light on the reign of
Gautamiputra Satakarni.
- Consider the following statements regarding foreign invaders
- Menander and his dialogues with the Buddhist monk Nagasena was compiled in the Pali work, Milindapanho
(Questions of Milinda). - A Greek ambassador Heliodorus became a Vaishnavite and erected the Garuda Pillar at Besnagar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
- Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Menander was also known as Milinda and the capital of his kingdom was Sakala (Sialcot). He evinced
much interest in Buddhism and his dialogues with the Buddhist monk Nagasena was compiled in the
Pali work, Milindapanho (Questions of Milinda).
Buddhism. A Greek ambassador Heliodorus became a Vaishnavite anderected the
Garuda Pillar at Besnagar.
- Consider the following statements regarding Kushanas
- The founder of the Kushana dynasty was Kujula Kadphises.
- Kanishka was the founder of the Saka era which starts from 78 A.D.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
- Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The founder of the Kushana dynasty was Kujula Kadphises or Kadphises I.
Kanishka (78 – 120 A.D.)
Kanishka was the most important ruler of the Kushana dynasty. He was the founder of the Saka
era which starts from 78 A.D. He was not only a great conqueror but also a patron of religion and art.
- Consider the following statements regarding Cheras
- The Cheras ruled over parts of modern Tamil Nadu only.
- Their important seaports were Tondi and Musiri.
- The Pugalur inscription of the first century A.D refers to three generations of Chera rulers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
- Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Cheras
The Cheras ruled over parts of modern Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Their capital was Vanji and their important seaports were Tondi and Musiri.
The Pugalur inscription of the first century A.D refers to three generations of Chera rulers.
- Consider the following statements regarding Cholas
- Their capital was first located at Uraiyur and then shifted to Puhar.
- Karikala was a famous king of the Sangam Cholas.
- Padirruppattu portrays Karikala’s early life and his military conquests.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
- Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Cholas
The Chola kingdom of the Sangam period extended from modern Tiruchi district to southern Andhra
Pradesh. Their capital was first located at Uraiyur and then shifted to Puhar. Karikala was a
famous king of the Sangam Cholas.
Pattinappalai portrays his early life and his military conquests. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Which of the following are sources of Gupta period?
- Devichandraguptam 2. Puranas
- Mudhrakshasam 4. Meherauli Iron Pillar Inscription
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
- Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The Puranas throw light on the royal genealogy of the Gupta kings.
Contemporary literary works like the Devichandraguptam and the Mudhrakshasam written by
Visakadatta provide information regarding the rise of the Guptas.
Apart from these literary sources, there are inscriptions like the Meherauli Iron Pillar Inscription
and the Allahabad Pillar inscription. The first refers to the achievements of Chandragupta I.
- Consider the following statements regarding Fahien’s Visit
- Fahien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
- According to him, Buddhism was in a degrading condition in the northwestern India.
- He came to India by the sea route and returned by the land route.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
- Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Fahien’s Visit
The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
Out of his nine years stay in India, he spent six years in the Gupta empire.
He came to India by the land route through Khotan, Kashgar, Gandhara and Punjab. He visited
Peshawar, Mathura, Kanauj, Sravasti, Kapilavastu, Kusinagara, Pataliputra, Kasi and Bodh Gaya
among other places. He returned by the sea route, visiting on the way Ceylon and Java. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
empire. According to him, Buddhism was in a flourishing condition in the northwestern India but
in the Gangetic valley it was in a state of neglect. He refers to the Gangetic valley as the ‘land of
Brahmanism’. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Consider the following statements regarding Social Life under Guptas
- During the Gupta period, the caste system became rigid.
- The practice of Swyamvara was given up.
- Women were permitted to studying the religious texts like the Puranas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
- Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Social Life
But during the Gupta period, the caste
system became rigid.
The position of women had also become miserable during the Gupta period.
o They were prohibited from studying the religious texts like the Puranas. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
o The practice of Swyamvara was given up and the Manusmriti suggested the early
marriage for girls.
21. Consider the following pairs regarding the committees of the Constituent Assembly and their chairman: Committee Chairman 1. Union Constitution Committee \: B. R. Ambedkar 2. Steering Committee : Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Union Powers Committee \: Rajendra Prasad Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) None
Q 21.D
• Major Committees of Constituent Assembly:
o Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
o Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
o Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched
22. Which of the following can be considered as elements of the basic structure of the Constitution of India? 1. Freedom and dignity of the individual 2. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution 3. Secular character of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 22.D
• Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic
structure’ (or ‘basic features’) of the Constitution. However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or
clarify what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
o Secular character of the Constitution
o Freedom and dignity of the individual
o Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution, etc
23. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India: 1. Article 76 of the Indian constitution provides for the office of the Attorney General of India. 2. He is subordinate to and assists the Solicitor General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 23.A
• Government is one of the major litigants in courts and to provide them legal assistance there are
various Law officers which include the Attorney General, Solicitor General, and the Additional
Solicitor general.
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 76 of the constitution provides for the office of Attorney General of
India and he is the highest law officer in the country.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Solicitor General of India is subordinate to the Attorney General for
India. They are the second law officer of the country, assists the Attorney General, and is assisted
by Additional Solicitors General for India.
24. Consider the following statements regarding the Surface Enhanced Raman Spectroscopy (SERS): 1. It is a technique used for molecular detection relying on the enhanced Raman scattering of molecules. 2. The technique can be used in the rapid diagnosis of Dengue. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 24.C
• SERS is a technique for molecular detection and characterization that relies on the enhanced
Raman scattering of molecules that are adsorbed on, or near, SERS-active surfaces, such as
nanostructured gold or silver.
• Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi have developed a handheld Surface Enhanced
Raman Spectroscopy (SERS)-based platform for early diagnosis of dengue and also gives dengue test
results within one hour (rapid diagnosis). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
25. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): 1. It seeks to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities. 2. It specifies the inclusion or exclusion of castes in the list of Scheduled Castes. 3. It presents to the President an annual report on the working on safeguards for Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 25.C
• Statement 1 is correct: It provides safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and
Anglo Indian communities.It aims to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and
cultural interests provided in the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The President specifies what castes in each state and union territory are
to be treated as the SCs.
• Statement 3 is correct: It presents to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem
fit, reports upon safeguards of SCs and Anglo Indians.
26. The ‘86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002’ added articles to which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? 1. Fundamental Duties 2. Fundamental Rights 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 26.D
• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added the eleventh Fundamental duty to Part IV-A
of the constitution under article 51-A. It says “To provide opportunities for education to his child or
ward between the age of six and fourteen years”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
‘Right to Education as a fundamental right
to Part III of the constitution under Article 21A. It says “The State shall provide free and
compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State
may, by law, determine.” Hence statement 2 is correct.
article 45 to the constitution under Directive Principles of State Policy. It says
“The state shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they
complete the age of six years.”. Hence statement 3 is correct.
27. Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW): 1. It is the implementing body for the Chemical Weapons Convention, 1997. 2. It is authorized to perform inspections in signatory states. 3. India is not a member of OPCW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 27.A
The OPCW is the implementing body of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), which entered into force in
1997. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The OPCW is authorized to perform inspections to verify that signatory states are complying with
the convention.
• India is a member of the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons. Recently, India’s
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has been chosen as the external auditor by a prestigious
intergovernmental organisation working for the elimination of chemical weapons. Hence, statement
3 is not correct.
- Consider the following statements regarding
the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): - It was established in 1964 as a statutory
body. - It was established on the
recommendations of the Second
Administrative Reforms Commission. - Its jurisdiction extends to members of
the All India Services serving in
connection with the affairs of the Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 28.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: It was established in 1964 by the executive resolution of the central
government. Thus, originally it was neither a constitutional body and nor a statutory body.
• Statement 2 is not correct: It was established on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee
on Prevention of Corruption.
• Statement 3 is correct: Its Jurisdiction extends to members of All India Services serving in connection
with the affairs of the Union, Group A officers of the Central government, Officers of the rank of Scale V
and above in Public Sector Banks, etc.
29. The 'State of World Population Report 2021' was released by which of the following? (a) United Nations Population Fund (b) UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) (c) World Bank (d) United Nations Development Programme
Q 29.A
• Recent context: The United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA) flagship State of World Population
Report 2021 titled ‘My Body is My Own’ was launched. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• United Nations Population Fund is a subsidiary organ of the UN General Assembly.
30. Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Constitution under Article 368: 1. The bill for the amendment of the Constitution cannot be introduced by a private member. 2. The bill must be passed in each House by a simple majority. 3. There is no provision for holding a joint sitting for the purpose of the amendment bill. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
Q 30.B
o An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in
either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
o The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require
prior permission from the President. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total
membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and
voting. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there
is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and
passage of the bill. Hence statement 3 is correct.
