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Medical Ethics > Terminology > Flashcards

Terminology Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Bioethics

A

The study of ethical implication in biological medicine

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2
Q

Code of Ethics

A

Set of standards created to govern their members

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3
Q

Common Sense

A

Practical judgment

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4
Q

Compassion

A

Empathy, Understanding to the patient’s POV

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5
Q

Courtesy

A

Good manners

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6
Q

Qualities of a Successful Health Care Practitioner

A 
Courtesy
Compassion
Common Sense
People Skills
Technical Skills
Critical Thinking
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7
Q

Ethics

A

Set of moral values

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8
Q

Ethics Committee

A

Committee convened to assess and advise over ethical dilemmas; they do not make decisions.

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9
Q

Etiquette

A

Good manners; particularly used in patient care

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10
Q

Fraud

A

Misrepresentation

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11
Q

Hippocratic Oath

A

Pledge made by physicians

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12
Q

Law

A

Rules meant to protect the public; rules of conduct

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13
Q

Liable

A

Responsible

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14
Q

Moral Values

A

Values of right and wrong learned from family, church, environment, etc.

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15
Q

Plaintiff

A

Person bringing charges in a lawsuit

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16
Q

Precedent

A

Previous ruling made by a court that is treated as law without legislation being enacted.

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17
Q

Protocol

A

Rules of etiquette created by employer

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18
Q

Summary Judgment

A

Motion granted by court that asserts there is no basis for trial

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19
Q

Autonomy

A

Patient’s ability to make decisions for themselves

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20
Q

Beneficence

A

Promote well-being

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21
Q

Non-Maleficence

A

To “do no harm”

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22
Q

Veracity

A

Truth telling

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23
Q

Justice

A

What is due an individual

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24
Q

Confidentiality

A

Keeping patient information private

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25
Q

Role Fidelity

A

Operating only within the limitations of your capabilities

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26
Q

Categorical Imperative

A

Emmanuel Kant. The right action is one based on a determined principle, regardless of the outcome.

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27
Q

Deontological (Duty) Theory

A

Morality is based on the intent of the act, not the end result

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28
Q

Teleological (Consequence-Oriented) Theory

A

Morality is based on the outcome of the decision

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29
Q

Virtue Ethics Theory

A

The decision made is moral because the person is moral/virtuous

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30
Q

Needs-Based Motivation

A

Human behavior is based on specific needs.
Maslow/Piaget/Kohlberg
Maslow: Needs must be met in a specific order (pyramid)
Piaget: 4 stages of moral development
Kohlberg: Expanded on Piaget’s theory by adding that stages may take more time; 6 Stages in 3 Levels

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31
Q

Principle of Utility

A

(Utilitarianism) Says the rule used must benefit the majority when applied to a generalized to a wide variety of situations

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32
Q

Accreditation

A

Approval for conforming to a standard

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33
Q

Certification

A

Voluntary credentialing process where applicants meet certain requirements

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34
Q

Registration

A

Adding your name to a list

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35
Q

Licensure

A

Involuntary credentialing process where applicants have received mandatory schooling and passed necessary exams

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36
Q

Associate Practice

A

Two or more physicians share expenses but operate independently

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37
Q

Corporation

A

Legally recognized single entity. Minimized risk and cost-sharing for expenses such as liability insurance

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38
Q

Group Practice

A

Three or more physicians that split all costs. Can operate as partnership or corporation.

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39
Q

Telemedicine

A

The interaction of doctors and patients through technology

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40
Q

Cybermedicine

A

Direct contact between patients and doctors over the internet

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41
Q

E-Health

A

Term for the internet being a source of consumer information about health and medicine

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42
Q

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA)

A

2010 Federal law enacted to expand health insurance coverage and regulate the health insurance agency

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43
Q

Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act (HCERA)

A

2010 Federal law that added to regulations imposed on the insurance industry by PPACA

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44
Q

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996

A

Federal statute that helps workers keep continuous health coverage when changing jobs, protects confidential medical information from unauthorized disclosure or use, and helps to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the health care industry.
Led to the creation of the Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank (HIPDB)

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45
Q

Health Care Quality Improvement Act (HCQIA) of 1986

A

Federal statute passed to improve the quality of medical care nationwide. Established the National Practitioner Data Bank.

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46
Q

Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank (HIPDB)

A

Established by HIPAA. National health care fraud and abuse data collection program. Handles reporting and disclosure of certain adverse actions taken against health care providers, suppliers, or practioners.

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47
Q

National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)

A

Established by the HCQIA. Contains any adverse information about health care practitioners such as medical malpractice payments, licensure actions, clinical privilege actions, and professional society membership actions

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48
Q

Federal False Claims Act

A

Law that allows individuals to bring civil actions on behalf of the US government for false claims made to the government. “Whistle blower”

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49
Q

Reciprocity

A

One state accepts a professional license from another state by prior agreement without reexamination

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50
Q

Endorsement

A

Professional license may be awarded based on an individual’s credentials and whether those credentials meet licensing requirements in the new state

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51
Q

Medical Practice Acts

A

State laws written to govern the practice of medicine

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52
Q

Medical Boards

A

Bodies (group) established for the purpose of protecting the health, safety, and welfare of health care consumers through the proper licensing and regulation of physicians and other health care practitioners

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53
Q

Managed Care

A

The delivery of health care (and all that entails) to subscribers for a prepaid fee.

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54
Q

Indemnity

A

Form of health insurance that covers the insured against the potential loss of money from medical expenses resulting from an illness or accident

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55
Q

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

A

A health plan that combines coverage of health care costs and the delivery of health care for a prepaid premium. All health services are delivered and paid for through one organization.

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56
Q

Individual Practice Association (IPA)

A

A type of HMO that contracts with groups of private practice physicians who receive a per-member payment from participating HMOs

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57
Q

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

A

A network of various health care providers who contract with an insurance carrier to provide medical care at a discount rate to patients who are part of the insurer’s plan.

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58
Q

Gatekeeper Physician

A

The primary care physician who directs the medical care of managed care health plan members

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59
Q

Primary Care Physician (PCP)

A

The physician responsible for directing all of a patient’s medical care and determining whether the patient should be referred for specialty care

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60
Q

Point-of-Service Plan (POS)

A

Plan that allows members to go out of network, but pays the highest benefits for care given by PCP or referral of PCP

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61
Q

Open Access Plan

A

Feature of managed care where subscribers can see any in-network provider without referral

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62
Q

Executive Order

A

Rule or regulation issued by the president that becomes law without the prior approval of Congress

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63
Q

Checks and Balances

A

Keeps any one branch of government from assuming too much power over the other branches

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64
Q

Constitutional Law

A

Law that derives from federal and state constitutions

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65
Q

Case Law

A

Law established through common law and legal precedent

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66
Q

Common Law

A

Laws derived from English laws that were not written down; were based on the customs and traditions of the people

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67
Q

Statutory Law

A

Law passed by Congress or state legislatures

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68
Q

Administrative Law

A

Those statutes enacted to define specific powers and procedures when agencies are created

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69
Q

Substantive Law

A

Statutory or written law that defines and regulates legal rights and obligations; defines legal relationships between parties

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70
Q

Procedural Law

A

Law that defines the rules used to enforce substantive law

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71
Q

Criminal Law

A

Law that involves crimes against the state

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72
Q

Felony

A

Offense punishable by death or by imprisonment in a state or federal prison for more than one year

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73
Q

Misdemeanor

A

A crime punishable by fine or by imprisonment in a facility other than a prison for less than one year

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74
Q

Civil Law

A

Law that involves wrongful acts against persons

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75
Q

Tort

A

A civil wrong committed against a person or property; excluding breach of contract

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76
Q

Tortfeasor

A

Person guilty of committing a tort

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77
Q

Negligence

A

Unintentional tort alleged when one performed or failed to perform an act that a reasonable person would or would not have done in similar circumstances

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78
Q

Jurisdiction

A

The power of a court to hear and decide a case before it

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79
Q

Plaintiff

A

The person bringing charges in a civil lawsuit

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80
Q

Prosecution

A

The government as a plaintiff in a criminal case

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81
Q

Defendant

A

Person/party against whom charges are brought in a criminal or civil lawsuit

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82
Q

Contract

A

Voluntary agreement between two parties in which specific promises are made for a consideration

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83
Q

Void

A

Without legal force or effect

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84
Q

Breach of contract

A

Failure of either party to comply with the terms of a legally valid contract

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85
Q

Mentally Incompetent

A

Unable to fully understand all the terms and conditions of a transaction, and therefore unable to enter into a legal contract

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86
Q

Voidable

A

Able to be set aside or to be re-validated at a later date

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87
Q

Expressed Contract

A

A written/oral agreement in which all terms are explicitly stated

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88
Q

Implied Contract

A

An unwritten/unspoken agreement whose terms result from the actions of the parties involved

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89
Q

Statute of Frauds

A

State legislation governing written contracts

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90
Q

Third-Party Payer Contract

A

A written agreement signed by a party other than the patient who promises to pay the patient’s bill

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91
Q

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA)

A

Federal Statute prohibiting certain unfair and illegal practices by debt collectors and creditors

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92
Q

Law of Agency

A

Employers are liable for the actions of their employees when employees perform said actions as part of their work under the supervision of the employer

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93
Q

Agent

A

One who acts for or represents another (employee)

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94
Q

Respondeat Superior

A

Employer is legally liable for the acts of his or her employees, if such acts were performed within the scope of the employees’ duties

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95
Q

Liable

A

Legally responsible or obligated

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96
Q

Standard of Care

A

Level of performance expected of a health care practitioner in carrying out his/her professional duties

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97
Q

Duty of Care

A

Legal obligation of health care worker to patients and nonpatients

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98
Q

Reasonable Person Standard

A

That standard of behavior that judges a person’s actions in a situation according to what a reasonable person would or would not do under similar circumstances

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99
Q

Confidentiality

A

The act of holding information in confidence, not to be released to unauthorized individuals

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100
Q

Privileged Communication

A

Information held confidential within a protected relationship

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101
Q

Malfeasance

A

The performance of a totally wrongful and unlawful act

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102
Q

Misfeasance

A

The performance of a lawful act in an illegal or improper manner

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103
Q

Nonfeasance

A

The failure to act when one should

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104
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur

A

“The thing speaks for itself”, also known as the doctrine of common knowledge. A situation that is so obviously negligent that no expert witnesses need be called.

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105
Q

Damages

A

Monetary awards sought by plaintiffs in lawsuits

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106
Q

Wrongful Death Statutes

A

State statutes that allow a person’s beneficiaries to collect for loss to the estate of the deceased for future earnings when a death is judged to have been due to negligence

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107
Q

Summons

A

A written notification issued by the clerk of the court and delivered with a copy of the complaint to the defendant in a lawsuit, directing him or her to respond to the charges brought in a court of law

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108
Q

Subpoena

A

A legal document requiring the recipient to appear as a witness in court or to give a deposition

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109
Q

Deposition

A

Sworn testimony given and recorded outside the courtroom during the pretrial phase of a case

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110
Q

Interrogatory

A

A written set of questions requiring answers from a plaintiff or defendant under oath

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111
Q

Subpoena Duces Tecum

A

A legal document requiring the recipient to bring certain written records to court to be used as evidence in a lawsuit

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112
Q

Testimony

A

Statements sworn to under oath by witnesses testifying in court and giving depositions

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113
Q

Alternative Dispute Resolution

A

Settlement of civil disputes between parties using neutral mediators or arbitrators without going to court

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114
Q

Denial

A

A defense that claims innocence of the charges or that one or more of the four Ds of negligence are lacking

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115
Q

Affirmative Defenses

A

Defenses by defendants in medical professional liability suits that allow them to present factual evidence that the patient’s condition was caused by some factor other than the defendant’s negligence

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116
Q

Contributory Negligence

A

An affirmative defense that alleges that the plaintiff, through a lack of care, caused or contributed to his or her own injury

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117
Q

Comparative Negligence

A

An affirmative defense claimed by the defendant, alleging that the plaintiff contributed to the injury by a certain degree

118
Q

Assumption of Risk

A

A legal defense that holds that the defendant is not guilty of a negligent act because the plaintiff knew of and accepted beforehand any risks involved

119
Q

Emergency

A

A type of affirmative defense in which the person who comes to the aid of a victim in an emergency is not held liable under certain circumstances

120
Q

Technical Defenses

A

Defense that claims the statute of limitations has run out, there is insufficient evidence to support the plaintiff’s claim of negligence, or the assertion that the plaintiff has no standing to sue

121
Q

Release of Tortfeasor

A

The defense that the party who caused the accident (the tortfeasor) is liable for both the victim’s injury and for any medical negligence by the physician who treats the injured victim

122
Q

Res Judicata

A

“The thing has been decided”. Legal principle that a claim cannot be retried between the same parties if it has already been legally resolved.

123
Q

Statute of Limitations

A

That period of time established by state law during which a lawsuit may be filed

124
Q

Risk Management

A

The taking of steps to minimize danger, hazard, and liability

125
Q

Quality Improvement (QI) or Quality Assurance

A

A program of measures taken by health care providers and practitioners to uphold the quality of patient care

126
Q

Credentialing

A

The process of verifying a health care provider’s credentials

127
Q

Liability Insurance

A

Contract coverage for potential damages incurred as a result of a negligent act

128
Q

Claims-Made Insurance

A

A type of liability insurance that covers the insured only for those claims made (not for any injury that has occurred) while the policy is in force

129
Q

Occurrence Insurance

A

A type of liability insurance that covers the insured for any claims arising from an incident that occurred, or is alleged to have occurred, during the time the policy is in force, regardless of when the claim is made

130
Q

Tail Coverage

A

An insurance coverage option available for health care practitioners: When a claims-made policy is discontinued, it extends coverage for malpractice claims alleged to have occurred during those date that claims-made coverage was in effect.

131
Q

Prior Acts Insurance Coverage

A

A supplement to a claims-made insurance policy that can be purchased from a new carrier when health care practitioners change carriers

132
Q

Self-Insurance Coverage

A

An insurance coverage option whereby insured subscribers contribute to a trust fund to be used in paying potential damage awards

133
Q

Damage Awards

  • general compensatory
  • punitive
  • special compensatory
  • consequential
A
  • losses due to violation of patients rights
  • punish the offender
  • losses not directly cause by the wrong
  • losses caused indirectly by a product defect
134
Q

Medical Record

A

A collection of data recorded when a patient seeks medical treatment

135
Q

Fiduciary Duty

A

A physician’s obligation to his or her patient, based on trust and confidence

136
Q

Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse, Patient Records

A

A federal statute that protects patients with histories of substance abuse regarding the release of information about treatment

137
Q

Consent

A

Permission from a person, either expressed or implied, for something to be done by another

138
Q

Doctrine of Informed Consent

A

The legal basis for informed consent, usually outlined in a state’s medical practice acts

139
Q

Good Samaritan Acts

A

State laws protecting physicians and sometimes other health care practitioners and laypersons from charges of negligence or abandonment if they stop to help the victim of an accident or other emergency

140
Q

Health Information Technology (HIT)

A

The application of information processing, involving both computer hardware and software, that deals with the storage, retrieval, sharing, and use of health care information, data, and knowledge for communication and decision making

141
Q

Electronic Health Record (EHR)

A

Contains the same information as any medical record, but in electronic form

142
Q

Privacy

A

Freedom from unauthorized intrusion

143
Q

Covered Entities

A

Health care providers and clearinghouses that transmit HIPAA transactions electronically and must comply with HIPAA standards and rules

144
Q

Covered Transactions

A

Electronic exchanges of information between two covered-entity business partners using HIPAA-mandated transaction standards

145
Q

Designated Record Set

A

Records maintained by or for a HIPAA-covered entity

146
Q

Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP)

A

A written document detailing a health care provider’s privacy practices

147
Q

Protected Health Information (PHI)

A

Information that contains one or more patient identifiers

148
Q

De-identify

A

To remove all information that identifies patients from health care transactions

149
Q

State Preemption

A

If a state’s privacy laws are stricter than HIPAA privacy standers, the state laws take precedence.

150
Q

Treatment, Plan, and Health Care Operations (TPO)

A

(A HIPAA term for qualified providers) Disclosure of PHI to obtain reimbursement, and activities and transactions among entities. TREATMENT means that a health care provider can provide care; PAYMENT means that a provider can disclose PHI to be reimbursed; HEALTH CARE OPERATIONS refers to HIPAA-approved activities and transactions

151
Q

Standard (HIPAA)

A

A general requirement under HIPAA

152
Q

Rule (HIPAA)

A

A document that includes the HIPAA standards or requirements

153
Q

Transaction

A

Transmission of information between two parties for financial or administrative activities

154
Q

Code Set

A

Under HIPAA, terms that provide for uniformity and simplification of health care billing and record keeping

155
Q

Electronic Transmission

A

The sending of information from one network-connected computer to another

156
Q

Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)

A

The use of uniform electronic network protocols to transfer business information between organizations via computer networks

157
Q

Permission (HIPAA)

A

A reason under HIPAA for disclosing patient information

158
Q

Limited Data Set

A

Protected health information from which certain patient identifiers have been removed

159
Q

Security

A

Policies and procedures that protect PHI from unauthorized access

160
Q

Firewalls

A

Hardware, Software, or both designed to prevent unauthorized persons from accessing electronic information

161
Q

Encryption

A

The scrambling or encoding of information before sending it electronically

162
Q

Verification

A

The requirement under HIPAA to verify any request as legitimate before protected health information is released

163
Q

Minimum Necessary

A

Term referring to the limited amount of patient infomration that may be disclosed, depending on circumstances

164
Q

Vital Statistics

A

Numbers collected for the population of live births, deaths, fetal deaths, marriages, divorces, induced terminations of pregnancy, and any change in civil status that occurs during an individual’s lifetime

165
Q

Autopsy

A

A postmortem examination to determine the cause of death or to obtain physiological evidence, as in the case of a suspicious death

166
Q

Coroner

A

A public official who investigates and holds inquests over those who die from unknown or violent causes; he or she may not be a physician depending on state law

167
Q

Medical Examiner

A

A physician who investigates suspicious or unexplained deaths

168
Q

Forensics

A

A division of medicine that incorporates law and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, and accidents

169
Q

Federalism

A

The sharing of power among national, state, and local governments

170
Q

Administer

A

To instill a drug into the body of a patient

171
Q

National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act

A

A federal law passed in 1986 that created a no-fault compensation program for citizens injured or killed by vaccines, as an alternative to suing vaccine manufacturers or providers

172
Q

National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP)

A

A no-fault federal system of compensation for individuals or families of individuals injured by childhood vaccination

173
Q

Smallpox Emergency Personnel Protection Act (SEPPA)

A

A no-fault program to provide benefits and/or compensation to certain individuals, including health care workers and emergency responders, who are injured as the result of the administration of smallpox countermeasures, including smallpox vaccine

174
Q

Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act

A

A federal law passed in 1974 requiring physicians to report cases of child abuse

175
Q

Amendments to the Older Americans Act

A

A 1987 federal act that defines elder abuse, neglect, and exploitation but does not deal with enforcement

176
Q

Unborn Victims of Violence Act

A

Also called Laci and Conner’s Act, a 2004 federal law that provides for the prosecution of anyone who causes injury to or the death of a fetus in utero

177
Q

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

A

A federal agency within the Department of Health and Human Services that oversees drug quality and standardization and must approve drugs before they are released for public use

178
Q

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

A

A branch of the US Department of Justice that regulates the sale and use of drugs

179
Q

Controlled Substances Act

A

The federal law giving authority to the Drug Enforcement Administration to regulate the sale and use of drugs

180
Q

Prescribe

A

To issue a medical prescription for a patient

181
Q

Dispense

A

To deliver controlled substances in some type of bottle, box or other container to a patient

182
Q

Employment-at-will

A

A concept of employment whereby either the employer or the employee can end the employment at any time, for any reason

183
Q

Just cause

A

An employer’s legal reason for firing an employee

184
Q

Wrongful discharge

A

A concept established by precedent that says an employer risks litigation if he or she does not have just cause for firing an employee

185
Q

Public Policy

A

The common law concept of wrongful discharge when an employee has acted for the “common good”

186
Q

Discrimination

A

Prejudiced or prejudicial outlook, action, or treatment

187
Q

Affirmative Action

A

Programs that use goals and quotas to provide preferential treatment for minority persons determined to have been underutilized in the past

188
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

Established by the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, the organization that is charged with writing and enforcing compulsory standards for health and safety in the workplace

189
Q

Right-to-know Laws

A

State laws that allow employees access to information about toxic or hazardous substances, employer duties, employee rights, and other workplace health and safety issues

190
Q

Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)

A

An OSHA standard intended to increase health care practitioners’ awareness of risks, improve work practices and appropriate use of personal protective equipment, and reduce injuries and illnesses in the workplace

191
Q

General Duty Clause

A

A section of the HCS stating that any equipment that may pose a health risk must be specified as a hazard

192
Q

Chemical Hygiene Plan

A

The Standard for Occupational Exposures to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories, which clarifies the handling of hazardous chemicals in medical laboratories

193
Q

Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

A

An OSHA regulation designed to protect health care workers from the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens

194
Q

Medical Waste Tracking Act

A

The federal law that authorizes OSHA to inspect hazardous medical wastes and to cite offices for unsafe or unhealthy practices regarding these wastes

195
Q

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)

A

Also called Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments. Federal statute passed in 1988 that established minimum quality standards for all laboratory testing

196
Q

Worker’s Compensation

A

A form of insurance established by federal and state statutes that provides reimbursement for workers who are injured on the job

197
Q

Surety Bond

A

A type of insurance that allows employers, if covered, to collect up to the specified amount of the bond if an employee embezzles or otherwise absconds with business funds

198
Q

Genetics

A

The science that accounts for natural differences and resemblances among organisms related by descent

199
Q

Heredity

A

The process by which organisms pass genetic traits on to their offspring

200
Q

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

A

The combination of proteins, called nucleotides, that is arranged to make up an organism’s chromosomes

201
Q

Chromosome

A

A microscopic structure found within the nucleus of all living cells that carries genes responsible for the organism’s characteristics

202
Q

Gene

A

A tiny segment of DNA found on a chromosome within a cell’s nucleus. Each gene holds the formula for making a specific enzyme or protein

203
Q

Genome

A

All the DNA in an organism, including its genes

204
Q

Human Genome Project

A

A scientific project funded by the US government, begun in 1990 and successfully completed in 2000, for the purpose of mapping all of a human’s genes

205
Q

Amniocentesis

A

A test whereby the physician withdraws a sample of amniotic fluid (the fluid surrounding the developing fetus inside the mother’s womb) from the uterus of a pregnant woman. The fluid is then tested for genetic or other conditions that may lead to abnormal development of the fetus

206
Q

Mutation

A

A permanent change in DNA

207
Q

Genetic counselor

A

An expert in human genetics who is qualified to counsel individuals who may have inherited genes for certain diseases or conditions

208
Q

Genetic Discrimination

A

Differential treatment of individuals based on their actual or presumed genetic differences

209
Q

Genetic Engineering

A

Manipulation of DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms through synthesis, alteration, or repair to ensure that certain harmful traits will be eliminated in offspring and that desirable traits will appear and be passed on

210
Q

Clone

A

An organism produced asexually, usually from a single cell of the parent

211
Q

Cloning

A

The process by which organisms are created asexually, usually from a single cell of the parent organism

212
Q

Xenotransplantation

A

Transplantation of animal tissues and organs into humans

213
Q

Stem Cells

A

Cells that have the potential to become any type of body cell

214
Q

Multipotent Stem Cells

A

Stem cells that can become a limited number of types of tissues and cells in the body

215
Q

Pluripotent Stem Cells

A

Stem cells that can become almost all types of tissues and cells in the body

216
Q

Gene Therapy

A

Treating harmful genetic diseases or traits by eliminating or modifying the harmful gene

217
Q

Infertility

A

The failure to conceive for a period of 12 months or longer due to a deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of any reproductive part, organ, or system

218
Q

In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)

A

Fertilization that takes place outside a woman’s body, literally “in glass”, as in a test tube

219
Q

Artificial Insemination

A

The mechanical injection of viable semen into the vagina

220
Q

Homologous Artificial Insemination

A

The process in which a husband’s sperm is mechanically injected into his wife’s vagina to fertilize her eggs

221
Q

Surrogate Mother

A

A woman who becomes pregnant, usually by artificial insemination or surgical implantation of a fertilized egg, and bears a child for another woman

222
Q

Heterologous Artificial Insemination

A

The process in which donor sperm is mechanically injected into a woman’s vagina to fertilize her eggs

223
Q

Parens Patriae

A

A legal doctrine that gives the state the authority to act in a child’s best interest

224
Q

Safe Haven Laws

A

State laws that allow mothers to abandon newborns to designated safe facilities without penalty

225
Q

Mature Minors

A

Individuals in their mid-to late teens who, for health care purposes, are considered mature enough to comprehend a physician’s recommendations and give informed consent

226
Q

Emancipated Minors

A

Individuals in their mid-to late teens who legally live outside parents’ or guardians’ control

227
Q

Genetics

A

The science that accounts for natural differences and resemblances among organisms related by descent.

228
Q

Heredity

A

The process by which organisms pass genetic traits on to their offspring.

229
Q

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

A

The combination of proteins, called nucleotides, that is arranged to make up an organism’s chromosomes.

230
Q

Chromosome

A

A microscopic structure found within the nucleus of all living cells that carries genes responsible for the organism’s characteristics.

231
Q

Gene

A

A tiny segment of DNA found on a chromosome within a cell’s nucleus. Each gene holds the formula for making a specific enzyme or protein.

232
Q

Genome

A

All the DNA in an organism, including its genes

233
Q

Human Genome Project

A

A scientific project funded by the U.S. government, begun in 1990 and successfully completed in 2000, for the purpose of mapping all of a human’s genes.

234
Q

Amniocentesis

A

A test whereby the physician withdraws a sample of amniotic fluid (the fluid surrounding the developing fetus inside the mother’s womb) from the uterus of a pregnant woman. The fluid is then tested for genetic or other conditions that may lead to abnormal development of the fetus.

235
Q

Mutation

A

A permanent change in DNA.

236
Q

Genetic Counselor

A

An expert in human genetics who is qualified to counsel individuals who may have inherited genes for certain diseases or conditions.

237
Q

Genetic Discrimination

A

Differential treatment of individuals based on their actual or presumed genetic differences.

238
Q

Genetic Engineering

A

Manipulation of DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms through synthesis, alteration, or repair to ensure that certain harmful traits will be eliminated in offspring and that desirable traits will appear and be passed on.

239
Q

Clone

A

An organism produced asexually, usually from a single cell of the parent.

240
Q

Cloning

A

The process by which organisms are created asexually, usually from a single cell of the parent organism.

241
Q

Xenotransplantation

A

Transplantation of animal tissues and organs into humans.

242
Q

Stem Cells

A

Cells that have the potential to become any type of body cell.

243
Q

Multipotent Stem Cells

A

Stem cells that can become a limited number of types of tissues and cells in the body.

244
Q

Pluripotent Stem Cells

A

Stem cells that can become almost all types of tissues and cells in the body.

245
Q

Gene Therapy

A

Treating harmful genetic diseases or traits by eliminating or modifying the harmful gene.

246
Q

Infertility

A

The failure to conceive for a period of 12 months or longer due to a deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of any reproductive part, organ, or system.

247
Q

In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)

A

Fertilization that takes place outside a woman’s body, literally “in glass,” as in a test tube.

248
Q

Artificial Insemination

A

The mechanical injection of viable semen into the vagina.

249
Q

Homologous Artificial Insemination

A

The process in which a husband’s sperm is mechanically injected into his wife’s vagina to fertilize her eggs.

250
Q

Surrogate Mother

A

A woman who becomes pregnant, usually by artificial insemination or surgical implantation of a fertilized egg, and bears a child for another woman.

251
Q

Heterologous Artificial Insemination

A

The process in which donor sperm is mechanically injected into a woman’s vagina to fertilize her eggs.

252
Q

Parens Patraie

A

A legal doctrine that gives the state the authority to act in a child’s best interest.

253
Q

Safe Haven Laws

A

State laws that allow mothers to abandon newborns to designated safe facilities without penalty.

254
Q

Mature Minors

A

Individuals in their mid- to late teens who, for health care purposes, are considered mature enough to comprehend a physician’s recommendations and give informed consent.

255
Q

Emancipated Minors

A

Individuals in their mid- to late teens who legally live outside parents’ or guardians’ control.

256
Q

Uniform Determination of Death Act

A

A proposal that established uniform guidelines for determining when death has occurred.

257
Q

Brain Death

A

Final cessation of bodily activity, used to determine when death actually occurs; circulatory and respiratory functions have irreversibly ceased, and the entire brain (including the brain stem) has irreversibly ceased to function.

258
Q

Coma

A

A condition of deep stupor from which the patient cannot be roused by external stimuli.

259
Q

Persistent Vegetative State (PVS)

A

Severe mental impairment characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to the cerebral cortex.

260
Q

Palliative Care

A

Treatment of a terminally ill patient’s symptoms to make dying more comfortable; also called comfort care.

261
Q

Curative Care

A

Treatment directed toward curing a patient’s disease.

262
Q

Hospics

A

A facility or program (often carried out in a patient’s home) in which teams of health care practitioners and volunteers provide a continuing environment that focuses on the physical, emotional, and psychological needs of the dying patient.

263
Q

Terminally Ill

A

Referring to patients who are expected to die within six months.

264
Q

Thanatology

A

The study of death and of the psychological methods of coping with it.

265
Q

Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act

A

A 1989 recommendation of the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws that all states construct laws to address advance directives.

266
Q

Active Euthanasia

A

A conscious medical act that results in the death of a dying person.

267
Q

Passive Euthanasia

A

The act of allowing a dying patient to die naturally, without medical interference.

268
Q

Voluntary Euthanasia

A

The act of ending a dying patient’s life by medical means with his or her permission.

269
Q

Involuntary Euthanasia

A

The act of ending a terminal patient’s life by medical means without his or her permission.

270
Q

Patient Self-Determination Act

A

A federal law passed in 1990 that requires hospitals and other health care providers to provide written information to patients regarding their rights under state law to make medical decisions and execute advance directives.

271
Q

Living Will

A

An advance directive that specifies an individual’s end-of-life wishes.

272
Q

Durable Power of Attorney

A

An advance directive that confers upon a designee the authority to make a variety of legal decisions on behalf of the grantor, usually including health care decisions.

273
Q

Health Care Proxy

A

A durable power of attorney issued for purposes of health care decisions only.

274
Q

Do-Not-Resuscitate Order (DNR)

A

Orders written at the request of patients or their authorized representatives that cardiopulmonary resuscitation not be used to sustain life in a medical crisis.

275
Q

National Organ Transplant Act

A

Passed in 1984, a statute that provides grants to qualified organ procurement organizations and established an Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network.

276
Q

Uniform Anatomical Gift Act

A

A recommendation of the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, that all states accepted, allowing individuals to donate their bodies or body parts, after death, for use in transplant surgery, tissue banks, or medical research or education.

277
Q

Stakeholders

A

Those who have a vested interest in the health care industry in the United States, and in any efforts to reform the industry.

278
Q

Cost (overall-health care)

A

The amount individuals, employers, state and federal governments, HMOs, and insurers spend on health care in the United States.

279
Q

Quality

A

The degree of excellence of health care services offered.

280
Q

Access

A

The availability of health care and the means to purchase health care services.

281
Q

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

A

The total value of goods produced and services provided in a country during one year.

282
Q

Baby Boom Generation

A

Those individuals born between 1946 and 1964.

283
Q

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)

A

The lead federal agency responsible for tracking and improving the quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness of health care for Americans.

284
Q

Life Expectancy

A

The number of years an individual can expect to live, calculated from his or her birth.

285
Q

Life Span

A

The number of years an individual actually lives.

286
Q

Medical Management

A

The management of patient care and populations.

287
Q

Pharmacogenomics

A

The science that defines how individuals are genetically programmed to respond to drugs.

288
Q

Genometrics

A

The science of determining how genes cause the expression of certain traits in individuals.

289
Q

Epigenetics

A

The study of changes in gene activity that do not involve alterations to the genetic code, but are still passed down to at least one successive generation.

290
Q

Protemics

A

The study of the proteins that genes create or “express”.

291
Q

Personalized Medicine

A

The products and services that leverage the science of genomics and proteomics and capitalize on the trends toward Wellness and consumerism to enable tailored approaches to prevention and care.

292
Q

State Children’s Health Initiative Program (SCHIP)

A

A program enacted by the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 to help low-income children under 19 who are not covered by Medicaid.

Medical Ethics (3 decks)

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