Terminology Flashcards

1
Q

No elevation haircut; One length

A

0° or Blunt Haircut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medium elevation haircut; wedge

A

45° Haircut or Graduated Haircut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A uniform elevation haircut that provides movement

A

90° or Uniform-Layered Haircut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A haircut with increased long layers

A

180° or Long-Layered Haircut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An immune response or reaction to substances that are usually not harmful

A

Allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Abnormal hair loss

A

Alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Patchy loss of hair occurring on the scalp or other parts of the body

A

Alopecia Areata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Severe case of alopecia areata where balding occurs over the entire head

A

Alopecia Totalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Severe case of alopecia areata where balding occurs over the entire body

A

Alopecia Universalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Surfactants that are very mild and compatible with all other surfactants

A

Amphoteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The period of active hair growth

A

Anagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Male or female pattern baldness

A

Androgenic Alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The space formed in between the point where two lines join; combination of two straight lines joined together, producing various effects and qualities

A

Angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A shampoo with a detergent base that is inexpensive, but has excellent deep cleansing abilities, and is easily rinsed from the hair

A

Anionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An agent that prevents or reduces infection by eliminating or decreasing the growth of microorganisms; it can be applied safely to the skin

A

Antiseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The highest point of the head

A

Apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A small, involuntary muscle located along the side of the hair follicle that is responsible for goose bumps

A

Arrector Pili Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Rod-shaped, spore-producing bacteria

A

Bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

One cell microorganisms

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Equal in proportion

A

Balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A technique that creates curved lines in a haircut by cutting ends with a slight increase or decrease in length

A

Beveling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Infectious pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood or bodily fluids and can cause disease in humans; these pathogens include Hepatitis B (HBV) and HIV

A

Bloodborne Pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A localized infection caused by staphylococci bacteria; similar to a furuncle but larger

A

Carbuncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A cutting technique where the still blade is placed into the hair and the shears are partially opened and closed while moving through the hair

A

Carving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The period of break down and change of hair growth

A

Catagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A type of surfactant that removes dirt from the hair shaft and provides softness and moisture

A

Cationic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Consists of seven vertebrae (bones) that make up the portion of the spinal column located in the neck

A

Cervical Vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A texturizing technique that removes larger sections of hair; creates movement in a perimeter design line by breaking up the weighted line

A

Chunking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A procedure using detergent and water to eliminate contamination of surfaces, tools, and/or skin; eliminates unseen debris that interferes with disinfection

A

Cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hair has a large diameter or width and feels thick

A

Coarse Texture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Circular-shaped bacteria that produce pus and can cause strep throat and blood poisoning

A

Cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Haircuts using two or more degrees

A

Combination Haircuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Means that infections or diseases can be transferred from one person to another by contact

A

Contagious/Communicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The presence of unclean materials or tools left on a surface

A

Contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A tuft of hair that stands up with a strong directional growth pattern

A

Cowlick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Covers the top and sides of the head and consists of 6 bones

A

Cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Parting the haircut in the opposite direction from which it was cut, to check for precision of line and shape

A

Cross-Checking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The upper back of the head

A

Crown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The tough outer protective covering of the hair

A

Cuticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The removal of any infectious materials on tools or surfaces by following all sanitation and disinfection guidelines

A

Decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Clean tools with warm, soapy water; removing visible debris. Next submerge in EPA-registered disinfectant; Decontamination Method 1

A

Disinfecting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Clean tools with warm soapy water; remove visible debris. Next place tools in a high-pressure steam unit (autoclave); Decontamination Method 2

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Water that has had the metal ions and/or impurities removed through ion exchange process; purified water

A

Deionized Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The number of hair strands per square inch on the scalp

A

Density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Small, cone shaped elevation at the base of the hair follicle filled with blood vessels

A

Dermal Papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Slanting line between horizontal and vertical lines

A

Diagonal Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The thickness of a hair strand

A

Diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Spherical-shaped bacteria that grow in pairs and cause pneumonia

A

Diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Independent lines that normally do not blend; having a defined break in the design

A

Disconnected Lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Bacterial invasion of the body that disrupts a normal function of health

A

Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Any abnormality of bodily function; services can be performed with special product recommendations

A

Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The technique of cutting around the hairline to create a clean line or design within a haircut; outlining or etching

A

Edging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The degree or angle by which the hair is lifted and combed in relation to the head; degree or projection

A

Elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A tendon that connects the Occipitalis and the Frontalis

A

Epicranial Aponeuerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The complete scalp; the muscles, skin, and aponeurosis; covering the skull

A

Epicranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The broad muscle formed by the joining of the Frontalis and Occipitalis; Occipito-frontalis

A

Epicranius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The applied science concerned with designing and arranging things that people use so both (people and things) interact most efficiently and safely

A

Ergonomics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When you come in contact with broken skin, body fluid, blood or any other potentially infectious items while at work

A

Exposure Incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The outer or external part

A

Exterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hair that is naturally shed or gathered from a brush and/or comb

A

Fallen Hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Separating water from its mineral substances, such as magnesium, iron, calcium, or organic matter; water passes through a “filter-type trap,” encasing some minerals or particles, therefore producing less-contaminated water

A

Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hair has a small diameter/width that feels thin

A

Fine Texture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When the hair is susceptible to breakage; brittle hair

A

Fragilitas Crinium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Forms the forehead; starts at the top of the eyes, extending to the beginning curve of the head

A

Frontal Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The muscle that encompasses the forehead and extends into the beginning curve of the scalp

A

Frontalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Members of a large group of organisms that include microorganisms, such as yeasts, molds, and mildews

A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Boil or abscess of the skin located in the hair follicle

A

Furuncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The direction the hair grows from the scalp

A

Growth pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The first section of hair that is cut to serve as a guide to determine the length and/or shape

A

Guideline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The rounded, club-shaped part of the hair located at the end of the hair root

A

Hair Bulb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A tube-like depression or pocket in the skin that contains the hair root from which the hair will grow

A

Hair Follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Hair growing in the same direction; creates a natural part

A

Hair Stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Remains unaltered and contains an amount of dissolved minerals, such as calcium and magnesium; ex: well water

A

Hard Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The angle at which your guest’s head is held during a procedure

A

Head Position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Lines parallel to the floor; opposite of vertical

A

Horizontal Lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Substances added to conditioners to help the hair retain moisture

A

Humectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

“Water-loving”; easily absorbs moisture and capable of combining with or attracting water

A

Hydrophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The body’s ability to fight or defend against infection and disease

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The invasion of body tissues by disease-causing bacteria (pathogenic bacteria) or viruses

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The inner or internal part

A

Interior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A guide that is inside the haircut, not around the hairline or perimeter; this will create less weight and more softness to the perimeter

A

Interior Guideline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A strong fibrous protein; the building block for hair, skin, and nails

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The process of converting living skin into hard proteins

A

Keratinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The soft, white, and downy hair found on the body; usually lacking a medulla; Vellus Hair

A

Lanugo Hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Large, flat, triangular muscle covering the lower back; helps to extend the arm away from the body and rotate the shoulder

A

Latissimus Dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The basic lines used in haircutting are straight and curved. There are three types of straight lines: horizontal, vertical, and diagonal. Each line represents various movement and design options. Also known as the Edge or Division of a Shape

A

Line(s) of Haircutting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

“Oil-loving”; having an attraction to fat and oils

A

Lipophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A naturally occurring fungus, sometimes known as pityrosporum ovale

A

Malassezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Hair has an average width and thickness

A

Medium Texture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Usually a white substance that grows on the surface of things in wet, warm conditions, but does not cause human infections on the skin

A

Mildew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Condition causing beaded hair; Hair is weak before each node and easily broken

A

Monilethrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Self-movement

A

Motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The section of the head from the occipital bone to the hairline

A

Nape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The direction in which the hair moves or falls on the head

A

Natural Distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Bacteria that are not harmful

A

Non-pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When an item is made or constructed of materials that are not permeable/penetrated by water, air, or other fluids

A

Nonporus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A texturizing technique similar to point cutting but the cutting is done toward the ends rather than into them, creating a chunking effect

A

Notch cutting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The bone that covers the back of the head and sits directly above the nape

A

Occipital Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The muscle located in the nape of the neck that draws the scalp back

A

Occipitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A haircutting technique that positions the palms of your hands facing each other; prevents hair from being lifted up off your hand and the hair from being pushed out the front of the shears

A

Palm-to-Palm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Consistently traveling in the same direction at an equal distance apart

A

Parallel Lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Disease caused by parasites, such as lice and itch mites

A

Parasitic Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Two bones, one on each side of the head, that form the entire crown and top sides

A

Parietal Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Largest curve of the head; it separates the interior of the head from the exterior of the head

A

Parietal Ridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Bacteria that are harmful and cause disease

A

Pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Condition caused by the infestation of the hair and scalp caused by the parasitic insect, head louse

A

Pediculosis Capitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Dandruff; dry type of dandruff characterized by white, lightweight flakes that either attach to the scalp in clusters or are scattered loosely within hair and eventually fall to the shoulders

A

Pityriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A severe case of dandruff, distinguished by excessive amounts of waxy or greasy scales that accumulate on the scalp in crusts; Seborrheic Dermatitis

A

Pityriasis Steatoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The muscle that extends from the tip of the chin to the shoulder and lowers the jaw and lip

A

Platysma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The texturizing technique using the tips of the shears to cut into the ends of the hair to create multiple lengths that will blend within the hair ends

A

Point Cutting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Period of temporary hair loss that typically occurs after childbirth

A

Postpartum Alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A condition caused by a microscopic mite, know as the itch mite

A

Scabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Glands that produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates the skin or scalp

A

Sebaceous Glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Dividing areas of hair that can be managed and controlled

A

Sections/Sectioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Directing the hair out of its natural fall; over-directed

A

Shifted Distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The skeletal structure that makes up the head and face; encases the brain; divided into two areas: cranium and face

A

Skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

A texturizing technique using a sliding movement down the hairshaft; used to remove bulk and add mobility within the haircut or for blending and framing areas around the face; also called slicing

A

Slithering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Water where the mineral content is dissolved and removed; ex: rain water

A

Soft Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

A wedge-shaped bone that joins all the bones of the cranium

A

Sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A spiral-shaped or curved bacteria

A

Spirilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

A set of guidelines published by the CDC that require an employer and employee to assume that all human blood and body fluids are infectious

A

Standard Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Bacterial cells which form in clusters, like grapes, are pus-forming causing abscesses, pustules and boils

A

Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

A fixed guideline that does not move

A

Stationary Guideline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Long muscle that stretches from the back of the ear, along the side of the neck to the collar bone. It lowers and rotates the head.

A

Sternocleidomastoideus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Bacterial cells that grow in curved lines shaped into chains and may cause abscesses, pustules, and boils; cause infections such as blood poisoning and strep throat

A

Streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

A surface active agent or wetting agent that has the ability to dissolve in water and remove dirt from surfaces, such as hair; the ingredient in shampoo that causes lather

A

Surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

A cutting technique that blends hair from a shorter length at the perimeter to a longer length as it moves up the head; fading

A

Tapering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Resting phase of hair growth

A

Telogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Premature or sudden hair loss

A

Telogen Effluvium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Two bones are on each side of the head that forms the lower side of the head

A

Temporal Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The temple muscle located above and in front of the ear that helps in opening and closing the mouth, as in chewing

A

Temporalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Application of pressure applied while combing and holding the hair prior to cutting

A

Tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Pigmented hair on the body

A

Terminal Hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The diameter or width, quality, feel, and arrangement of individual hair strands within the overall hair structure; textures are described as fine, medium, and coarse

A

Texture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Techniques that help to blend lines or remove excess bulk without changing the shape of the haircut

A

Texturizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

A contagious condition caused by a fungal parasite; the technical term for Ringworm

A

Tinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

A superficial fungal infection that commonly affects the skin; the technical term for Barber’s Itch

A

Tinea Barbae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Fungal infection of the skin and scalp, characterized by red papules or spots at the opening of the hair follicle

A

Tinea Capitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

A fungal infection of the scalp, characterized by a pink scalp with thick, whitish-yellow crusts known as scutula, which tend to have a slight odor; Honeycomb Ringworm

A

Tinea Favosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Hair loss through repetitive and excessive pulling or stretching of the hair

A

Traction Alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Flat, triangular muscles that run from the upper back to the back of the neck

A

Trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

A guideline that moves around or passes from one section to another

A

Traveling Guideline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

The study of hair and its diseases and disorders

A

Trichology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

When hair ends are dried out and damaged by overexposure to heating tools, weather elements, and/or chemical services; split ends

A

Trichoptilosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Bulges along the hair shaft; brittleness and breakage can occur at the node; also known as knotted hair

A

Trichorrehexis Nodosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

A line that extends straight up from the floor; opposite of horizontal

A

Vertical Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

A submicroscopic, parasitic particle that causes disease

A

Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Concentration of hair within an area that gives the appearance of heaviness and density

A

Weight Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Circular growth pattern; use special considerations when cutting

A

Whorl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

0 to 6.9 on the pH scale

A

Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

7.1 to 14 on the pH scale

A

Alkaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Used to neutralize acids or raise the pH. May be used in place of ammonia because they create less odor

A

Alkanolamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

A gas with a strong odor, made up of nitrogen and hydrogen

A

Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Small compounds found in permanent haircolor; also known as uncolored dye precursors

A

Aniline Derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

The smallest chemical part of an element

A

Atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

The medical term for grey hair; the result of a gradual decline in melanin

A

Canities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

A substance used in, or produced by, the process of chemistry

A

Chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The science that deals with the composition, structures, and properties of matter and how matter changes under different chemical conditions

A

Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

A support tool for the Law of Color to visually show how all colors are created

A

Color Wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The rapid oxidation of a substance, accompanied by the production of heat and light

A

Combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Colors located opposite of each other on the color wheel

A

Complementary Colors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

A chemical combination of two or more atoms from different elements

A

Compound Molecules/Compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

A product used to make another product more intense, vibrant, stronger, or purer

A

Concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

The middle layer of hair, made up of elongated cells containing melanin and keratin

A

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

The protective, outermost layer of hair

A

Cuticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

The technique of removing natural haircolor or artificial haircolor from the hair

A

Decolorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Deposits or adds color to existing haircolor; however, it does not lighten the hair

A

Demi-Permanent Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Oxidizing agent added to haircolor or lightener that assists in the development process; manufactured in various strengths, known as volumes or percentages; also known as catalyst or hydrogen peroxide

A

Developer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Utilizing two or more haircolors and/or techniques to create depth, movement, and shape

A

Dimensional Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

A two-step technique involving lightening of the hair, followed by application of toner to achieve desired haircolor

A

Double Process Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

A concentrated haircolor used to increase the ability of a haircolor to neutralize unwanted warmth

A

Drabber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Particles in an atom that have a negative charge

A

Electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

The simplest form of matter; cannot be broken down into a simpler substance

A

Element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

The suspension of one liquid in a second liquid with which the first will not mix

A

Emulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Produces brown to black pigments in the hair

A

Eumelanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Used to equalize porosity and replace missing pigment in one application

A

Filler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Involves weaving or slicing out specific strands of hair for depositing haircolor or lightening

A

Foiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

The technique of applying demi-permanent or semi-permanent haircolor to hair to shine and/or refresh color

A

Glaze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

A solution/chemical used to remove oxidative or non-oxidative haircolor from the hair

A

Haircolor Remover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

A chemincal solution used to remove haircolor from the skin

A

Haircolor Stain Remover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

The technique of coloring some hair strands lighter than their natural color (typically done by foiling)

A

Highlighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

The study of not living or never living organisms that do not contain carbon

A

Inorganic Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

A concentrated haircolor that when added to another haircolor, is used to deepen, brighten, or create a more vivid look

A

Intensifier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

The strength of the color’s appearance

A

Intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

An atom or a group of atoms carrying an electric charge

A

Ion/Ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

A system that provides an understanding of color relationships

A

Law of Color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

The degree of lightness or darkness of a color

A

Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

A system used to determine lightness or darkness of a color

A

Level System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Will lift permanently by diffusing, dissolving or decolorizing the natural or artificial pigment in the cortex; decolorizer

A

Lightener/Bleach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

A visible line or band between two different haircolors, artificial or natural

A

Line of Demarcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Substance that has mass and occupies space; occurs in the form of a solid, liquid, or gas

A

Matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

The innermost layer of hair composed of round cells; hair is fine and fragile when this is missing

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

The coloring matter that provides us with the natural color of our hair and skin; also known as pigment

A

Melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

A non-professional haircolor containing metals that after continuous use, build up on the hair (should not be used with any professional chemicals); also known as Gradual Dye

A

Metallic Dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Two or more atoms chemically joined that retain their chemical and physical properties to form matter

A

Molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Non-professional haircolor made from various plants; henna; also known as vegetable hair dye

A

Natural Hair Dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Particles in an atom that have a neutral charge (having no positive or negative charge)

A

Neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

The process of new hair growing out from the scalp that has not yet been chemically altered

A

New Growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Temporary color; no chemical mixing or reaction takes place to produce these colors on the hair

A

Non-Oxidative Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Come in a powder form and are not able to be used on the scalp; also known as quick lighteners

A

Off-the-Scalp Lightener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

The study of living or previously living organisms containing carbon

A

Organic Chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

The visible line resulting from haircolor and/or lightening products spreading onto previously colored/lightened hair

A

Overlapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

The chemical reaction that occurs when oxygen is released from a substance; this reaction assists in the development of color on the hair

A

Oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Creates a chemical change in the hair therefore providing longer lasting haircolor results. Types of these haircolors are permanent haircolor and demi-permanent haircolor

A

Oxidative Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

A chemical reaction in which the oxidizing agent (developer) is reduced, and the reducing agent (haircolor) is oxidized

A

Oxidation-Reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

This can deposit and/or lighten the natural pigments located in the cortex layer of the hair

A

Permanent Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Produces yellow to red pigments in the hair

A

Pheomelanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

The ability of the hair to absorb any liquid

A

Porosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Applying a small amount of product on the skin to check for sensitivity and/or an allergic reaction to a product/chemical; patch test

A

Predisposition Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Diffusing or lifting the natural hair color to achieve the desired level

A

Pre-lightening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

The technique that allows for better haircolor penetration by softening the cuticle; often used prior to haircoloring resistant and/or grey hair

A

Presoftening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

The three basic colors - red, yellow, blue - from which all other colors are produced

A

Primary Colors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Determines if the haircolor is absorbing and processing evenly; Periodic Strand Test

A

Processing Strand Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Particles in an atom that have a positive charge

A

Protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Substances that have definite chemical and physical properties

A

Pure Substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Cuticle scales are flat, causing minimal liquid absorption

A

Resistant Hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Created by mixing two primary colors in equal proportions

A

Secondary Colors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

A deposit-only haircolor that penetrates into the cuticle layer of the hair shaft

A

Semi-Permanent Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

A single application of haircolor to either lighten the natural hair color to deposit haircolor to the hair strand

A

Single Process Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Haircoloring technique that isolates thin subsections of hair in a straight line pattern

A

Slicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Stable mixtures of two or more substances, which may be solids, liquids, gases, or a combination of these

A

Solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

A substance that is capable of dissolving another substance

A

Solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Techniques used to create texture, as well as various dimensions of color

A

Special Effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

A mixture in which small particles of a substance are dispersed throughout a gas or liquid. If left undisturbed, the particles are likely to settle and separate

A

Suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Type of haircolor that coats the hair surface covering only the cuticle

A

Temporary Haircolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Created by mixing a primary color with a neighboring secondary color

A

Tertiary Colors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

The process of returning hair back to its natural state or desired level/color; reverse haircolor

A

Tint Back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

The balance of color; also known as hue

A

Tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Semi-permanent or demi-permanent haircolor product used on pre-lightened hair to neutralize unwanted pigment

A

Toner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

The warm or cool tone seen within the predominant haircolor; also known as contributing pigment

A

Undertone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

The first time hair is colored

A

Virgin Haircolor Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Performed by coloring alternating selected strands from a thin subsection of hair

A

Weaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Permanent waves processed without heat that have a pH ranging between 7.0 to 8.2; produce a firmer curl and process more quickly than true acid waves

A

Acid Balanced Waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Results from the oxidation of primary alcohols; there are several other chemicals in the class of highly reactive chemical compounds (composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen)

A

Aldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Processed without heat; the main ingredient is thioglycolic acid; also known as cold waves

A

Alkaline Waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Protein building blocks of hair that link together to form tiny protein fibers

A

Amino Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

An inorganic compound of colorless liquid, composed of one part nitrogen and three parts hydrogen; it has a pungent odor and is an alkaline substance used in the manufacturing of permanent wave solutions and hair lighteners to aid in opening the cuticle layer

A

Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

A mild alternative relaxer containing a low pH compatible with thio relaxers

A

Ammonium Bisulfite Relaxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Perm that uses an ingredient other than ammonia to reduce the odor associated with ammonia perms

A

Ammonia-Free Waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

A combination of ammonia and thioglycolic acid that creates a reducing agent used in permanent waves and relaxers

A

Ammonium Thioglycolate (ATG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

The position of the tool in relation to its base section and is determined by the angle at which the hair is wrapped; also known as base placement

A

Base Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

An oily cream applied on the scalp/skin to protect from the chemicals in the relaxer

A

Protective Base Cream/Base Cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

The position of the perm rod horizontal, vertical, or diagonal, within a section and/or parting

A

Base Direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Relaxer that requires a protective base cream to be applied to the hairline and scalp; too strong to be applied without the application of a base cream

A

Base Relaxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

The subsections located within a larger panel section; the hair is divided into smaller subsections that hold one perm rod each

A

Base Sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

The type of perm wrap that consists of controlled sections of hair in which perm rods are placed in rectangular-shaped subsections

A

Basic Perm Wrap/Straight Set Wrap/9-Block Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Foam-covered perm rods that are easily bent into different shapes and used for permanent waving

A

Bender Rod/Flexible Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Requires only one paper, which is folded in half much like a book

A

Book End Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Perm rods are placed within a staggered pattern of subsections

A

Bricklay Perm Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Matter altered permanently to a completely different form

A

Chemical Change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Characteristics that can only be determined by a chemical reaction and change in the matter

A

Chemical Properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

To chemically alter naturally curly or wavy hair into a straighter form

A

Chemical Relaxing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Chemical Substances consisting of atoms or ions of two or more elements in definite proportions, which cannot be separated by physical means

A

Compounds/Chemical Compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

A perm rod that has a smaller diameter in the center and a larger diameter increase throughout the length

A

Concave Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Perm wrap that consists of wrapping the hair from ends to scalp in overlapping concentric layers

A

Croquignole Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Perm wrap that consists of partings that follow the shape of your guest’s head

A

Curvature Perm Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

An amino acid joined with another cyteine amino acid to create a cystine amino acid

A

Cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

An amino acid that joins together two peptide strands

A

Cystine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Strong chemical side bonds that can only be broken by chemical solutions

A

Disulfide Bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Requires hair to be placed between two end papers, one on each side of the hair strand

A

Double Flat Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

The capability of the hair strand to stretch and return to its previous form without breaking

A

Elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Absorbent pieces of thin tissue-type paper that control and protect the hair ends or any texturized lengths of hair within a subsection

A

End Papers/End Wraps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Processed by the application of heat; hood dryer, heat processor

A

Endothermic Wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Processed by chemical reaction that releases heat; self-heating

A

Exothermic Wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

An organic compound that is a colorless, flammable and pungent gas; present in the air and many food and beauty products

A

Formaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Products are manufactured “without” the use of formaldehyde but could release a formaldehyde gas upon use

A

Formaldehyde Free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

An odorless, colorless liquid that is miscible in water; it is derived from glycerin

A

Glyceryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

An ingredient used in a permanent waving lotion to help lower the pH because of its moisturizing properties

A

Glycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

The main active ingredient in true acid waves

A

Glyceryl Monothioglycolate (GMTG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Relaxer requiring the mixing of two products; advertised as “no-lye” for sensitive skin

A

Guanidine Hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Physical side bond (cross bond) easily broken by water or heat; reforms when the hair cools and/or dries

A

Hydrogen Bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Also called an acid/alkali neutralization reaction; it neutralizes any remaining alkaline residue left by the hydroxide relaxer and helps to restore the pH of the hair and scalp

A

Hydroxide Neutralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Relaxers with a high alkaline (pH) content; available in varying formulations

A

Hydroxide Relaxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

When a substance is not able to mix with another substance

A

Immiscible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

A strong, fibrous protein; the building blocks for hair, skin, and nails

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

The process of removing one sulfur atom and replacing it with a disulfide bond

A

Lanthionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

A long, plastic rod that is used to create spiral curls

A

Loop Rod/Circle Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Relaxer that contains only one component and they are used exactly as they are packaged, requiring no mixing

A

Metal Hydroxide Relaxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

A substance that has mass and occupies space; it has physical and chemical properties and exists either as a solid, liquid, or gas

A

Matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

When a substance is able to be mixed with another substance

A

Miscible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

A chemical solution that stops the waving process of a permanent wave; rebuilds the bonds into their new form

A

Neutralizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Chemically restoring disulfide bonds to harden into a new shape; rebonding

A

Neutralizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Used to help remove any remaining chemicals left in the hair after a chemical relaxer and to restore hair to normal acidic pH

A

Neutralizing Shampoo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

The new hair growing out from the scalp that has not yet been chemically altered

A

New Growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Does not require a base cream to be applied to the skin or scalp

A

No-Base Relaxer/No-Lye Relaxer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Solutions with an acidic pH that restore the hair’s natural pH after a hydroxide relaxer

A

Normalizing Lotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Any illness caused by overexposure to certain products or ingredients

A

Occupational Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

A perming technique that provides curl or wave to small areas of the head, creating a natural blending of permed hair into previously permed or non-permed hair

A

Partial Perm Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

These connect amino acids (end to end) that form polypeptides

A

Peptide Bonds/End Bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

A technique used to smooth hair around the hairline, such as cowlicks, uncontrollable hair, growth patterns, and inconsistent textures

A

Perimeter Definition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Chemically rearranging straight hair into a curly or wavy form

A

Permanent Waving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

A scale ranging from 0 to 14 that measures if a product is an acid (0 to 6.9), and alkaline (7.1 to 14), or neutral (7).

A

pH Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Matter altered to a different shape temporarily, but eventually returning to its original state

A

Physical Change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Consist of two or more types of matter that are blended together, but not chemically altered; each part in the mixture maintains its own properties

A

Physical Mixtures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Occur without a chemical reaction or change to the matter; ex: hardness, color, weight, odor, and boiling point

A

Physical Properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

A wrap technique where hair longer than 10 to 12 inches is wrapped on one rod from the mid-shaft to scalp, and the remaining hair is wrapped around a second rod

A

Piggyback Perm Wrap/Double-Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

A spiraling chain of amino acids; joined together by peptide bonds

A

Polypeptide Chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

The ability of the hair to absorb any liquid

A

Porosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

A very strong alkaline ingredient used in chemical relaxers; typically marketed as no-mix, no-lye

A

Potassium Hydroxide/Lithium Hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

A measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution

A

Potential Hydrogen (pH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Performed as part of your guest consultation to test how the hair will respond to the chemical application

A

Preliminary Strand Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Determines the required processing time and ensures that the desired curl has been achieved for a permanent wave service

A

Preliminary Test Curl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Performed during a chemical relaxer to determine if the hair has been sufficiently relaxed

A

Processing Strand Test/Periodic Strand Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

A cream barrier applied around the hairline and ears to protect the skin from permanent wave lotions or hair color

A

Protective Cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

A form affirming that your guest was advised of the potential risks that could result during the requested chemical service

A

Release Statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

The process in which oxygen is subtracted from or hydrogen is added to a substance through a chemical reaction; breaking of the disulfide bonds

A

Reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Weak physical side bonds (cross bonds) easily broken by change in pH; reform when pH balance is restored

A

Salt Bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Allergic reaction caused by repeated exposure to a chemical or substance

A

Sensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Connect polypeptide chains side-by-side; responsible for strength and elasticity

A

Side Bonds/Cross Bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Requires only one paper used in conjunction with either the double end or book end wraps

A

Single Flat Wraps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

A highly soluble chemical element that is an alkaline substance used in the manufacturing of permanent wave lotions and chemical hair relaxers

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

A strong alkaline ingredient used in chemical relaxers

A

Sodium Hydroxide (Lye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

A chemical texture service that restructures overly curly hair into loose curls or waves

A

Soft Curl Reformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Substance that is dissolved in a solution

A

Solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

Stable mixture that blends two or more substances, which may be of gases, liquids, solids, or a combo of these

A

Solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Dissolves other substances to form a solution with no chemical change

A

Solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Perm wrap that consists of wrapping the hair at an angle other than parallel to the length of the rod, which will create a coiling effect of the hair

A

Spiral Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Pliable foam rods that allow hair to be chemically altered, creating a soft-end result

A

Sponge Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

A perm rod that has an even diameter/width throughout the entire rod length

A

Straight Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

A mixture that blends large particles together without dissolving into a liquid or solid. The particles do not stay mixed; they separate back to their original state

A

Suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

An organic compound of clear liquid with a strong unpleasant smell used in permanent wave solutions

A

Thioglycolic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

The process of stopping a permanent wave and reforming the hair into its new curly shape

A

Thio Neutralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Chemical compounds with the additive ingredient ammonia; considered to be a “no-lye” relaxer, suitable for soft curl reformation; known as “thio-relaxers” by industry standards

A

Thioglycolate Relaxers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

The technical term for the study of the hair, the disorders and diseases, and hair care

A

Trichology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Permanent waves processed with the application of heat that have a pH range between 4.5-7; the main ingredient is typically glyceryl monothioglycolate (GMTG); these process slower than alkaline waves

A

True Acid Waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Measurement of how thick or thin a liquid is, and how that affects the liquid’s flow

A

Viscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Perm wrap consisting of controlled sections of hair that replaces straight partings with zigzag partings

A

Weave Perm Wrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

A non-mirror image with unequal distribution of weight and/or length

A

Asymmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

A technique using a brush that is done on the surface of the hair to achieve a light, airy appearance that expands the hair, while providing support and structure to the design

A

Back-brushing/Ruffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

A technique that uses the comb to create a cushion at the base of the scalp, giving height and volume to a design; also known as cushioning, interlocking, lacing, matting, and ratting

A

Back-combing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

The visual comparison of weight used to offset or equalize proportion

A

Balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Normally consists of a rectangular-shaped base used in place of a wet roller application or to support a dry design prior to finishing the style; achieves the same results as a cascade curl but in a larger movement

A

Barrel Curl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

The section of the hair that is attached to the scalp

A

Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Method of attaching hair with an adhesive agent

A

Bonding/Fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Small sections of hair where the stem and base are raised from the scalp with the ends turning under, creating mass or fullness known as volume

A

Cascade Curl/Stand-up Pincurl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

The chin and forehead align; the nose appears sunken, creating inward curvature

A

Concave Profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

A receding chin, protruding nose and high hairline; creates strong outward curvature

A

Convex Profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

The end of the hair strand that forms a complete circle for pin curls, rollersetting and/or thermal setting

A

Curl/Circle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Creates movement, softness and/or waves; a continuously bending line without angles

A

Curved line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Also known as the focal point of a hair design, is the point or the area that the eye is drawn to at first glance

A

Emphasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Facial form created by individual bone structure and hairline

A

Face Shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

The relationship of facial features and shape to each other

A

Facial Proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

“C” shapes placed into the hair in alternating directions using the fingers and a comb

A

Finger waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

A combination of lines that outline a shape

A

Form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

The curl is secured totally off it’s base; provides the maximum amount of movement but the least amount of curl

A

Full Stem Curl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Natural or synthetic hair attached to the base/scalp area to add length, volume, and/or color

A

Hair Additions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Small wig or various hair attachments used to cover smaller sections of the head primarily on the top or crown of the head

A

Hair Additions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

Small wig or various hair attachments used to cover smaller sections of the head, primarily on the top or crown of the head

A

Hairpiece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

A method of temporarily straightening curly or uncontrollable hair by means of a heated iron or comb

A

Hair Pressing/Thermal Hair Straightening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

The curl/roller sits 1/2 off 1/2 on its base

A

Half Off-Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

The curl is secured 1/2 off it’s base; provides a medium amount of movement and curl

A

Half-Stem Curl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

A hair straightening technique that removes all of the curl by using a thermal pressing comb twice on each side of the hair shaft

A

Hard press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

A pleasing arrangement of shapes and lines that incorporates all elements of design

A

Harmony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Creates emptiness or flat area(s) in a design

A

Indentation Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Form of natural styling where hair has grown and intertwined over time; hair is twisted or formed to wrap around itself, creating a rope-like effect

A

Locs/Dreadlocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

A hair straightening technique using a thermal pressing comb once on each side of the hair shaft, using slightly increased pressure; removes 60%-75% of curl

A

Medium Press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

The curl is secured directly on its base; provides the least amount of movement but the greatest amount of curl

A

No Stem Curl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

The curl sits totally off it’s base

A

Off-Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

The curl sits completely on its base

A

On-Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

Provides the support, texture and movement of final design

A

Polishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

The outline or contour of the face viewed from one side

A

Profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

The direct correlation of size, distance, amount, and ratio between the individual characteristics when compared with the whole

A

Proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

A form of finger waves using two combs instead of the fingers to lift the wave up from the head and create a 3D form

A

Pushwaves/Scrunchwaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

A repeated pattern in a design

A

Rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Involves forcing the hair between the thumb and back of the comb to create tension

A

Ribboning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

Flat pin curls following the finger wave’s ridge, producing a strong wave pattern in a finished design; alternating rows create what is known as a skip wave

A

Ridge Curls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Sculpted by hand, iron or roller, to create texture and/or movement for a style

A

Sculpture Curls/Carved Curls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Combing a section of the hair in a circular movement over the surface of the head for the formation of waves or curls

A

Shaping/Molding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

Blow drying hair in sections utilizing the comb pick attachment, then flat ironing to complete the straightening process

A

Silk Press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

Wave pattern that combines finger waves and flat pin curls

A

Skipwave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

A straightening technique using a thermal pressing comb once on each side of the hair shaft; removes 50%-60% of curl

A

Soft press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

Area within or surrounding a hair design

A

Space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

The section of hair between the base and the first turn of the roller/curl

A

Stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

Forehead, nose and chin align, creating a slight outward curvature; ideal profile

A

Straight Profile

375
Q

A mirror image from a center point

A

Symmetry

376
Q

Evaporate quickly and easily; for example, rubbing alcohol (isopropyl) and hairsprays (ethyl alcohol)

A

Volatile Alcohols

377
Q

Alcohols that contain carbon and evaporate dry quickly

A

Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)

378
Q

Creates lift, fullness or height in a design

A

Volume Base

379
Q

Designing wet hair into a specific shape

A

Wet Styling

380
Q

An artificial hair covering that is designed to replace or enhance your guest’s existing hair and/or be a fashion accessory

A

Wig

381
Q

Allows products to penetrate the skin to keep it supple and pliable, which helps the skin to retain its stretch and/or elasticity

A

Absorption

382
Q

Chronic inflammation of the sebaceous glands

A

Acne

383
Q

The final stage of HIV, which destroys the immune system

A

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

384
Q

Rare, congenital skin disorder characterized by a total or partial lack of melanin in the body

A

Albinism

385
Q

Rapid or interrupted electrical current that switches direction, moving in one direction then changing to the opposite direction

A

Alternating Current (AC)

386
Q

The unit for measuring the strength of an electric current

A

Ampere/Amp

387
Q

Lack of perspiration due to an under active suderiferous gland

A

Anhidrosis

388
Q

Positive electrode/pole used in electrotherapy

A

Anode

389
Q

Agent that prevents or reduces infection by eliminating or decreasing the growth of microorganisms; can be applied safely to the skin to cleanse a superficial wound or assist in the removal of bacteria

A

Antiseptic

390
Q

Thick-walled, tube-like vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart

A

Arteries

391
Q

The thin-walled chambers of the top half of the heart; are referred to as the right and/or left ___

A

Atrium

392
Q

Product or item that is capable of destroying bacteria

A

Bactericidal

393
Q

The most common and mildest form of skin cancer; it is characterized either as a small red bump with a surface appearance of blood vessels or a “pearly” module with a rough texture

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

394
Q

The middle part of the muscle

A

Belly

395
Q

Nourishing fluid that supplies the nutrients and oxygen, carries away waste products, and protects the body from pathogenic bacteria

A

Blood

396
Q

Infectious pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood or bodily fluids and can cause disease in humans; these pathogens include, but are not limited to, HepB virus (HBV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A

Bloodborne Pathogen

397
Q

Foul smelling perspiration

A

Bromhidrosis

398
Q

Large blister containing clear, watery fluid

A

Bulla

399
Q

Negative electrode/pole used in electrotherapy

A

Cathode

400
Q

The basic unit of all living matter

A

Cell

401
Q

Non-elevated, hyperpigmented, light to dark brown spots and scattered on hands, arms, or face; liver spots or moth patches

A

Chloasma

402
Q

A “switch” that automatically shuts off the flow of electricity at the first signs of an overload

A

Circuit Breaker

403
Q

Also known as a panel, is a device that automatically stops the flow of electricity in a circuit

A

Circuit Breaker Box

404
Q

Comprised of the blood, blood vessels, and heart; responsible for moving blood and lymph throughout the body

A

Circulatory System

405
Q

A hair follicle that is closed, keeping the sebum from being exposed to the environment and oxidizing; whitehead

A

Closed Comedone

406
Q

Skin lesion containing masses of sebum trapped in the hair follicle; two types open (blackheads) and closed (whiteheads)

A

Comedo

407
Q

Main source of blood supply to the face, head, and neck

A

Common Carotid Artery

408
Q

Flow of positive and negative electric currents from a generating source, through a conductor and back to the generating source

A

Complete Electric Current

409
Q

Any material that allows or supports the flow of electric current; for example metal, copper, and water

A

Conductor

410
Q

A common bacterial infection of the eyes that is highly contagious

A

Conjunctivitis/Pinkeye

411
Q

Device that switches direct current (DC) to alternating current (AC)

A

Converter

412
Q

Inflammation of the skin from any cause, resulting in a range of symptoms, such as redness, swelling, itching, or blistering

A

Dermatitis

413
Q

An allergic reaction caused by the skin’s sensitivity to the exposure or use of a certain product; contact dermatitis

A

Dermatitis Venenata

414
Q

The study of skin, it’s functions, structures, conditions, diseases/disorders and treatments

A

Dermatology

415
Q

The underlying or inner layer of the skins directly below the epidermis, also know as Derma, Corium, Curis, or True Skin

A

Dermis

416
Q

Comprised of the stomach, intestines, mouth and several glands that digest food and break it down into nutrients

A

Digestive System

417
Q

Electric current that flows in only one direction

A

Direct Current (DC)

418
Q

To destroy microorganisms on nonporous surfaces and prevent infection; the second level of infection control

A

Disinfection

419
Q

Gland that secretes waste from the body and deposits it on the skin’s surface; located within the dermis

A

Duct Gland

420
Q

Painful, itchy and non-contagious skin inflammation, which can have the appearance of either dry or moist lesions

A

Eczema

421
Q

Massage technique that involves gliding, stroking, or circular movements, utilizing a light, slow, consistent motion with either light or no pressure

A

Effleurage

422
Q

Body system comprised of specialized, ductless glands that regulate hormone production

A

Endocrine System

423
Q

The outermost layer of the skin, containing many small nerve endings, but no blood vessels; also known as the Basal Layer

A

Epidermis

424
Q

Spongy bone between both eye sockets that forms part of the nasal cavity

A

Ethmoid Bone

425
Q

Occurs through the scraping or scratching of the epidermal layer or skin’s surface; this can occur with an existing sore being scratched, irritating the existing injury

A

Excoriation

426
Q

Accomplished when the sweat glands disperse perspiration; this maintains a healthy temperature by cooling the body

A

Excretion

427
Q

Comprised of the kidneys, liver, skin, large intestine and lungs that eliminate waste from the body

A

Excretory System

428
Q

Massage technique that involves deep rubbing, rolling, or wringing movement applied with pressure, forcing one layer of tissue to press against another layer, therefore flattening or stretching that tissue

A

Friction

429
Q

Capable of destroying fungi

A

Fungicidal

430
Q

Designed to prevent an excessive amount of electrical current from passing through the circuit

A

Fuse

431
Q

Contains small devices with metal wires that link to the main source of electricity for the entire building

A

Fuse box

432
Q

Constant and direct current set to a safe, low voltage level; chemical changes are produced when the current is passed through certain solutions containing acids and salts

A

Galvanic Current

433
Q

A term used to promote electrical safety, which means the electrical current is safely carried away from you to the ground; doing this to electrical equipment will prevent electrical shock

A

Grounding

434
Q

Maintaining a body temp of 98.6°F through the blood and excretion of perspiration

A

Heat Regulation

435
Q

Bloodborne virus that can cause inflammation of the liver caused by infections of toxic agents and is characterized by jaundice, fever, liver enlargement, and abdominal pain

A

Hepatitis

436
Q

Commonly known as a fever blister or cold sore; a contagious skin disorder associated with a viral infection

A

Herpes Simplex (HSV)

437
Q

Extreme hairiness or excessive growth of hair, sometimes on uncommon areas of the face and body

A

Hirsutism/Hypertrichosis

438
Q

Bloodborne pathogen that weakens the immune system by destroying the white blood cells; virus that can lead to AIDS

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

439
Q

An over-abundance of perspiration due to an overactive suderiferous gland

A

Hyperhidrosis

440
Q

Contagious bacterial infection of the skin characterized by open lesions

A

Impetigo

441
Q

Portion of the muscle joined to the movable portion of the bone to assist movement

A

Insertion

442
Q

Comprised of skin and it’s layers; serves as a protective covering

A

Integumentary System

443
Q

The light that is invisible to the naked eye

A

Invisible light

444
Q

The process of forcing a water-based soluble solution into the skin using a galvanic current

A

Iontophoresis

445
Q

A thickened or hardened area of skin caused by friction, continual rubbing, or pressure over the same part of skin

A

Keratoma/Callus/Tyloma

446
Q

Measures 1,000 watts of electrical power used in an apparatus within one second

A

Kilowatt

447
Q

Wound or mark on the skin that can be considered either a disease or disorder

A

Lesion

448
Q

Skin disorder that is characterized by light patches (hypopigmentation); can be caused by a burn or congenital disease, such as albinism

A

Leukoderma

449
Q

Clear, slightly yellow fluid located within the vessels and is filtered by the lymph nodes

A

Lymph

450
Q

The main function is to protect the body from disease by developing immunities

A

Lymphatic/Immune System

451
Q

Areas of discoloration that appear on the skin surface; for example, freckles

A

Macule

452
Q

The most dangerous form of skin cancer; appears as dark brown or black spots or lesions with an uneven shape, size, and/or color

A

Malignant Melanoma

453
Q

Special cells that produce the skin pigment called melanin

A

Melanocyte

454
Q

Small, white, keratin-filled bumps or cysts that are enclosed within the epidermis with no visible opening; commonly found around the eyes, cheeks, and/or forehead

A

Milia

455
Q

A rash of tiny, red, raised spots appearing on the skin, accompanied by burning and itching; also known as heat rash or prickly heat

A

Miliaria Rubra

456
Q

Less than 1/1000 of an ampere; electrical equipment used for facial treatments have controls that allow the current to be reduced to 1/1000 of an amp

A

Milliampere

457
Q

Process in which human tissue cells reproduce by dividing in half, creating two daughter cells

A

Mitosis

458
Q

Small flat or raised pigmented spot on the surface of the skin, ranging in color from light to dark brown

A

Mole

459
Q

Nerve that carries messages to the brain and/or spinal cord to produce movement

A

Motor Nerve

460
Q

Infection that is resistant to certain antibiotics; commonly found on the skin and starts as small, red bumps

A

MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus)

461
Q

Contracts and moves various parts of the body and supports the skeletal system

A

Muscular System

462
Q

The study of muscles - their structures, function, and diseases

A

Myology

463
Q

Comprised of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves; it regulates and controls all of the body’s activities

A

Nervous System

464
Q

The scientific study of the structure and purpose of the nervous system

A

Neurology

465
Q

Birthmark on the skin, characterized by small or large irregularly-shaped marks or stains

A

Nevus

466
Q

A material that prevents the flow of electricity; for example cement, glass, rubber, silk, and wood

A

Nonconductor/Insulator

467
Q

Involuntary muscle that is smooth and not marked with lines

A

Non-Striated Muscle

468
Q

Unit for measuring the resistance of an electric current

A

Ohm

469
Q

A hair follicle containing masses of hardened sebum and keratin; the open pore appears black due to the sebum being exposed to the environment and oxidizing; blackhead

A

Open Comedone

470
Q

Separate body structures composed of multiple tissues that each perform specific functions

A

Organs

471
Q

The place where a muscle attaches to a non-moving section of bone

A

Origin

472
Q

Outermost layer of the dermis, directly underneath the epidermis

A

Papillary Layer

473
Q

Small, red, elevated protrusion of the skin, usually containing no pus

A

Papule

474
Q

Massage technique that involves short, light tapping or slapping movements

A

Percussion/Tapotement

475
Q

Massage technique that involves kneading, lifting, or grasping movement

A

Petrissage

476
Q

Colorless particle located in the blood that is responsible for clotting

A

Platelet/Thrombocyte

477
Q

Property of having two opposites; a positive and negative pole of an electric current

A

Polarity

478
Q

Guarding against the skin’s enemies, such as UV rays, extreme weather conditions, bacterial infections, and injury

A

Protection

479
Q

Able to kill the Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria

A

Pseudomonacidal

480
Q

Inflamed, elevated pimple that contains pus

A

Pustule

481
Q

Device that switches alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC)

A

Rectifier

482
Q

Comprised of the organs necessary to reproduce

A

Reproductive System

483
Q

Comprised of the organs that help to process air

A

Respiratory System

484
Q

Deeper layer of the derma located below the papillary layer that assists in supplying skin with nutrients and oxygen

A

Reticular Layer

485
Q

Chronic skin disorder of the face with red inflamed areas appearing mostly on the nose and cheeks

A

Rosacea

486
Q

The lowest level of decontamination that is a physical or chemical process of reducing the surface pathogens and dirt; it will aid in preventing the growth of germs but will not kill bacteria

A

Sanitation

487
Q

Sac-like duct gland attached to the hair follicles that produce sebum

A

Sebaceous Gland

488
Q

Oily substance that lubricates the skin or scalp and is secreted from the sebaceous glands

A

Sebum

489
Q

When sebum, an oily substance, is delivered from the sebaceous glands to provide moisture and maintain skin’s elasticity

A

Secretion

490
Q

Nerve endings are stimulated through touch, heat, cold, pressure, and pain receptors; these receptors are situated near the hair follicles within the dermis and send messages to the brain to react

A

Sensation

491
Q

Nerve that carries messages to the brain and/or spinal cord to recognize touch, cold, heat, sight, hearing, taste, smell, pain, and pressure

A

Sensory Nerve

492
Q

Physical foundation of the body; composed of 206 bones

A

Skeletal System

493
Q

More serious than Basal Cell Carcinoma and is characterized by red, scaly patches or open sores that may bleed or crust

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

494
Q

The chemical process that completely destroys all microbial life and bacterial spores on nonporous surfaces; the most effective/highest level of infection control; germ-free

A

Sterilization

495
Q

Outermost layer of the epidermis, known as the horny layer

A

Stratum Corneum

496
Q

Deepest/Innermost layer of the epidermis, known as the basal cell layer

A

Stratum Germinativum

497
Q

Granular-like layer of the epidermis located between the Stratum Lucidum and Stratum Spinosum

A

Stratum Granulosum

498
Q

Clear layer of epidermis just below the Stratum Corneum

A

Stratum Lucidum

499
Q

Layer where the cells develop tiny spines that assist in binding all cells tightly together

A

Stratum Spinosum

500
Q

Voluntary muscles attached to the bones and are knowingly controlled; also known as skeletal muscles

A

Striated muscles

501
Q

Fatty tissue found beneath the dermis

A

Subcutaneous Tissue/Adipose Tissue

502
Q

Consist of tube-like ducts that begin in the dermis and extend into the epidermis by attaching themselves to hair follicles; sweat glands

A

Suderiferous Gland

503
Q

Often due to over-functioning or under-functioning internal glands or organs

A

Systemic Disease

504
Q

Uses alternating current (AC) that produces heat and provides stimulation and/or relaxation to the skin and scalp; also known as Violet Ray

A

Tesla High Frequency Current

505
Q

This gland controls how quickly the body burns energy (metabolism), makes proteins, and how sensitive the body should be to other hormones

A

Thyroid Gland

506
Q

Groups of similar cells that perform specific functions

A

Tissues

507
Q

Product that is able to kill the bacteria that cause tuberculosis

A

Tuberculocidal

508
Q

Permits the blood to flow in one direction only, either into or out of the ventricles and/or atrium

A

Valve

509
Q

Thin-walled, tube-like vessels that carry impure blood back to the heart; contain small cup-like structures that keep the blood flowing in one direction

A

Veins

510
Q

Thick-walled chambers on the bottom half of the heart and are referred to as the right and/or left

A

Ventricle

511
Q

The medical term for a wart, characterized by a hard, rough, red, or flesh-colored bump that is commonly found on hands or feet

A

Verruca

512
Q

Small blister or sac filled with a clear fluid

A

Vesicle

513
Q

Massage technique that involves the use of the tips of the fingers to produce a rapid shaking movement

A

Vibration

514
Q

Capable of destroying viruses

A

Virucidal

515
Q

Varying degrees of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum that are visible to the human eye

A

Visible Spectrum of Light

516
Q

Inherited skin disorder producing smooth, irregularly-shaped white patches, caused by the loss of pigment producing cells

A

Vitiligo

517
Q

Unit for measuring the force or pressure of an electric current

A

Volt

518
Q

Measures the amount of electrical energy used by an apparatus within one second

A

Watt

519
Q

An itchy swollen lesion that occurs shortly after an insect bite or allergic reaction; also known as Urticaria

A

Wheal

520
Q

The muscles that spread the fingers or toes

A

Abductor Muscles

521
Q

Disinfectant based on a stabilized hydrogen peroxide that is non-toxic to the skin and environment; this type of disinfectant only needs to be changed every 14 days

A

Accelerated Hydrogen Peroxide (AHP)

522
Q

A high-quality virgin plastic used to manufacture nail tips

A

Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene (ABS)

523
Q

The muscles that pull the fingers or toes together

A

Adductor Muscles

524
Q

The split cuticle around the nail

A

Agnail/Hangnail

525
Q

Extremely flammable, colorless liquid that evaporates quickly

A

Alcohol

526
Q

The curvature side view of a nail tip that provides support to the stress area and sides of the nail tip

A

Arch/Apex

527
Q

Visible depressions running the width of the natural nail plate. Usually the result of a major illness or injury, such as pneumonia, adverse drug reaction, surgery and/or heart failure. This occurs because the matrix slows down nail cell production for an extended period of time.

A

Beau’s Lines

528
Q

Thin layer of skin cells between the nail bed and the nail plate

A

Bed Epithelium

529
Q

Dark purplish discoloration under the nail caused by trauma

A

Bruised Nail

530
Q

The eight bones that form the wrist

A

Carpals

531
Q

The chemical reaction that causes hardening

A

Curing/Polymerization

532
Q

The small portion of non-living epidermis extending around the base of the nail

A

Cuticle

533
Q

Specialized acrylic monomers that quickly polymerize with the addition of alcohol, water or any weak alkaline product to form an adhesive

A

Cyanoacrylates

534
Q

Nerves located in the fingers and toes

A

Digital Nerve

535
Q

Noticeable thin, white nail plate that is more flexible than normal

A

Eggshell Nail

536
Q

Living skin at the base of the nail plate that partially overlaps the lunula

A

Eponychium

537
Q

The muscles that aid in the straightening of a joint

A

Extensor Muscles

538
Q

Very thin and tightly woven materials, such as linen, silk or fiberglass that are used to strengthen the natural nail or are applied over nail tips

A

Fabric Wraps

539
Q

Long bone extending from the hip to the knee, also known as the thigh bone

A

Femur

540
Q

Bone forming the outer part of the lower leg, extending from the knee to the ankle

A

Fibula

541
Q

The muscle that controls the little toe

A

Flexor Digiti Minimi

542
Q

The muscle that bends a joint

A

Flexor Muscle

543
Q

The part of the nail plate that extends beyond the fingertip

A

Free Edge

544
Q

The muscle located in the calf that pulls the foot down; attached to the lower portion of the heel

A

Gastrocnemius

545
Q

The largest bone in the upper arm, extending from the shoulder to the elbow

A

Humerus

546
Q

The skin between the free edge and fingertip of the natural nail

A

Hyponychium

547
Q

Substances that begin the polymerization process that starts the chain reaction, leading to very long polymer chains being created

A

Initiators

548
Q

The tacky, film-like layer that forms on the top of the nail enhancement

A

Inhibition Layer

549
Q

Whitish discoloration of the nails caused by injury; White Spots

A

Leukonychia

550
Q

Spongy, respiratory organs responsible for inhaling and exhaling

A

Lungs

551
Q

Whitish, half-moon shape at the base of the nail

A

Lunula

552
Q

Cosmetic service for care of the hands, which includes skin and nail care, cosmetic treatments and procedures, polishing techniques and artificial nail applications

A

Manicure

553
Q

Pocket-like fold of skin that holds the nail root and the matrix

A

Mantle

554
Q

Part of the nail bed that extends below the nail root and helps to produce the nail plate

A

Matrix

555
Q

The smallest of the three arm and hand nerves; runs along the mid-forearm and extends into the hands

A

Median Nerve

556
Q

Darkening of the nails caused by excess melanin; can be in a band or stripe

A

Melanonychia

557
Q

The five long, thin bones between the wrist and fingers, forming the palm of the hand

A

Metacarpals

558
Q

The five long, slender bones located between the ankles and the toes

A

Metatarsals

559
Q

Used to gently scrape the cuticle from the natural nail; made of stainless steel and can be disinfected and reused

A

Metal Pushers

560
Q

Type of monomer that is a colorless, volatile, flammable liquid compound; polymerized readily and is used especially as a monomer for acrylic resin; has a small molecule size and can penetrate body tissue or skin and possibly cause an allergic reaction

A

Methyl Methacrylate (MMA)

561
Q

Causing small unseen openings in the skin that allow for the entry of pathogens

A

Microtrauma

562
Q

The liquid that mixes with acrylic powder and binds the acrylic polymers to form a nail enhancement

A

Monomer

563
Q

The portion of the skin that the nail plate rests upon as it grows out

A

Nail Bed

564
Q

Removes moisture or oils from the nail plate prior to nail enhancement services

A

Nail Dehydrator

565
Q

The folds of normal skin that surround the natural nail plate

A

Nail Folds

566
Q

Slits or grooves on the sides of the nail that allow growth

A

Nail Grooves

567
Q

Translucent portion of the nail, extending from the nail root to the free edge; sometimes referred to as the nail body

A

Nail Plate

568
Q

A non-infectious condition that affects the surface of the natural nail. The nail will appear pitted and/or have roughness on the surface.

A

Nail Psoriasis

569
Q

Forward growth of living skin that adheres to the surface of the nail plate

A

Nail Pterygium

570
Q

A metal tool that has a grooved edge; typically used for pedicures to smooth and file the free edge

A

Nail Rasp

571
Q

The portion of the nail plate hidden under a fold of skin (mantle) at the base of the nail plate

A

Nail Root

572
Q

The piece of skin that overlaps onto the side of the nail; lateral nail fold

A

Nail Sidewall

573
Q

Used to adhere the fabric wrap to the natural nail or nail tip

A

Nail Wrap Resin

574
Q

Short polymer chains that consist of just a few monomers, creating a thickened resin or a “gel-like” substance

A

Oligomers

575
Q

Inflammation of the nail matrix

A

Onychia

576
Q

Ingrown nail

A

Onychocryptosis

577
Q

Loosening or separation of the nail plate from the nail bed, without shedding

A

Onycholysis

578
Q

Fungal infection of the nail

A

Onychomycosis

579
Q

Bitten nails

A

Onychophagy

580
Q

Abnormal brittleness of the nail plate

A

Onychorrhexis

581
Q

General term for any nail disease or deformity

A

Onychosis

582
Q

The technical term for nails

A

Onyx

583
Q

Thick or dark quality that makes products difficult to see through

A

Opacity

584
Q

Group of adductor muscles located in the palm that pulls the thumb toward the fingers

A

Opponens Muscles

585
Q

Any fabric wrap, UV cured-gel or acrylic/sculpted nail that is applied to enhance and/or strengthen the natural nail

A

Overlay

586
Q

Bacterial inflammation of the skin surrounding the nail plate

A

Paronychia

587
Q

Technical term for the kneecap

A

Patella

588
Q

Cosmetic care of the toenails and feet

A

Pedicure

589
Q

Additional or excessive skin that overlaps onto the sides of the nail plate

A

Perionychium

590
Q

Shorter of the two muscles responsible for rotating the foot down and out

A

Peroneus Brevis

591
Q

Longer of the two muscles responsible for rotating the foot down and out

A

Peroneus Longus

592
Q

The bones of the fingers or toes; digits

A

Phalanges

593
Q

Strong, high pH disinfectant

A

Phenols

594
Q

The chemical that begins the polymerization process in gel nails

A

Photoinitiators

595
Q

A concentrate or powder made up of acrylic powder that when mixed with a monomer forms a nail enhancement

A

Polymers

596
Q

The chemical reaction, also known as curing or hardening, that creates polymers

A

Polymerization

597
Q

The edge of the well that bumps up against the free edge of the natural nail

A

Position Stop

598
Q

Liquid solution, containing methacrylic acid that is applied sparingly to the natural nail plate prior to acrylic product application to assist in adhesion of the enhancement

A

Primer

599
Q

Turns the forearm and hand inward so the palm faces downward

A

Pronator Muscles

600
Q

Small rounded mass (vascular tissue) projecting from the nail bed to the nail plate

A

Pyogenic Granuloma

601
Q

The standard name for disinfectants

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds/Quats

602
Q

Supplies blood to the thumb side of the arm and the back of the hand

A

Radial Artery

603
Q

The nerve that runs along the thumb side of the arm and the back of the hand

A

Radial Nerve

604
Q

Outer and smaller bone on the inside of the forearm; located on the thumb side

A

Radius

605
Q

Based on the use of reflex points located throughout the hands, feet, and head that are linked to other parts of the body

A

Reflexology

606
Q

A vertical or horizontal indentation running the length or width of the nail plate; also known as furrow or corrugation

A

Ridges

607
Q

Made from thin natural material with a tight weave that provides a smooth, even, clear appearance after a wrap resin is applied

A

Silk Wraps

608
Q

Commonly known as bleach

A

Sodium Hypochlorite

609
Q

The muscle that is attached to the lower heel and bends the foot down

A

Soleus

610
Q

The edge of the nail tip below the contact area that is the most vulnerable area, accepting everyday wear and tear

A

Stress Area

611
Q

Turns the forearm and hand outward so the palm faces upward

A

Supinator Muscle

612
Q

The seven bones that form the ankle

A

Tarsals

613
Q

The largest of the two bones below the knee that form the lower leg; the shin bone

A

Tibia

614
Q

The muscle that covers the shin and bends the foot

A

Tibialis Anterior

615
Q

The muscle that helps the foot flex inward

A

Tibialis Posterior

616
Q

A contagious fungal infection, distinguished by itching, scales, and occasionally painful lesions; ringworm

A

Tinea

617
Q

A fungal infection that can occur on the bottom of the feet, as well as, between the toes, which can spread to the toenails; Athlete’s Foot

A

Tinea Pedis

618
Q

Inner and larger bone on the outside of the forearm; located on the pinky side

A

Ulna

619
Q

Supplies blood to the little finger side of the arm and the palm of the hand

A

Ulnar Artery

620
Q

The nerve that runs along the little finger side of the arm and the palm of the hand

A

Ulnar Nerve

621
Q

The main ingredients used to create UV gel nail enhancements

A

Urethane Acrylate and Urethane Methacrylate

622
Q

Used to gently remove cuticle tissue away from the nail plate and clean under the free edge; made from orangewood, rosewood, or other hardwoods; disposable alternatives for pushing back cuticles

A

Wooden Pusher

623
Q

The technique of coloring some hair strands darker than their natural hair color (typically done by foiling)

A

Lowlighting

624
Q

Amino acids are connected by an end bond or peptide bond to form a long, single chain known as a polypeptide or an _____

A

Alpha helix

625
Q

Three alpha helix coils twist around each other to form a ____

A

Protofibril

626
Q

Nine protofibrils are packaged together as a ____

A

Bundle

627
Q

Eleven bundles will produce a ____

A

Microfibril

628
Q

100’s of microfibrils are locked together in a fibrous bundle known as a ___

A

Macrofibril

629
Q

Hundreds of macrofibrils group together to create a ____

A

Cortical fiber

630
Q

The corticosteroids fibers grouped together produce the ____

A

Cortex

631
Q

The dried dead cells that surround the cortex

A

Cuticle scales

632
Q

A dry type of dandruff characterized by white, lightweight flakes that either attach to the scalp in clusters or are scattered loosely within the hair and eventually fall to the shoulders.

A

Pityriasis Capitis Simplex

633
Q

An excessive growth of hair in uncommon areas of the face or body. Example: terminal hair above the lip and/or underneath the chin or hairline.

A

Hypertrichosis/Hirsuties

634
Q

Hair that is naturally shed or gathered from a brush and/or comb.

A

Fallen hair

635
Q

A white substance that grows on the surface of things in wet, warm conditions, but does not cause human infection on the skin

A

Mildew

636
Q

Lice can survive on the scalp for ____ days; eggs can survive up to ____ weeks

A

10 days; 2 weeks

637
Q

Itch mites can survive without a host (person) for ___ hours and can live on a person for ___ month(s)

A

48-72 hours; 1 month

638
Q

A form of fibrous tissue that produce movement of the body parts, maintain tension, or pump fluids within the body

A

Muscles

639
Q

This wedge-shaped bone joins all the bones of the cranium

A

Sphenoid

640
Q

This consists of seven vertebrae that make up the portion of the spinal column located in the neck

A

Cervical vertebrae

641
Q

A long bone located at the upper part of the chest; connects the sternum and the scapula

A

Clavicle/Collarbone

642
Q

Consists of two large, flat bones that form the back part of the shoulder blades

A

Scapula

643
Q

The large, flat, triangular muscle covering the lower back. It helps extend the arm away from the body and rotate the shoulder.

A

Latissimus Dorsi

644
Q

A major muscle that stretches across the front of the upper chest, enabling arms to swing.

A

Pectoralis

645
Q

A chest muscle that assists in elevating the arm and in breathing.

A

Serratus Anterior

646
Q

This is used in reference to contaminants or mineral content found in water. Two methods of removal are filtration and softening.

A

Impurity

647
Q

This is the separation of water from its mineral substances, such as magnesium, iron, calcium, or organic matter.

A

Filtration

648
Q

The removal of the unfiltered or dissolved mineral particles in water that are not eliminated through filtration.

A

Softening

649
Q

This surfactant has a detergent base that is inexpensive, but has excellent deep cleansing abilities and is easily rinsed from the hair.

A

Anionic

650
Q

This surfactant is excellent for deep cleansing and removal of oil from the scalp.

A

Nonionic

651
Q

These shampoos are generally formulated to maintain a healthy pH balance for scalp and hair. It prevents moisture loss from hair and assists in closing the cuticle.

A

Acid Balance Shampoo

652
Q

Deep cleansing shampoo used to break down product build-up. They are used either once a week or every two weeks, depending on the amount of product used daily

A

Clarifying Shampoo

653
Q

Shampoo that refreshes, brightens, or adds a slight color change to the hair. They contain a surfactant with some basic hair color ingredients.

A

Color shampoos

654
Q

Shampoos that contain moisture and protein agents, which help restore elasticity and strength to the hair and provide volume

A

Conditioning shampoo

655
Q

This shampoo is used for guests that are unable to rest their head in a shampoo bowl. It is manufactured in either a spray or powder form, applied on hair, and then brushed through

A

Dry shampoo

656
Q

Shampoo that typically contains an anti-microbic ingredient, such as zinc or selenium sulphide, to remedy dandruff or other scalp conditions.

A

Medicated shampoo

657
Q

Shampoos that are pH balanced to be in the 4.5-5.5 range, the same as the skin. This shampoo helps to close the cuticle and is recommended for color or chemically treated hair.

A

pH-balanced shampoo

658
Q

This shampoo is gentler on the scalp, and is less likely to cause an allergic reaction. These shampoos are popular to market for color-treated hair because they do not contain sodium lauryl sulfate (SLS). SLS may excessively remove essential oils, irritate the scalp, and/or cause hair to be dry

A

Sulphate-free or Low Sulfate shampoos

659
Q

This product enhances strength and shine and minimizes the damage to the hair shaft

A

Conditioner

660
Q

This conditioner eliminates friction and helps to flatten the cuticle. It is combed through the hair after the shampoo to ensure complete coverage. It is then immediately rinsed, leaving a light coating over the hair shaft, providing ease in detangling hair

A

Surface conditioner/rinse-out conditioner

661
Q

Conditioner containing the moisture retention ingredient Humectant. These heavy, cream conditioners stay on the hair longer (10-20 mins) for improved penetration into the cuticle.

A

Moisturizing conditioner

662
Q

This ingredient, found in some conditioners, has the physical properties of absorbing and retaining moisture.

A

Humectant

663
Q

This conditioner is a deep penetrating conditioner that incorporates technological advances to enable rebuilding the amino acid structure within the hair. These are left on the hair for an average of 10-20 minutes depending on the manufacturer instructions.

A

Reconstructors

664
Q

Conditioning treatments that are reconstructors generally made of keratin-based liquid that when placed on the cuticle, penetrate into the cortex. This equalizes porosity and improves the hair’s elasticity/strength.

A

Protein treatments

665
Q

These treatments are surface conditioners that are generally lightweight and remain on the hair, not be rinsed out. Styling products can be applied and hair design continued.

A

Leave-in treatments

666
Q

These conditioners provide moisture to the hair. This type of conditioner is applied on shaped hair, combed through and rinsed out, leaving the hair soft and manageable. These conditioners are designed to restore hair to a pH balanced state following chemical hair services.

A

Instant conditioners

667
Q

This face shape has an ideally balanced vertical and horizontal proportion for hair designing. It tapers in a gentle slope from the widest portion, the forehead, to the narrowest portion, the chin.

A

Oval

668
Q

This face shape is almost as wide as it is long. It typically features a wider middle zone, shorter chin, and rounded hairline. You can balance this with angular haircuts and accompanying hair designs. Create minimal volume on the sides and add volume and/or height to the crown.

A

Round

669
Q

This face shape is equal in width and length. The outer lines are straight vertically and horizontally. Add softness in a hairstyle to draw the eye away from the strong jawline and frame the forehead line to soften it/reduce edges of the face.

A

Square

670
Q

This face shape is longer than it is wide. A person with this face shape often has prominent cheekbones, a long, angular chin, and a high forehead. Add curvature to the hairstyle and shorten the face using a fringe in the forehead or chin area. For width, create volume to the sides. Use bands to help shorten the facial appearance. Keep the overall length short to moderate.

A

Oblong

671
Q

This face shape is widest at the forehead and narrowest at the chin. Balance with fullness around the jawline and soft waves at the forehead. Create a soft, partial fringe to offset the width of the forehead.

A

Inverted Triangle/Heart

672
Q

This face shape has a narrow forehead and jaw. The face is angular and typically has prominent cheeks. Divert attention from angular features with a hairstyle that skims the cheekbones or adds fullness above or below the cheeks to balance. Create fullness to the forehead and chin areas. Keep hair close to the head at the sides. Do not lift the hair away from the sides at the cheekbone areas.

A

Diamond

673
Q

This face shape features a narrow forehead and wide chin. Add softness in the hairstyle around the jawline and fullness above the eyes. Create width with volume in the forehead and crown areas. Create a soft band to disguise the forehead. Style the hair toward the chin and jaw areas.

A

Triangle/Pear

674
Q

Facial zone ____ is between the hairline and eyebrow line

A

One

675
Q

Facial zone ___ is between the eyebrow line and the tip of the nose.

A

Two

676
Q

Facial zone ____ is between the tip of the nose and the chin

A

Three

677
Q

____ lines are when horizontal lines and vertical lines meet at a 90° angle, creating a hard edge.

A

Contrasting

678
Q

______ lines are usually curved lines that will blend, add movement and soften horizontal or vertical lines

A

Transitional

679
Q

_____ lines are lines that gradually taper off into infinity, creating an effect similar to that when viewing the lines of a road disappearing in the distance.

A

Vanishing

680
Q

_____ lines are curved inward in a bowl shape. The outer areas are cut longer than the inner areas.

A

Concave

681
Q

_____ lines are curved outward in an arch shape. The outer areas are cut longer than the outer areas.

A

Convex

682
Q

____ lines create endless design element variations. The creative combination of lines will produce a blending of the characteristics of all types of lines.

A

Combination

683
Q

_____ lines are shattered, uneven lines that visually connect movement within a haircut. Texturizing is the main technique used to achieve these lines.

A

Disrupted

684
Q

____ line is the angle at which you fingers are held to determine your end result.

A

Cutting

685
Q

_____ lines are lines with a definite forward and backward movement.

A

Directional

686
Q

A(n) _____ line is created by the elevation of degrees cut into the hair; for example, low to medium to high

A

Inclination

687
Q

_____ scalp and hair are usually due to a lack of sebaceous glad activity, resulting in flaky, itchy, and slightly pink scalp.

A

Dry

688
Q

____ scalp and hair are attributed to over-stimulated sebaceous glands and/or poor hygiene, diet, or use of improper cleansing products.

A

Oily

689
Q

_____ hair is produced by a round or circular-shaped follicle

A

Straight

690
Q

____ hair is produced by a large oval-shaped follicle

A

Wavy

691
Q

____ hair is produced by a narrow oval or flat-shaped follicle.

A

Curly

692
Q

____ porosity has an average amount of absorption, considering it to be in good condition.

A

Normal

693
Q

_____ porosity is usually indicated by the combination of severe porosity on the ends with resistant or normal porosity on the mid-strand. This can be due to heavy use of heating tools, improper chemical services and/or irregular haircut visits.

A

Irregular

694
Q

_____ porosity has the cuticle scales lying flat, making the amount of liquid absorbed minimal.

A

Resistant

695
Q

______ porosity is when the cuticle scales are raised due to damage by either chemical services or use of harsh hair care tools.

A

Severe

696
Q

____ elasticity on wet hair generally can be stretched 50% of its length or if hair is dry, usually 1/5 of its length

A

Average

697
Q

___ elasticity hair will break easily due to the use of harsh hair care products or being over-processed

A

Low

698
Q

This density has the most hair strands per square inch on the scalp

A

Thick/High

699
Q

This density has an average amount of hair strands per square inch on the scalp

A

Medium

700
Q

This density has a lesser amount of hair strands per square inch on the scalp

A

Thin/Low

701
Q

This comb is usually designed with measurements from 1 inch to 6 inches indicated on the backbone of the comb. These markings are used to measure the different hair lengths.

A

Cutting comb

702
Q

This comb is used to distribute, shape, and part the hair into sections. It is also used to weave strands for weave hair cutting.

A

Tail comb

703
Q

This comb is perfect for working close to the head; has fine short teeth at one end and long coarse teeth at the other. It is also ideal for blending.

A

Tapered Hard Rubber Comb

704
Q

This comb is the result of high tech design and materials, making it a favorite for precise parting and sectioning. The comb is designed for comfort , control and durability and is manufactured a variety of sizes.

A

Parting comb

705
Q

This comb is especially designed with a long handle and widely-spaced teeth to comb deep lines and grooves into the hair.

A

Tail Rake Comb

706
Q

This comb features teeth that are tapered to a point. This creates very wide spacing in the finished design. This is a great tool to add lift to curly hair or for use when dry cutting.

A

Rake Comb

707
Q

This comb is specifically designed for use with clippers. The comb is constructed with long teeth that help clipper travel smoothly over the comb’s surface, creating a more uniform cut. When using a clipper-over-comb technique, this comb is an excellent tool for blending.

A

Clipper comb

708
Q

Brush designed with short, synthetic, heat-resistant bristles. It features an aerated metal barrel that retains heat from the blow dryer, causing hair to curl faster.

A

Thermal Metal Round Brush

709
Q

This brush is used with a blow dryer to add texture and curl to hair. Constructed with plastic, rubber, or wood handles and short, synthetic, heat-resistant bristles, the brush is also available with beaded tips to prevent scalp abrasions.

A

Plastic Round Brush

710
Q

This brush works similar to a curling iron when forming hair around the metal base of the brush during blow drying. These natural bristles are softer than most synthetic bristles. Because they don’t cut into the hair when brushing, they halo polish the hair and prevent split ends.

A

Boar Bristle Round Brush

711
Q

This brush is used for smoothing, shaping, and polishing hair; it is constructed of heat resistant synthetic materials. The rubber based back helps eliminate static electricity when used with a blow dryer.

A

Pin Type Brush

712
Q

This brush features short, widely spaced bristles on one side for root lifting and volume, and longer bristles in the other side for hair distribution. Some styles have beaded bristles that help prevent split ends and scalp abrasions.

A

Double Back Vent Brush

713
Q

This brush is constructed with wire bristles and beaded plastic tips to prevent scalp abrasions. It’s used to relax sets , brush out tangles before shampooing , and remove tangles after shampooing.

A

Cushioned Wire Vent Brush

714
Q

When the melanocytes gradually become inactive. Production of melanin is slowed down, turning hair to a grey color that varies in pigment concentration. This typically occurs as the human body ages and/or because of genetics.

A

Acquired Canities

715
Q

These canities can occur before or at birth. Albinism is the best example of melanin production slowing down or being totally absent.

A

Congenital Canities

716
Q

Paraphenylenediamine (para-phe-ni-lene-i-dia-mine) and Pararoluenediamine (para-tol-u-ene-dia-mine) are the two types of dye molecules used in _____

A

Aniline Derivative Haircolors

717
Q

These solutions contain more hydrogen ions. The products contract and harden the hair and have a sour taste.

A

Acidic solutions

718
Q

These solutions contain a lesser amount of hydrogen ions. The products soften and swell the hair and have a bitter taste.

A

Alkaline

719
Q

The natural pH of hair

A

4.5-5.5

720
Q

pH of Hydrogen Peroxide

A

2.5-4.0

721
Q

pH of temporary hair color

A

3.5-4.5

722
Q

pH of distilled water

A

7

723
Q

pH of permanent hair color

A

8.0-9.5

724
Q

pH of lightener

A

10.0-10.5

725
Q

pH of ammonia

A

11.5

726
Q

____ is what gives color its color. The source can be natural, chemical, or mineral.

A

Pigment

727
Q

_____ is known as a collection of two or more colors grouped together or mixed together to produce various moods, effects, and enhancements to natural hair color

A

Color scheme

728
Q

_____ are colors next to each other on the color wheel; when used together in a grouping, they can achieve very dramatic effects. For example: blue, blue-green, and green.

A

Analogous Colors

729
Q

The predominant tone of the color

A

Base Color

730
Q

On hair color, the ____ represents the level of color

A

Number

731
Q

On hair color, the ____ represents the series (color)

A

Letter

732
Q

The _____ of developer is defined by the level of concentration and strength of hydrogen peroxide.

A

Volume

733
Q

Three polypeptide chains twist around each other to form a ____

A

Protofibril

734
Q

Nine protofibrils are packaged together as a ____

A

Bundle

735
Q

Eleven bundles will produce a ____

A

Microfibril

736
Q

Hundreds of microfibrils are cemented together in a fibrous protein bundle, known as a ____

A

Macrofibril

737
Q

Consists of molecules that are very far apart

A

Gas

738
Q

Consists of molecules that are close together (a component of gas)

A

Vapor

739
Q

Consists of molecules that are very close together

A

Liquid

740
Q

Consists of molecules that are closest together

A

Solid

741
Q

Any substance made of one type of atom and cannot be chemically broken

A

Element

742
Q

pH of hydroxide relaxers

A

13+

743
Q

ph of thio relaxers

A

Approximately 10

744
Q

ph of exothermic waves

A

9.0-9.8

745
Q

ph of alkaline/cold waves

A

9.0-9.6

746
Q

pH of ammonia free waves

A

7.0-9.6

747
Q

pH of thio free waves

A

7.0-9.5

748
Q

pH of acid/heat waves

A

4.5-7.0

749
Q

The breaking of the disulfide bond

A

Reduction

750
Q

When a chemical remains on the hair beyond the recommended processing time, producing dry and damaged hair

A

Over-processed

751
Q

When a chemical does not remain on the hair long enough to produce the desired result.

A

Under-processed hair

752
Q

The ability of the product to produce favorable results.

A

Efficacy

753
Q

Disinfectants that destroy viruses, fungi and bacteria. They are EPA-registered

A

Broad-Spectrum Sterilizers

754
Q

A strong steel vessel that is used for steam sterilization of tools or materials. Implements/tools are placed into the machine to destroy all bacteria.

A

Autoclave container

755
Q

A cabinet where tools, such as combs, brushes, or nail implements, are stored after being cleaned and disinfected.

A

Ultraviolet Storage Container

756
Q

The method used by living cells to process nutrient molecules and maintain a living state.

A

Cell metabolism

757
Q

This tissue serves as a protective covering for the body’s surfaces and organs. Example: skin and membranes

A

Epithelial Tissue

758
Q

Tissue that carries signals back and forth to the brain to coordinate and manage all bodily functions

A

Nerve Tissue

759
Q

Tissue that contracts when stimulated to produce movement of body parts.

A

Muscular Tissue

760
Q

Tissue that is a supporting protective layer that surrounds other tissue and organs. Specialized ones include bones, cartilage, ligaments, blood, and fat.

A

Connective Tissue

761
Q

This tissue is blood and lymph that carry waste, hormones, and food throughout the body

A

Liquid tissue

762
Q

The study of the microscopic anatomy of cells and tissues of plants and animals

A

Histology

763
Q

A thin membrane around the cytoplasm of a cell that controls passage of substances in and out of the cell; it can also be called the “cell wall”

A

Cell Membrane

764
Q

The watery material found between the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane. This contains substances that aid cellular growth and repair.

A

Cytoplasm

765
Q

The central part of the cell, separated by the nuclear membrane that contains DNA and RNA, which is responsible for growth and reproduction.

A

Nucleus

766
Q

The control center of the body

A

Brain

767
Q

Multi-chambered, muscular organ that maintains the flow of blood through the entire circulatory system.

A

Heart

768
Q

Two sac-like respiratory organs, which remove carbon dioxide from the blood while providing it with oxygen

A

Lungs

769
Q

Consists of membranous tissue, which covers the body and protects all internal structures.

A

Skin

770
Q

The principal organs for digesting food.

A

Stomach and intestines

771
Q

The organ(s) that maintain proper water and electrolyte balance and eliminate waste from the bloodstream.

A

Kidneys

772
Q

Secretes bile, a substance that aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. This organ is active in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins and helps to detoxify the body of poisons.

A

Liver

773
Q

A group of interacting or interdependent structures within the body that act together to perform a specific function.

A

Body systems

774
Q

This gland controls most every physiological process throughout the human body. It is responsible for growth, metabolism, sexual organ functions (for both men and women), contractions during childbirth, breast milk production, and blood pressure.

A

Pituitary gland

775
Q

This gland controls how quickly the body burns energy (metabolism), makes proteins, and how sensitive the body should be to other hormones.

A

Thyroid Gland

776
Q

The scientific study of the anatomy, structure, and function of bones

A

Osteology

777
Q

The physical foundation of the body; it is composed of 206 bones that are connected by movable and immovable joints.

A

Skeletal System

778
Q

The single largest and strongest facial bone that forms the lower jaw.

A

Mandible

779
Q

Refers to the cheekbones consisting of two bones, one on each side of the face, that form the upper part of the cheek and the lower part of the eye socket.

A

Zygomatic

780
Q

The small, thin bones located at the front inner wall of the eye sockets.

A

Lacrimal

781
Q

Consists of two bones that form the upper jaw

A

Maxilla

782
Q

Consists of two bones that form the bridge of the nose

A

Nasal bone

783
Q

The two spongy, spiral-shaped bones that form the inside walls of the nasal passage.

A

Turbinal/Turbinate

783
Q

The two spongy, spiral-shaped bones that form the inside walls of the nasal passage.

A

Turbinal/Turbinate

783
Q

The two spongy, spiral-shaped bones that form the inside walls of the nasal passage.

A

Turbinal/Turbinate

783
Q

The two spongy, spiral-shaped bones that form the inside walls of the nasal passage.

A

Turbinal/Turbinate

784
Q

A flat bone that forms the center of the nasal septum. The septum divides the nostrils.

A

Vomer

785
Q

A wedge-shaped bone that joins all the bones of the cranium.

A

Sphenoid

786
Q

Forms the roof of the mouth or the palate.

A

Palatine

787
Q

Calcified connective tissue made up of bone cells in various shapes. The hardest tissue in the body, except for the tissue that forms the major parts of the teeth.

A

Bones

788
Q

The hinges that hold the skeletal system together by connecting two or more bones. They can be movable, such as the knees and elbows. Others have no movement, like those located in the skull.

A

Joints

789
Q

Bands of cord-like tissue that support the joints, which connect the bones to one another. These are important because they provide support for the muscles and nerves, which permit movement of the body.

A

Ligaments

790
Q

Consist of seven bones that make up the portion of the spinal column located in the neck.

A

Cervical vertebrae

791
Q

A horseshoe- shaped bone located in the throat at the base of the tongue, also known as the Adam’s Apple

A

Hyoid

792
Q

A long bone, sometimes known as the collarbone, and is located at the upper part of the chest; connects the sternum and the scapula.

A

Clavicle

793
Q

A long, flat bone connecting and supporting the ribs; also known as the breast bone.

A

Sternum

794
Q

Consists of two large, flat bones that form the back part of the shoulder blades.

A

Scapula

795
Q

Twelve pairs of bones that are located on the lower part of the thorax

A

Ribs

796
Q

The bones located between the neck and abdomen, commonly known as the chest.

A

Thorax/Thoracic Cage

797
Q

The involuntary heart muscle, which produces movements to pump blood through the circulatory system.

A

Cardiac Muscle

798
Q

A group of three separate muscles, which are attached to the cartilage, found on the external part of the ear.

A

Auricularis

799
Q

Muscle located in front of the ear and can move the ear forward

A

Anterior Muscle

800
Q

Muscle located behind the ear and can move the ear backward.

A

Posterior Muscle

801
Q

Muscle located at the top of the ear and can move the ear upward.

A

Superior Muscle

802
Q

The muscle located between the eyebrows and pulls the eyebrows downward and wrinkles vertically

A

Corrugator Muscle

803
Q

The muscle that surrounds the entire eye socket, which allows the eyelid to close and open.

A

Orbicularis Oculi Muscle

804
Q

The muscle located at the bridge of the nose between the eyebrows. This muscle pulls the eyebrows down, causing wrinkling in that area.

A

Procerus Muscle

805
Q

The muscles located at the outside of the corner of the mouth that pull the mouth up and back; creating a smile

A

Zygomaticus Major and Minor Muscles

806
Q

The muscle that elevates the upper lip and flairs the nostrils.

A

Levator Labii Superioris Muscle

807
Q

The muscle located at the corner of the mouth and pulls the mouth up and out, creating a grin.

A

Risorius Muscle

808
Q

This muscle lies above the orbicularis oris and helps to lift the upper lips to produce a snarling expression

A

Levator Anguli Oris Muscle/Caninus Muscle

809
Q

The muscle in the cheek that aids in closing the jaw during chewing.

A

Masseter Muscle

810
Q

A thin, flat muscle located between the upper and lower jaw that compresses the cheek for blowing and chewing

A

Buccinator Muscle

811
Q

A band of flat muscle encompassing the entire mouth. This muscle is used in blowing, puckering, or whistling.

A

Orbicularis Oris Muscle

812
Q

A long muscle stretching from the corner of the mouth to the chin that will pull the mouth down, expressing sadness or despair.

A

Triangularis Muscle

813
Q

The muscle located below the lower lip and lowers it down and/or to the side, showing an expression of sarcasm

A

Depressor Labii Inferioris Muscle

814
Q

The muscle located at the tip of the chin, elevates the lower lip and wrinkles the chin.

A

Mentalis Muscle

815
Q

The masseter and temporalis work with both the lateral and medial _____ muscles to chew

A

Pteryoid

816
Q

A flat, triangular muscle that runs from the upper back to the back of the neck. This muscle moves the head back, rotates the shoulders and swings the arms.

A

Trapezius

817
Q

A major muscle that stretches across the front of the upper chest, enabling arms to swing

A

Pectoralis

818
Q

The system that controls the steady circulation of blood through the body. It includes the heart, blood vessels, lymph capillaries, and the blood itself.

A

Circulatory/Cardiovascular System

819
Q

An iron supporting protein, containing hemoglobin, which is responsible for the red color of blood due to its attraction and delivery of oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues. Also known as erythrocytes red corpuscles.

A

Red blood cells

820
Q

Large cells with no color, but play a necessary role in protecting the body against infection by attacking harmful microorganisms. Also known as white corpuscles or leukocytes.

A

White blood cells

821
Q

Consists of approximately 90% water and is the yellowish fluid part of the blood that contains the red and white blood cells and platelets.

A

Plasma

822
Q

The largest artery in the body

A

Aorta

823
Q

The small arteries that carry blood to capillaries

A

Arterioles

824
Q

Very tiny blood vessels that connect the arteries and the veins

A

Capillaries

825
Q

Small vessels that connect the capillaries veins.

A

Venules

826
Q

The left atrium and ventricle are separated by the _______

A

Mitral/Bicuspid valve

827
Q

The right atrium and ventricle are separated by the ______

A

Tricuspid Valve

828
Q

Consists of the pulmonary arteries and veins and sends the blood from the heart to the lungs for purification, then back to the heart

A

Pulmonary Circulation

829
Q

The process of sending blood from the heart to circulate throughout the body then returning it back to the heart

A

General/Systemic circulation

830
Q

Helps the blood flow to the nose, internal ear, eyes, eyelids, forehead, and brain

A

Internal Carotid Artery

831
Q

Helps blood flow to the neck, face, ear, sides of head, and front parts of the scalp

A

External Carotid Artery

832
Q

Delivers blood to the upper eyelids and forehead

A

Supraorbital Artery

833
Q

Delivers blood to the eye muscles

A

Infraorbital Artery

834
Q

Delivers blood to the scalp and muscles of the crown and back of head

A

Occipital Artery

835
Q

Delivers blood to the skin and scalp area

A

Posterior Auricular Artery

836
Q

Supplies blood to the front sides and top of the head

A

Superficial Temporal Artery

837
Q

Delivers blood to the upper eyelids and forehead

A

Frontal artery

838
Q

Delivers blood to the sides and crown of head

A

Parietal Artery

839
Q

Delivers blood to the cheek muscles and skin

A

Transverse Facial Artery

840
Q

Delivers blood to the temples

A

Middle Temporal Artery

841
Q

Delivers blood to the front area of the ears

A

Anterior Auricular Artery

842
Q

Delivers blood to the lower area of the face

A

Facial/External Maxillary Artery

843
Q

Delivers blood to the chin and bottom lip

A

Submental Artery

844
Q

Delivers blood to the bottom lip

A

Inferior Labial Artery

845
Q

Delivers blood to the sides of the nose

A

Angular Artery

846
Q

Delivers blood to the top lip and septum

A

Superior Labial Artery

847
Q

The vein that extends into the face, head, and along the sides to the base of the neck

A

Internal Jugular Vein

848
Q

The vein that stretches alongside of the neck, expanding into the head area

A

External Jugular Vein

849
Q

The system that consists of the spinal cord, spinal nerves, brain, and cranial nerves

A

Central Nervous System

850
Q

The system that consists of a group of nerves and nerve cells, connecting every part of the body to the central nervous system

A

Peripheral Nervous System

851
Q

The system that regulates involuntary oft functions, such as those of the heart and intestines. This system can be divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic, which perform in opposition to control heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure.

A

Autonomic Nervous System

852
Q

A nerve cell, or ____, is a basic working unit that transmits impulses to other areas of the body, such as muscles, glands, etc.

A

Neuron

853
Q

The center of the nerve cell

A

Nucleus

854
Q

Small fibers extending from the cell body that receive messages going into the nerve cell

A

Dendrites

855
Q

A thread-like addition from the nerve cell body that sends impulses outward to other muscles or glands

A

Axon

856
Q

Tree-like fibers that extend out from the end of an axon and nearly touch other nerve cells, muscles, or glands

A

Terminals/Synapses

857
Q

_________ fibers branch from the nervous system, regulating the function of the suderiferous and sebaceous glands. These nerve fibers may be activated through stress, bodily activity, or environmental temperatures.

A

Secretory Nerve

858
Q

The body’s automatic response to stimulus

A

Reflexes

859
Q

The largest cranial nerve. It is the major facial sensory nerve and is responsible for the muscle movement for chewing (masseter muscle)

A

Fifth Cranial Nerve/Trifacial/Trigeminal Nerve

860
Q

______ nerve area consists of the eye region or the top 1/3 of the face and head

A

Ophthalmic

861
Q

______ nerve area consists of the upper jaw bone, nose, and cheek region or middle 1/3 of the face

A

Maxillary

862
Q

______ nerve area consists of the lower jaw region or lower 1/3 of the face and head.

A

Mandibular

863
Q

______ nerve expands into the skin of the scalp, forehead, eyebrows, and upper eyelids

A

Supraorbital

864
Q

____ nerve expands into the skin of the upper sides of the nose and between the eyes

A

Supratrochlear

865
Q

_____ nerve expands into the skin and membrane of the nose.

A

Infratrochlear

866
Q

____ nerve expands into the skin of the tip and lower sides of the nose.

A

Nasal

867
Q

_____ nerve expands into the muscles of the upper area of the cheek

A

Zygomatic

868
Q

_____ nerve expands into the skin of the mouth, top lip, sides of the nose, and lower eyelids

A

Infraorbital

869
Q

________ nerve expands into the skin of the temple into the top of the skull and ear region.

A

Auriculotemporal

870
Q

_____ nerve expands into the skin of the bottom lip and chin area

A

Mental

871
Q

_____ nerve involves the muscles of the temples, upper cheeks, eyelids, eyebrows, and forehead.

A

Temporal Nerve

872
Q

____ nerve involves the muscles around the mouth

A

Buccal

873
Q

______ nerve involves the muscles of the bottom lip and chin

A

Mandibular

874
Q

______ nerves involve the platysma muscle and both sides of the neck

A

Cervical

875
Q

________ nerve involves the upper part of the Occipitalis muscle located at the back of the head.

A

Greater Occipital

876
Q

_____ nerve involves the lower part of the Occipitalis muscle located at the back of the head and ears.

A

Smaller Occipital

877
Q

______ nerve involves the sides of the neck and bottom of the ears.

A

Greater Auricular

878
Q

_______ nerve involves the sides and front of the neck and the sternum

A

Cervical Cutaneous

879
Q

These glands are located throughout the body, but are numerous on the face, palms, and feet. They are activated by heat or bodily activity. They secrete sweat/perspiration.

A

Eccrine Glands

880
Q

Glands located in the armpits and pubic area, and are activated by stress and/or puberty. Their glandular secretions are similar to sweat but a little thicker, creating a distinct body odor.

A

Apocrine Glands

881
Q

The thin layer of sebum and sweat that provides the skin a barrier in helping to resist dirt and germs from entering the body. It is acidic in pH, ranging from 4.5-5.5. It protects and nourishes the skin, creating softness and pliability.

A

Acid Mantle

882
Q

A major fibrous protein that maintains the skin’s firmness and form. It provides structural support by holding all other tissues together within the dermis. The fibers are weakened by moisture loss, excessive sun exposure, age, and weight fluctuation.

A

Collagen

883
Q

______ tissues are yellowish, elastic protein fibers that are interwoven with collagen fibers to provide the skin’s overall stretch. This tissue assists the skin’s flexibility in regaining its shape after repeated stretching or “wear-and-tear” on the skin.

A

Elastin

884
Q

Unstable molecules that cause wrinkling and sagging of the skin

A

Free Radicals

885
Q

_______ rays penetrate deep into the dermis of the skin and are considered responsible for increased skin aging and wrinkling. These are “aging” rays that penetrate glass and exposure is year-round, even in the winter and on cloudy days.

A

Ultraviolet-A (UVA)

886
Q

_____ rays are the strongest, penetrating into the epidermis. They are considered responsible for tanning or burning of the skin, depending on the length of exposure time and melanin production. These “burning” rays pose the risk of causing skin damage and/or possible skin cancer.

A

Ultraviolet-B (UVB)

887
Q

An over-direction of the tiny blood vessels, which produce a flushing, swollen, and broken blood vessel appearance to the face.

A

Telangiectasias

888
Q

An advanced condition of rosacea, producing papules and pustules that may contain pus. This skin disorder is sensitive, painful, and may be aggravated by certain foods, extreme temperature changes, nicotine and alcoholic beverages.

A

Acne Rosacea

889
Q

________ means the product has been designed and proven not to clog the follicles.

A

Noncomedogenic

890
Q

The most common type of non-contagious allergic reaction. It is caused by exposure to alkaline materials, such as soaps and chemicals. It’s characterized by itching, rash, inflammation, or blisters. In severe cases, it can burn and cause pain, leading to long term damage to the skin.

A

Irritant Contact Dermatitis

891
Q

A chronic non-contagious skin disorder that appears as rough, dry, red patches covered with silvery-white scales or crusts and is caused by an over-production of the stratum corneum skin cells.

A

Psoriasis

892
Q

Small, prominent, solid lumps enclosed within the epidermis that may extend into the dermis.

A

Tubercules

893
Q

A solid bump larger than one centimeter that can be easily felt. They generally appear having an inflamed base, which may be painful.

A

Nodule

894
Q

A closed, abnormally developed sac containing fluid, pus, and morbid matter. They can be located above and below the skin’s surface.

A

Cyst

895
Q

An abnormal solid mass or lump varying in size, shape, and color. This refers to any abnormal mass that can consist of a liquid or semi-solid material of bacteria, white blood cells, and dead skin cells. They’re either located in the epidermis or penetrate into the dermis and may be benign or malignant.

A

Tumor

896
Q

The flow of electrical current or change

A

Electricity

897
Q

A “switch” that automatically shuts off the flow of electricity at the first signs of an overload.

A

Circuit Breaker

898
Q

A device that switches AC (alternating current) to DC (direct current)

A

Converter

899
Q

The flow of positive and negative electric currents from a generating source through a conductor and back to the generating source.

A

Complete Electric Current

900
Q

A term used to promote electrical safety, which means the electrical current is safely carried away from you to the ground.

A

Grounding

901
Q

The currents used during electrical facial and scalp treatments. The most common are Galvanic Current and Tesla High Frequency Current.

A

Modalities

902
Q

Low level electrical currents that are similar to the electrical currents produced by the human body.

A

Microcurrents

903
Q

Electrotherapy method where the guest holds the electrode while you manually touch the area and continue the treatment.

A

Indirect Method

904
Q

The electrotherapy method where you place the electrode directly on the skin; your guest holds and/or touches nothing.

A

Direct Method

905
Q

The electrotherapy method where only your guest holds the electrode and you start the electric current, but you do not touch your guest.

A

General Method

906
Q

True or False?

The use of Tesla High Frequency Current should not be used on any guest who has blocked sinuses, high blood pressure, epilepsy, is pregnant, or if their body contains anything metal, such as implants or a pacemaker.

A

True

907
Q

(Galvanic Current Process) The positive pole that is controlled by the licensed professional.

A

Active Electrode

908
Q

(Galvanic Current Process) The negative pole that is held by your guest.

A

Inactive Electrode

909
Q

______ uses the positive pole to produce temporary effects on the area being treated

A

Cataphoresis

910
Q

_______ uses the negative pole to produce temporary effects on the area being treated

A

Anaphoresis

911
Q

______ uses the anaphoresis process on oily or acne prone skin. The alkaline solution, along with the electric current, will liquefy the sebum and dirt to aid in removal. This treatment provides a deep tissue cleansing by helping break up the dirt and hardened sebum located in the pores or hair follicles, which can create acne.

A

Desincrustation

912
Q

The distance between each repeated light wave’s crest

A

Wavelength

913
Q

The light therapy treatment that involves rapid light flashes to improve blood circulation, activate tissue healing, and reduce redness.

A

Light Emitting Diode (LED)

914
Q

A color component located within the skin, such as blood or melanin; the colors that LED lights search for. When found, a reaction occurs like reducing bacteria or stimulating circulation.

A

Chromaphores

915
Q

A type of light therapy that uses a variety of colors and broad spectrum wavelengths of focused light to achieve the desired result. It is used to treat conditions like spider veins, rosacea, redness, wrinkles, hypertrichosis, and hyperpigmentation. These treatments are only provided with qualified medical supervision.

A

Intense Pulse Light

916
Q

A type of UVB Light Therapy that is an effective treatment for skin infections. It penetrates the skin and slows the growth of affected skin cells. Treatment involves regularly exposing the skin to an artificial UVB light source for a specific length of time.

A

Phototherapy

917
Q

________ skin is characterized by the dilation of small blood vessels appearing at the surface of the skin. The small blood vessels or capillaries are weakened by expanding but not contracting back to normal size; therefore they appear more defined and easily seen through the skin.

A

Couperose

918
Q

A colorless, sweet, oily substance that is added to moisturizers to provide added slip and moisturizing properties.

A

Glycerin

919
Q

A triangular, large muscle, which covers the shoulder joint, allowing the arm to move outward and back into the body’s side.

A

Deltoid

920
Q

Muscles form the shape of the top and inner side of the upper arm. They raise the forearm and bend the elbow.

A

Bicep

921
Q

A large, muscle that wraps around the entire back of the upper arm and assists in extending the forearm

A

Tricep

922
Q

The muscle that moves toes and helps to maintain balance while standing and walking

A

Flexor Digitorum Brevis

923
Q

Nails with a concave depression in the middle of the nail; nail plate edges turn up; caused by genetics, illness, or nerve disorders

A

Koilonychia/Spoon Nail

924
Q

Nail slowly deteriorates, nail gets smaller and falls off; caused by internal disease or injury to matrix

A

Onychatrophia/Atrophy

925
Q

Nail plate develops an abnormal thickening in width, not length; caused by genetics, injury, aging, or a systemic problem

A

Onychauxis/Hypertrophy

926
Q

Complete shedding of the nail plate, starting with a groove at the base of the nail; caused by local infection, cancer treatments, or nail bed injury

A

Onychomadesis

927
Q

Nail plate edges fold down into the nail walls at a 90 degree angle, either on one or both sides; caused by shoe pressure, nail bed deformity, genetics, or ingrown nail

A

Plicatured Nail/Folded Nail

928
Q

Brown or black ‘splinters’ under the nail plate; caused by injury to the nail bed that causes damage to the capillaries

A

Splinter hemorrhage

929
Q

Edges of nail plate fold inward as nail grows, sometimes curling in completely, giving nail a cone shape; caused by improper shoe fit, genetics, or nail bed deformity

A

Trumpet/Pincer Nail

930
Q

A small, hard flesh-colored or red lump under or beside the nail; caused by infection in epidermal layer of skin, caused by a virus, and is infectious

A

Verruca/Wart