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BIOM*3200. UOG > term test 3- Cardiac, Neuro and Digestion > Flashcards

term test 3- Cardiac, Neuro and Digestion Flashcards

1
Q

where does most of the blood lie in the circulatory system?

A

venous system, followed by lungs or systemerric arteries, then the heart, then the capillaries.

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2
Q

why is the venous system contain the most blood?

A

it acts as a reservoir.

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3
Q

what are the body parts involved in the air passage way? name them in order.

A

nasal cavity/oral cavity>pharynx>larynx>trachea>bronchus>bronchial tress>terminal bronchioles>alveolar sac>alveolus

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4
Q

go into detail about the larynx

A

its where air is deviderted towards the lungs and food is deverted toward the stomach. it also contains the vocal cords (lining tissues of the larynx
)

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5
Q

go into detail about the pharynx

A

its a muscular passage (throat) and paired with an epiglottis.

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6
Q

how does air pass from one alveolus to another?

A

pores

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7
Q

describe what happens when you breath in, and out

A

chest expands, ribs separate the diaphragm contracts (pulls down*)
chest contracts, lungs shrink, and diaphragm relaxes (expands*)

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8
Q

what are the “needs” for inspiration to occur

A

the lungs must be able to expand when stretched- and they must have high compliance (stretch ability and dispensability)

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9
Q

what is lung compliance?

A

its the change in lung volume per change in trans pulmonary pressure. lung disease reduces compliance.

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10
Q

what is the formula for compliance?

A

dV/dP

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11
Q

what is the difference between expiration and elasticity?

A

expiration is when the lungs must get smaller when tension is released. they must have elasticity.
elasticity is the tendancy of a structure to return to its initial size after being distended.

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12
Q

why/ how are the lungs elastic?

A

content of elastin proteins, the lungs are normally stuck to the chest wall, so they are always in a state of elastic tension. it ^ during inspiration and decreases during expiration.

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13
Q

what is an interesting property of the lungs, that make it impossible to breath with a chest wound

A

ion order to inflate the lung MUST be attached to the inner wall of the chest cavity. the attachment is make with membranes called pleural membranes!

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14
Q

what are pleural membranes? PMs

A

one membrane layer attached to the surface of the lung, and one membrane layer attached to the inner wall of the chest cavity. it produces a mucous-rich layer called pleural fluid ,into the space between the pleural space (PS).
* it holds the membranes together.

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15
Q

how des surface tension play a role in respiration

A

its exerted by fluid in the alveoli.
(the fluid contains surfactant, released by type 2 alveolar cells, this fluid lowers surface tension, and stops alveoli from collapsing during expiration.)

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16
Q

Explain respiratory Distress syndrome.

A

pre-mature babies do not have sufficient surfactant and their aleveoli are collapsed. Eventually they will develop it, but will need to be on special machines until they mature enough.

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17
Q

where can you find anatomical dead space?

A

nose, mouth, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronhciloes (no gas exchange occurs, and is about 150 ml)

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18
Q

what are two interesting properties of hemoglobin

A

it chemically combines with O2, and can also release the gas when cells need it.
hemoglobin acts as an O2 shuttle from the lungs to body tissues

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19
Q

what is the role of CO2 in regulating the binding of O2 with hemoglobin in the lungs?

A

Co2 difusses from the blood to the alveoli and blood Co2 levels are low. this reduces the acidity of blood in the lungs

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20
Q

what is the role of CO2 in regulating the binding of O2 with hemoglobin in the tissues?

A

blood CO2 levels are high because the cells produce the gas as an excretory product and O2 levels are low because it is being used by cells this increases the acidity of blood in the tissues.

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21
Q

what role does acidity in the plasma play?

A

it determines whether O2 combines with hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin or whether O2 is released from oxyhemoglobin.

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22
Q

when does blood acidity decrease?

A

when CO2 diffuses from the plasma to the alveolar sac allowing O2 to combine with Hb to form oxyhemoglobin

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23
Q

when does blood acidity increase?

A

when CO2 difusses from body cells to the plasma causing oxyhemoglobin to dissociate into Hb and O2; the O2 diffuses into the body cells.

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24
Q

explain CO2 transport in the general body tissues?

A

the constant production of CO2 causes the bicarbonate equation in the red blood cells

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25
Q

explain CO2 transport in the lungs

A

CO2 is being lost to the alveolar air sac,

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26
Q

how does total atmospheric pressure increase?

A

it increases by one atm for every 10m below see level.

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27
Q

humanswould not be able to go past 30m. but they can due to the mammalian diving reflex. name the reflexes

A

drop in heart rate
vasoconstriction
spleen releases RBS’s carrying O2
blood shift-plasma fills up lung BV

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28
Q

name some problems with diving

A

cardiac arrest, black outs, hyper-gas narcosis

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29
Q

what is special about SCUBA’s?

A

they are composed of mix air (nitrogen included)

must ascend slowly to avoid nitrogen bubbles to enter blood. (pain is called the bends)

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30
Q

whats the treatment for the bends?

A

hyperbaric oxygen therapy. (given O2 at 100% at 3 atm, to raise the plasma concentration.

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31
Q

`what is acute mountain sickness?

A 
when higher than 5000 feet. 
headaches, low arterial pressure 
blanace with hypocapnia causes cerebral vasoconstriction. 
9000 feet= pulmonary edema, 
10,000 feet= cerebral edema
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32
Q

how do veins return blood to the heart?

A

the pressure is too low to return the blood, so they have extra layers of muscle (to expand). and they pass between skeletal muscle groups which provide contractions to help move blood back .

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33
Q

what makes blood stop from pouring back into the venous system?

A

venous valves.

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34
Q

exmplane how large arteries react to blood pressure changes?

A

they have layers of elastin fibers between the smooth muscles cells of the tunica media. they expand when the pressure rises, as a result of the ventricles contraction. (the retract when the blood pressure falls)

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35
Q

explain how small arteries react to blood pressure changes?

A

are less elastic and so their diameter only changes slightly.

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36
Q

what increases/decreases blood flow to the capillary bed?

A

vasoconstriction decreases blood flow, and vasodilation increases it.

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37
Q

describe the phenotype of capilaries

A

they are once endothelial cell thick,

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38
Q

what are the muscle layers of a large artery, medium artery, and arteriole,

A

large: tunica externa>tunica media>tunica interna (elastic layer>endothelium)
medium: tunica externa> tunica media> tunica interna
srteriole: prepaillary sphincter>endothelium>lumen

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39
Q

what are the layers of a large vein, medium vein, and a venule.

A

large: tunica externa> tunica media>endothelium>tunica interna>lumen.
medium: tunica externa>tunica media> tunica interna>valve
venule> tunica externa>endothelium>valve.

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40
Q

which side of the heart woks harder, and which side is thicker.

A

Lv works harder (5-7x), and has a thicker wall (almost 2-3 x)

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41
Q

what prevents backflow of blood?

A

valves.

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42
Q

name all 4 valves, and where they are located.

A

AV valve (between RA and RV): tricuspid valve
AV valve (between LA and LV) bicuspid valve
pulmonary semilunar valve (between pulmonary artery and RV)
Aortic Semilunear valve (between LV and aorta)

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43
Q

when do the valves open and how?

A

they are controlled by pressure and contractions. when the ventricles contract the valves open, and during the time venricular relaxation, the semilyar valves snap shut so blood doesnt flow back.

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44
Q

what is the muscle wall called between the RV and LV?

A

interventricular septem.

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45
Q

what are the strong muscles found in the RV and LV called?

A

papillary muscles.

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46
Q

describe the blood flow in a heart beat.

A

both atria fill with blood then contract simultanerously sending blood to ventricles. this is followed by simultaneous contractions of both ventricles (0.1-0.2 seconds later).

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47
Q

explain the difference between disable volume and synodic volume?

A

the heart can never fully empty, and you can find out how much it can hold by measuring its biggest volume (end disable volume) and subtracting its smallest volume (synodic volume).
the stroke volume is all the blood that leaves the heart after one pump.

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48
Q

how do you measure the cardiac out put?

A

its the “Heart rate x Stroke volume= CO”

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49
Q

what happens to stroke volume when your heart is beating faster?

A

it goes down.

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50
Q

what is an average cardiac rate?

A

75 bpm, and each cycle lasts 0.8 seconds.

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51
Q

what are the 3 regions of the hart that can spontaneously generate action potential?

A
  1. Senatorial node can function as a pacemaker.
  2. Av node
  3. purkinje fibers.
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52
Q

how are the AP originated at the SA node

A

they spread to adjacent myocutes in the RA and LA through gap junctions. however the atria and ventricles are searated so specialized cells are needed to mvoe the imulse atria to ventricles. these are specialized myocardial cells in the AV node.

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53
Q

explain the movement of the impulse from the SA node.

A

goes to AV node
continues through AV bundle
descends down the intraventricular septum, divides the right and left with purkinje fibers in the ventricle wall
spreads from endocardium to epicardium causing both ventricles to contract simultaneously.

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54
Q

what machine measures the potential differences generated by the heart? and what are the recordings called?

A

electrocardiograph, and the recording is called an electrocardiogram (ECG). the results are from the production and conduction of AP in the heart.

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55
Q

what are heart muscle cells called?

A

myocardial cells. they contain actin filaments and myosin filaments arranged int he form of sarcomeres.

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56
Q

how do myocytes connect, and what is that important?

A

they conenct via gap juncitons at the ends of each myocardial cell, which permits electrical impulses to be conducted cell to cell. these gap junctions stain as intercalated discs.

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57
Q

how does an electrical signal cause a heart muscle to contract?

A

cardiac AP originate in the SA node, contraction follows Ca2+ induced Ca2+ releas: Ca2+ enters myocytes cytoplasm through voltage gated channels in cell membrante, these stimylate opening of Ca2+ release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum SR. So Ca2+ from the voltage channels serves as messenger for Ca2+ release channels.
for the heart muscle to relax, Ca2+ in cytoplasm must be pumped back into the SR>

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58
Q

describe excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle in 5 simple steps. (starting with voltage gated calcium channels opening)

A
  1. Ca2+ diffuses from ECF to cytoplasm
  2. Ca2+ release channels on SR open.
  3. Ca2+ released form SR binds to sarcomere stimulates contraction
  4. Ca2+ ATPase pumps calcium bac into SR
  5. Myocardial cells relaxes.
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59
Q

describe the microanatomy of muscle cells

A

cells are arranged into long, rod-shaped organelles that are called myofibrils.
the myofibril rods have a distinct straited pattern of alternating light and dark bands.

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60
Q

what are z-discs?

A

they are proteins that act as anchors for thin protein filaments; these consist of a protein called actin, and other proteins

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61
Q

what are sarcomeres?

A

they are section of the fibre between Z-discs.

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62
Q

what is happens when muscles contract?

A

the thin filaments slide past one another, and the Z-discs move closer together. the overlapping of the thin and thick filaments gives the striated patter. they contractions are caused by the swiveling of the head on the thick filaments.

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63
Q

what are thick filaments?

A

they are made up of rod-shaped proteins, that have an angular head at one end.

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64
Q

what are the major molecues that play in muscle contraction?

A

actin, myosin
tropomysosin (attached to actin)
and troponin complex (3 subunits attached to tropomyosin).

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65
Q

explain the contraction process

A

myosin head has an actin bindin site (BS) and an ATP-BS. when ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP, myosin head is activated and changes orientation.
attachment of Ca2+ to troponin causes movemen of the troponin-tropomyosin complex, exposing BS on actin. Myosin cross bridges attach to actin and undergo a power stroke.

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66
Q

what are the differences between cardiac and skeletal muscle contractions?

A

skeletal requires external stimulation by somatic motor nerves, they are long and fibrous, and they have direct excitation contraction coupling between the transverse tubules and SR

cardia produces AP automatically form the SA node, they are short, branched and interconnected (gap juncitons), and here the Ca2+ channels inthe plasma membrane, and the Ca2+ release channels in the AR do not directly interact, instead its induces, and released.

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67
Q

what 3 resistance factors effect blood flow?

A
  1. tube/blood vessel length
  2. viscosity of the blood
  3. tube/blood vessel radius
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68
Q

whats the number 1 leading cause of death?

A

cardiac vascular disease with coronary heart disease as number 1.

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69
Q

What is coronary artery disease CAD

A

when you have plaque build-up in or or more of the 3 coronary arteries. if it obstructs blood flow it causes pain. it if interrupts blood flow it cases a myocardial infraction (heart attack)

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70
Q

what is a congestive heart?

A

is when the heart walls are not portioned correctly (lack or too much muscle). leads to insufficient flow, and can cause water retention or edema because of the back-up of blood in the heart.

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71
Q

how can you treat congestive?

A

b-blockers: they target beta receptor, (hear mostly b1-adrenergic receptors) the b-receptors bind catecholamines, thus b-clockers are blocking binding and reducing heart rate. this also acts on the RAAS system of the kidneys, and dilates the arteries.

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72
Q

What ia an Aneurysm?

A

caused by weakling of the vessel walls, and causes the artery to bulge.

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73
Q

what is anatomy, and what is the anatomy of the nervous sytem?

A

anatomy= nervous system structure. it breaks down into two divisions:
Central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)
Peripheral nervous system (nerves and ganglia)

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74
Q

what is physiology, and what are the 3 functions of the nervous system?

A

its the function fo the nervous system.

  1. control of movement and some functions (motor nerves)
  2. detection of external stimuli (sensory nerves)
  3. integration of neuronal activity and connections: (association neuron).
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75
Q

what are the two things neurons really do?

A
  1. conduct electrical signals (AP)

2. Release “chemical” signals (neurotransmitters)

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76
Q

what is a dendrite?

A

receives information from sensory receptor and sends it to the cell body.

77
Q

what is an axon?

A

it delivers electric signals from the cell body to another neuron or an effector organ.

78
Q

what does a neuron do?

A

it moves information rapidly by conducting electrical impulses called AP from one physical location to another, then converting the electrical impulse to a chemical signal at a synapse.

79
Q

what is the functional classification and how is it classified?

A

the classification is based on the direction in which the neuron conducts impulses

  • sensory or afferent neurons conduct impulses from sensory receptors into the CNS. (to CNS)
  • association or interneurons are located entirely within the CNS and help integrate CNS functions. (neruon to neuron)
  • motor of efferent neurons conduct impulses from sensory receptors out of the SNA (from CNS)
80
Q

what are somatic motor neurons?

A

reflex and voluntary control of skeletal muscles.

81
Q

autonomic motor neurons are?

A

involuntary contractions of smooth muscle, cardia muscle, and glands.

82
Q

what are autonomic neurons?

A

further subdivided as sympathetic and parasympathetic.

83
Q

what are the 4 types of neurons?

A
  1. pseudopolar, sensory and 1 process that splits
  2. bipolar, retinal and cochlear, 2 process,
  3. multipolar, most common, motor and association, many dendrites but on axon
  4. anaxonic, some CNS neurons, no obvious axon.
84
Q

name the supporting cells and their role in PNS

A
  1. schwann cells- form myelin sheaths around PNS neuron axons
  2. satellite cells- support neuron cell bodies with ganglia of the PNS
85
Q

name the supporting cells and their role in CNS

A
  • oligodendrocytes: form myelin sheaths around neuron axons
  • microglia- migrate through CNS & phagocytosis
  • Astrocytes- help regulates external environement neurons in CNS
  • Epedymanl cells- line the ventricles (cavities) brain and spinal cord.
86
Q

whats the different between wrapping of PNS and CNS supproting cells?

A

PNS- successive wrapping of schwann cells membrane around one axon, cytoplasm on outside
CNS- one oligodendrocyte forms myelin sheaths around several axons.

87
Q

what is special about astrocytes:

A

they are the most abundant glial cells in the CNS, constituting up to 90% of the the nervous tissue in some areas of the brain. processes terminate “end feet” at capillaries, other at neurons, thus they can influence interactions between neurons and blood.
they are needed for the formation of synapses in the CNS. they regulate neurogenesis in the brain. they help with blood brain barrier, and they release neurotransmitter that can stimulate or inhibit activity of neurons.

88
Q

how do supporting cells of the CNS function?

A

they take up K+ from ECF may help maintain proper ionic environment for neurons. can take up neurotransmitter glutamate and transform it to glutamine which can be released into neurons and reform into glutamate. the end feet surrounding blood capillaries take up glucose form blood, metabolize it to lactate, then release it for use as energy source by neurons.

89
Q

why is the blood brain barrier so different?

A

capillaries in the brain do not posses pores between adjacent endothelial cells. instead they are joined by tight junctions. this is to monitor and control the movement of molecules/ions.
*astrocytes influence the structure and function of the blood brain barrier.

90
Q

drwhat can and cant enter?

A

some drugs (nicotine, tylenol ect) can enter, and some cant. viruses can enter (rabis) and immune cells and antibodies cant.

91
Q

what are the two classes of motor neurons?

A

somatic and autonomic.

92
Q

what are somatic cells?

A

have cel bodies in the CNS and send axons to skeletal muscles.

93
Q

what are autonomic cells?

A

involved two neurons in efferent pathways. 1st is the cell body in the CNS grey matter. this axon does not directly innervate the effector organ, but instead synapses with a 2nd neuron in this pathway called a postganglionic neuron, that has an axon that extends from the autonomic ganglion to an effector organ, where it synapses with the target tissue.

94
Q

what are the divisions in the autonomic nervous sytem?

A 
parasympathetic division (rest and digest)
sympathetic division (flight or fright)
they mediate opposing responses in effector organs.
95
Q

what organs do not have dual innervation betwen the para and sympathetic division?

A

adrenal medulla, arrector pili muscles in the skin, sweat glands int he skin and most blood vessels.
they are controlled by the tone of the sympathetic fibers.

96
Q

how are autonomic nerves classigeid? and what are the classifications?

A 
based on primary neurotransmitter released across the synapses
acetylcholin ACh
norepinephrine NE
cholinergic neurons= release ACh
adrenergic neurons= release NE
97
Q

What is special about the ACh?

A

its the neurotransmitter for all pre ganglionic fibers (cholinergic)
its released by most parasympathetic postganglionic fibers at their synapses with effector cells. (cholinergic)
its released by most sympathetic nerve fibers is NE. (adrenergic)

98
Q

what disease can affect the ANS?

A

lyme disease, or ANS dysfunction happens from a bite of an infected parasite (ticks)

99
Q

what are the types of ways molecules can get across the cell membrane?

A

a. simple diffusion (small, uncharged, lipid soluble, go right through, and charged molecules can diffuse through water-filled pores), ion channels, “leaky vs voltage gated”
b. active transport (move ions against the gradient) *needs energy in ATP form.

100
Q

what form of diffusion is important for nerve cells?

A

ion, to help produce electrical impulses that transmit information rapidly.

101
Q

integral membrane proteins can act as?

A

transporters

102
Q

what is the resting membrane?

A

its the cells that have a potential difference (voltage). he inside of the cell is negatively charged compared to the outside. (in neurons its -70mV)

103
Q

how are electrical signlas conducted in neurons?

A

the voltage channels open, and change the membrane potential

104
Q

what are action potentials?

A

they are momentary discharges (depolarizations) of the resting membrane potentials caused by a rapid influx of Na+ caused by the opening of sodium ion channels.

105
Q

explain the ion gating in axons.

A
  1. channel closed at resting membrane potential
  2. gated channel opens in response to depolarization
  3. gated channel closes.
106
Q

what is depolarization?

A

Na+ flowing into the cell, making it positive or hypopolarizaion. it moves from a -70mV resting to a depolarize +30mV.
Na+ channels close now, and there is a rapid decrease in Na+ permeability.

107
Q

what is repolarization?

A

its the compensation of cells, to repolarize the cell (bring the charge down) K+ will diffuse out of the cell, and restoring the original resting membrane.

108
Q

how tdo NA and K work together?

A

the pumps are consteantly working in the plasma membrane making the Na (that pumped in during the AP) move out, and the K back in. the K and Na are voltage-regulated channels.

109
Q

AP’s are also known as?

A

spikes.

110
Q

how are AP’s in non-myelinated axons vs. myelinated?`

A

they run smoothly along the action, and all parts of the membrane are depolarize.
in myelinated, the AP jumps between the non-isolated nodes by salutatory conduction. (makes it faster and needs less energy.

111
Q

how are salsatory conductions different?

A

the refractory period (in the spaces between or in unmyelinated neuron) helps ensure the AP only goes in one direction down the axon.

112
Q

the “second cell” can be what in the CNS and SNS?

A

the AP from the first axon, will stimulate the next. and in CNA that will be a second neuron. in the PNS it may be a neuron, or an effector cell within a muscle or gland.

113
Q

how does an AP move across neuron?

A

presynaptic nerve ending releases neurotransmitters that stimulate APs in the postsynaptic cell. the to neurons are separated by a tiny cleft. bascally on one side the eurotransmitter binds to its receptor on the dendrite, which causes ion channels on the postsynaptic dendrite membrane to open. the gate are chemically regulated and it stimulates the cell to produce AP.

114
Q

how can you meaure the membrane potentioals?

A

“patch clamp” technique.

115
Q

what can cause neuromuscular disorders where the relaxation of skeletal muscle is delayed to after voluntary contraction or electrical stimulation.

A

mutations in muscle Cl- channel
channel gates don’t open properly
repolarization delayed, several APs fire instead of just one.

116
Q

what is gray matter?

A

it contains neuron cell bodies and dendrites, its found in the cortex of the brain and deeper within the brain in aggregations known as nuclei.

117
Q

what is white matter?

A

it consist of axon tracts that underlie the cortex, and that surround the nuclei.

118
Q

in addition to the skull and meninges the brain is protected by what?

A

two fluid cushions that give some protection for the brain against head traumas

119
Q

what is another name for outer and inner cavity?

A 
outer= superior sagittal sinus sss
inner= subarachnoid space sas
120
Q

what are the cavities (ventricles) of the brain and spinal cord filled with?

A

cerebrospinal fluid CSF. it provides protection, and fills the hallow space. its similar in composition to blood plasma, and is formed from plasma by clusters of capillaries in the ventricles called choroid plexus. its continuously forms, and continually returned to the blood via arachnoid villi..

121
Q

what is epidural anesthesia?

A

its the placement of anesthetic in space between dura mater and spinal column.

122
Q

the spinal cord contains what?

A

mixed nerve of sensory, and motor fibers, packed together but they separate near the attachment of the nerve to the spinal cord. it functions as the conduit between the PNS ad brain. its hallow tube, filled with CSF.

123
Q

what is the spinal cord protected by?

A

its protected by the vertebral column (spine). which is partially articulated, but provides protection for the spinal cord in the vertebral foramen of each vertebra. nerves enter or leave the spinal cord in between the vertebrae.

124
Q

describe the spine?

A

it has inner grey matter and an outer white matter shell. the sensory nerves bring signals in, and the motor neurons carry impulses out.

125
Q

what is the link between the spinal cord and the PNS?

A

the interneurons can communicate with one another along the length of the spinal cord. and afferent sensory stimulus can be translated up or down the spinal cord by the interneurons. some stimuli are transferred to the brain, and the motor response is initiated in the brain. other responses to stimuli are initiated within the spinal cord; these are called reflexes.

126
Q

what are relexes?

A

rapid involuntary responses to stimuli. most reflex responses involve motor responses at different level of the spinal cord. the interneurons communicate with one another, both up and down the spinal cord in an intricate manner.

127
Q

what are the two kinds of reflexes?

A
  1. somatic: they stimulate the skeletal muscles
  2. autonomic reflexes they regulate smooth muscles and cardiac muscle activity, and secretion of glands ,such as digestive glands.
128
Q

what iss paraplegia?

A

paralysis of the lower limbs on both sides as a result of lower spinal cord damage

129
Q

what is quadriplegia?

A

paralysis of upper and lower limbs on both sides as a result of damage to the upper region of the spinal cord or brain.

130
Q

what is the pirpus of the midbrain and hindbrain?

A

they contain many relay centers for sensory and motor pathways and are particularly important in the brains control of skeletal movements.

131
Q

what is the cerebrum?

A

its connected internally by the corpus callosum. performs most of what are considered to be the higher functions of the brain.

132
Q

frontal lobe?

A

motor control

133
Q

occipital lobe?

A

vision and coordination of eye movements

134
Q

parietal lobe?

A

perception of somatesthics sensation-sensation arising from cutaneous, muscle, tendon and joint receptors.

135
Q

temporal lobe?

A

interpretation and association of auditory and visual information.

136
Q

insula?

A

a region buried deep within the lateral sulcus-division between the frontal and temporal lobes. implicated in encoding memory, integration of sensory information with visceral responses. receives olfactory, gustatory, auditory, and somatosensory information.

137
Q

what is cerebral lateralization?

A

both hemispheres receive information from the other side of the body, but they communicate via the corpus callosum

138
Q

what is cerebral dominance, and what does each hemisphere specialize?

A

the one hemisphere is good at something, and a person may use one side of the brain more over the other.
damage to right: difficulty with special concepts, maps
damage to the left: severe speech problems, but may be able to sing unaffected.

139
Q

what is some important features of the cerebral cortex?

A

sheets of gray matter tissue that covers the cerebrum, and is divided into L, and R hemispheres. its important in emotion and memory. people with damage to the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex experience severe impulsive behavior verging on sociopathic.

140
Q

what is the thalamus?

A

relay enter through which all sensory information (except smell) passes on the way to the cerebrum. it promotes alertness and causes arousal from sleep in response to any sufficiently strong sensory stimulus.

141
Q

what is the epithalamus?

A

dorsal segment, contains the pineal gland, which secretes melatonin.

142
Q

what is the hypothalamus?

A

its the most inferior portion of the diencephalon. its the master clock of the SCN. it regulates the hunger, thirst, regulation of body temperature. hormones secretion from the pituitary gland and it contributes to the regulation of sleep and wake.

143
Q

the mid brain has 2 systems of dopaminergic neurons that prohect into other areas of the brain, what are they?

A
  1. nigrostriatal dopamine system, involved in motor control.

2. mesolimbic dopamine system, involved in emotional reward.

144
Q

cell bodies of daminergic neurons are highly concentrated where?

A

MIDBRAIN

145
Q

overactivity of what region may contribute to schizophrenia?

A

the mesolimbic dopamine system.

146
Q

the cerebellum does what?

A

monitors and refines motor activity initiates elsewhere. I receives input from proprioceptors and together with signals from the motor areas of the cerebral cortex, it participates in coordination of movement.

147
Q

the cerebellum is required for?

A

motor learning, coordinating the movement of different joints during a movement, and proper timing and force required for movements.

148
Q

what is the importance of the medulla?

A

all ascending and descending fiber tracts providing communication between spinal cord and brain must pass through the medulla. required for regulation of breathing CV responses.

149
Q

what is autism?

A

its a pervasice developmental disorder, it affects speech, motor skill and social interaction. (parts of the cerebellum are underdeveloped in autistics). basically the theory is that all 5 senses get information at once, and the brain is over stimulated.

150
Q

what is the autism spectrum?

A 
Asperger syndrome (AS): possibly- hyper focus, mild movement disorder and lack of social cutes. 
pervasice developmental disorders (PDD)
same range of the same things.
151
Q

what is digestion?

A

breakdown of ingested food
absorption of nutrients into the blood
concentration and removal of waste products

152
Q

what is metabolism?

A

production of cellular energy (ATP)

regulation of cellular activates

153
Q

what is included in the alimentary canal?

A

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine, and anus.

154
Q

describe the tongue.

A

its covered in many backwards facing projection called filliform papillae, which senses pressure.

155
Q

what are accessory organs?

A

liver, gall bladder, pancreas salivary glands

156
Q

what are the funcitons of the salivary glands

A

lubricating/binding
solubilization of dry food
oral hygiene
begins starch digestion (salivary amylases)
alkaline buffering
evaporative cooling (specifically in dogs)

157
Q

what is mastication?

A

the act of chewing with teeth

158
Q

name and define the teeth

A

insisors: rip and cut
cranines: tear, pierce
premolars: grind and shear
molars: grind.

159
Q

what is deglutition?

A

swallowing, includes the oral, pharyngeal and esophageal.
mouth, pharynx, upper esophagus- muscle innervated by somatic motor
middle and lower esophagus- muscles innervated by autonomic neurons.

160
Q

what is peristalsis?

A

food moved by a wave-like muscular contraction.

moves from the esophagus all the way thrugh the pylorus into the duodenum.

161
Q

how is food moved in the oral cavity to the stomach

A

mouth/pharynx/upper esophagus- muscles innervated by somatic motor neurons.
middle and lower esophagus- muscles innervated by autonomic neurons

162
Q

what is the musculature of the stomach

A

circular, longitudinal, ad oblique fibers arranged perpendicularly to provide complex motility.

163
Q

what does the mucosal region found in the bottom of the stomach have?

A

contains gastric pits which are the openings of the gastric glands and gastric glands consist of several types fo cell, and each cell type produces a specific secretion.

164
Q

what are the 3 cells found in the gastric glads, and what do they secrete?

A

mucous cells: mucus ,
parietal cells: HCl
chief cells: pepsinogen

165
Q

what stops the stomach from eating its self?

A

mucus, specific enzyme activation.

166
Q

what causes a peptic ulcer?

A

the erosings of mucosa, which can be cause by helicobacter pulori.

167
Q

what does pepsinogen and HCl do?

A

HCl activates the enzyme pepsinogen to form pepsin, which can digest proteins into small polypeptides.

168
Q

what are the small intestine regions?

A

duodenum (mucous secretion, receives pancreatic secretions and bile from liver)
jejunum (numerous folds and villi)
ileum (less folds/villi, absorbs primarily bile salts, water, electrolytes, contains peyer’s patches, and empties into large intestine via ilieocecal valve.

169
Q

what neutralizes the chyme’s acidity>

A

alkaline bile from liver.

170
Q

what are microvilli?

A

are formed by foldings at the apical suface of each epithelial cell membrane. they are on the surface of the cell, with enzymes on them.

171
Q

villi are covered in what?

A

columnar epithelial cells

172
Q

what do goblet cells secrete?

A

mucous

173
Q

what are the intestinal crypts?

A

this location is where new epithelial cells are being made and pushed out off, in the instance where old cells deteriorate.

174
Q

what are paneth cells

A

they are at the base of the crypts secrete antibacterial molecules to protect the intestine from inflammation.

175
Q

what are brush border enzymes?

A

they attach to the cell membrane of the microvilli in the small intestine.

176
Q

what is the bacterial influence in the colon?

A

bacteria is essential in the role of digestion. good bacteria out compete pathogenic bateria, and the colon reacts to pathogenic bacteria by eliminating contents, sloughing off the epithelium (diarrhea)

177
Q

what is the appendix?

A

small component of the colon, thought to contain a reservoir of good bacteria for recolonization. it likely contains lymph vessels.
it is subjected to inflammation (appendicites)
a ruptured appendendix can cause inflammation in the peritoneal cavity (peritonitis).

178
Q

why is bateria good?

A

well its established in our gut form early diet intake, and it linked to serotonin concentrations in the brain in adulthood.

179
Q

what are the accessory organs of digestion?

A

pancreas, liver, and gallbladder

180
Q

explain the role of the liver

A

made up of hepatic cells, lining large capillaries called sinusoids, sinusoids also lined by edothelial cells, and contain kupffer cells.
the liver is also regenerative.

181
Q

what are the blood inputs for the liver?

A

the portal vein (coming from intestines) and hepatic artery (blood from heart to liver)

182
Q

what is the livers endocrine function

A

the enzymes and hormones of the liver do their thing, and output gets sent into the hepatic vien and that does on back to the heart, so the nutrients loaded into there can get pumped through the while body, the exocrine regions, R and L hepatic ducts that come from the liver. (makes bile).

183
Q

what is bile? where is it stored?

A

its stored in the gall bladder. bile travels down the cystic duct and meets up with the hepatic ducts and together they form the common bile duct into the intestine.

184
Q

what are the 5 major categories of liver function?

A 
detoxication of blood
carbohydrate metabolism
lipid metabolism
protein synthesis
secretion of bile
185
Q

how is bilirubin formed?

A

its a derivative of the heme group, and is carried in the blood on albumin proteins. its taken up by the liver, mixed with glucoronic acid, and now is water soluble to be secreted into bile. some

186
Q

what are gallsontes?

A

they are mineral concentrations that piled up to form little stones. they are removed surgically, or by high energy shock waves, or by ingestion of bile acids.

187
Q

what are 3 main enzymes found in pancreatic juices?

A

amylase- digest starch
trypsin- digest proteins
lipase- digest triglycerides

188
Q

digestion requires both __________ enzymes and ______________________ enzymes.

A

pancreatic/brush border. Trypsin is activated by the brush border enzymes.

189
Q

the pancrease is both what?

A
  1. an endocrine gland (releasses hormones)

2. digestive organ (releases digestive enzymes)

BIOM*3200. UOG (3 decks)

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