Term Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following best describes an implicit deny principle?
A. All actions that are not expressly denied are allowed.
B. All actions that are not expressly allowed are denied.
C. All actions must be expressly denied.
D. None of the above

A

B. All actions that are not expressly allowed are denied

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2
Q

What is the intent of least privilege?
A. Enforce the most restrictive rights required by users to run system processes.
B. Enforce the least restrictive rights required by users to run system processes.
C. Enforce the most restrictive rights required by users to complete assigned tasks.
D. Enforce the least restrictive rights required by users to complete assigned tasks.

A

C. Enforce the most restrictive rights required by users to complete assigned tasks

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3
Q
Which of the following models is also known as an identity-based access control model?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Role-based access control
C. Rule-based access control
D. Mandatory access control
A

A. discretionary access control

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4
Q
A central authority determines which files a user can access. Which of the following best describes this?
A. An access control list (ACL) 
B. An access control matrix
C. Discretionary access control model 
D. Nondiscretionary access control model
A

D. Nondiscretionary access control model

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5
Q
A central authority determines which files a user can access based on the organization’s hierarchy. Which of the following best describes this?
A. Discretionary access control model
B. An access control list (ACL)
C. Rule-based access control model
D. Role-based access control model
A

D. Role-based access control model

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6
Q

Which of the following best describes a rule-based access control model?
A. It uses local rules applied to users individually.
B. It uses global rules applied to users individually.
C. It uses local rules applied to all users equally.
D. It uses global rules applied to all users equally.

A

D. It uses global rules applied to all users equally

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7
Q
What type of access control model is used on a firewall?
A. Mandatory access control model
B. Discretionary access control model
C. Rule-based access control model
D. Role-based access control model
A

C. Rule-based access control model

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8
Q
Which of the following best describes a characteristic of the mandatory access control model?
A. Employs explicit-deny philosophy
B. Permissive
C. Rule-based
D. Prohibitive
A

D. Prohibitive

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9
Q
Which of the following can help mitigate the success of an online brute-force attack?
A. Rainbow table
B. Account lockout
C. Salting passwords
D. Encryption of password
A

B. Account lockout

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10
Q
What type of attack uses email and attempts to trick high-level executives?
A. Phishing 
B. Spear phishing
C. Whaling 
D. Vishing
A

C. Whaling

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11
Q
Which one of the following tools is used primarily to perform network discovery scans?
A. Nmap 
B. Nessus
C. Metasploit 
D. lsof
A

A. Nmap

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12
Q
Which one of the following is not normally included in a security assessment?
A. Vulnerability scan
B. Risk assessment
C. Mitigation of vulnerabilities
D. Threat assessment
A

C. Mitigation of vulnerabilities

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13
Q
Who is the intended audience for a security assessment report?
A. Management
B. Security auditor
C. Security professional
D. Customers
A

A. Management

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14
Q
Which one of the following tests provides the most accurate and detailed information about the security state of a server?
A. Unauthenticated scan 
B. Port scan
C. Half-open scan 
D. Authenticated scan
A

D. Authenticated scan

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15
Q

Badin Industries runs a web application that processes e-commerce orders and handles credit card transactions. As such, it is subject to the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS). The company recently performed a web vulnerability scan of the application and it had no
unsatisfactory findings. How often must Badin rescan the application?
A. Only if the application changes
B. At least monthly
C. At least annually
D. There is no rescanning requirement.

A

C. At least annually

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16
Q
Grace is performing a penetration test against a client’s network and would like to use a tool to assist in automatically executing common exploits. Which one of the following security tools will best meet her needs?
A. nmap 
B. Metasploit
C. Nessus
D. Snort
A

B. Metasploit

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17
Q
Paul would like to test his application against slightly modified versions of previously used input. What type of test does Paul intend to perform?
A. Code review 
B. Application vulnerability review
C. Mutation fuzzing
D. Generational fuzzing
A

C. Mutation fuzzing

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18
Q
Users of a banking application may try to withdraw funds that don’t exist from their account. Developers are aware of this threat and implemented code to protect against it. What type of software testing would most likely catch this type of vulnerability if the developers have not already remediated it?
A. Misuse case testing 
B. SQL injection testing
C. Fuzzing 
D. Code review
A

A. Misuse case testing

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19
Q

What type of interface testing would identify flaws in a program’s command-line interface?
A. Application programming interface testing
B. User interface testing
C. Physical interface testing
D. Security interface testing

A

B. User interface testing

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20
Q
During what type of penetration test does the tester always have access to system configuration information?
A. Black box penetration test 
B. White box penetration test
C. Gray box penetration test 
D. Red box penetration test
A

B. White box penetration test

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21
Q
An organization ensures that users are granted access to only the data they need to perform specific work tasks. What principle are they following?
A. Principle of least permission
B. Separation of duties
C. Need to know
D. Role-based access control
A

C. Need to know

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22
Q
An administrator is granting permissions to a database. What is the default level of access the administrator should grant to new users?
A. Read 
B. Modify
C. Full access 
D. No access
A

D. No access

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23
Q
What is a primary benefit of job rotation and separation of duties policies?
A. Preventing collusion 
B. Preventing fraud
C. Encouraging collusion 
D. Correcting incidents
A

B. Preventing fraud

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24
Q
Which of the following is one of the primary reasons an organization enforces a mandatory vacation policy?
A. To rotate job responsibilities
B. To detect fraud
C. To increase employee productivity
D. To reduce employee stress levels
A

B. To detect fraud

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25
Q

Which of the following identifies vendor responsibilities and can include monetary penalties if the vendor doesn’t meet the stated responsibilities?
A. Service level agreement (SLA)
B. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)
C. Interconnection security agreement (ISA)
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)

A

A. Service level agreement (SLA)

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26
Q

An organization is planning the layout of a new building that will house a datacenter. Where is the most appropriate place to locate the datacenter?
A. In the center of the building
B. Closest to the outside wall where power enters the building
C. Closest to the outside wall where heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems are located
D. At the back of the building

A

A. In the center of the building

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27
Q

Backup tapes have reached the end of their life cycle and need to be disposed of. Which of the following is the most appropriate disposal method?
A. Throw them away. Because they are at the end of their life cycle, it is not possible to read data from them.
B. Purge the tapes of all data before disposing of them.
C. Erase data off the tapes before disposing of them.
D. Store the tapes in a storage facility.

A

B. Purge the tapes of all data before disposing of them

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28
Q
Which of the following can be an effective method of configuration management using a baseline?
A. Implementing change management
B. Using images
C. Implementing vulnerability management
D. Implementing patch management
A

B. Using images

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29
Q
While troubleshooting a network problem, a technician realized it could be resolved by opening a port on a firewall. The technician opened the port and verified the system was now working. However, an attacker accessed this port and launched a successful attack. What could have
prevented this problem?
A. Patch management processes
B. Vulnerability management processes
C. Configuration management processes
D. Change management processes
A

D. Change management processes

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30
Q
What would an administrator use to check systems for known issues that attackers may use to exploit the systems?
A. Versioning tracker 
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Security audit 
D. Security review
A

B. Vulnerability scanner

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31
Q
Which of the following is the best response after detecting and verifying an incident?
A. Contain it. 
B. Report it.
C. Remediate it. 
D. Gather evidence.
A

A. Contain it

32
Q
Which of the following are denial-of-service attacks? (Choose three.)
A. Teardrop 
B. Smurf
C. Ping of death 
D. Spoofing
A

A. Teardrop
B. Smurf
C. Ping of death

33
Q
A web server hosted on the Internet was recently attacked, exploiting a vulnerability in the operating system. The operating system vendor assisted in the incident investigation and verified the vulnerability was not previously known. What type of attack was this?
A. Botnet
B. Zero-day exploit
C. Denial-of-service
D. Distributed denial-of-service
A

B. Zero-day exploit

34
Q
Of the following choices, which is the most common method of distributing malware?
A. Drive-by downloads 
B. USB flash drives
C. Ransomware 
D. Unapproved software
A

A.Drive-by downloads

35
Q
Of the following choices, what indicates the primary purpose of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
A. Detect abnormal activity
B. Diagnose system failures
C. Rate system performance
D. Test a system for vulnerabilities
A

A. Detect abnormal activity

36
Q

Which of the following is true for a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
A. It monitors an entire network.
B. It monitors a single system.
C. It’s invisible to attackers and authorized users.
D. It cannot detect malicious code.

A

B. It monitors a single system

37
Q
Which of the following is a fake network designed to tempt intruders with unpatched and unprotected security vulnerabilities and false data?
A. IDS 
B. Honeynet 
C. Padded cell 
D. Pseudo flaw
A

B. Honeynet

38
Q

Of the following choices, what is the best form of anti-malware protection?
A. Multiple solutions on each system
B. A single solution throughout the organization
C. Anti-malware protection at several locations
D. One-hundred-percent content filtering at all border gateways

A

C. Anti-malware protection at several locations

39
Q

When using penetration testing to verify the strength of your security policy, which of the following is NOT recommended?
A. Mimicking attacks previously perpetrated against your system
B. Performing attacks without management knowledge
C. Using manual and automated attack tools
D. Reconfiguring the system to resolve any discovered vulnerabilities

A

B. Performing attacks without management knowledge

40
Q
What is used to keep subjects accountable for their actions while they are authenticated to a system?
A. Authentication 
B. Monitoring
C. Account lockout 
D. User entitlement reviews
A

B. Monitoring

41
Q
What type of a security control is an audit trail?
A. Administrative 
B. Detective
C. Corrective 
D. Physical
A

B. Detective

42
Q
Which of the following options is a methodical examination or review of an environment to ensure compliance with regulations and to detect abnormalities, unauthorized occurrences, or outright
crimes?
A. Penetration testing 
B. Auditing
C. Risk analysis 
D. Entrapment
A

B. Auditing

43
Q
What can be used to reduce the amount of logged or audited data using non-statistical methods?
A. Clipping levels 
B. Sampling
C. Log analysis 
D. Alarm triggers
A

A. Clipping levels

44
Q
Which of the following focuses more on the patterns and trends of data than on the actual content?
A. Keystroke monitoring 
B. Traffic analysis
C. Event logging 
D. Security auditing
A

B. Traffic analysis

45
Q
What would detect when a user has more privileges than necessary?
A. Account management 
B. User entitlement audit
C. Logging 
D. Reporting
A

B. User entitlement audit

46
Q
A table includes multiple objects and subjects and it identifies the specific access each subject has to different objects. What is this table?
A. Access control list 
B. Access control matrix
C. Federation 
D. Creeping privilege
A

B. Access control matrix

47
Q

Which of the following statements is true related to the role-based access control (role-BAC) model?
A. A role-BAC model allows users membership in multiple groups.
B. A role-BAC model allows users membership in a single group.
C. A role-BAC model is non-hierarchical.
D. A role-BAC model uses labels.

A

A. A role-BAC model allows users membership in multiple groups.

48
Q
Which of the following is not a valid access control model?
A. Discretionary access control model
B. Nondiscretionary access control model
C. Mandatory access control model
D. Lettuce-based access control model
A

D. Lettuce-based access control model

49
Q
What would an organization do to identify weaknesses?
A. Asset valuation 
B. Threat modeling
C. Vulnerability analysis 
D. Access review
A

C. Vulnerability analysis

50
Q
Which of the following is the best choice for a role within an organization using a role-based access control model?
A. Web server 
B. Application
C. Database 
D. Programmer
A

D. Programmer

51
Q

Which one of the following factors should not be taken into consideration when planning a security testing schedule for a particular system?
A. Sensitivity of the information stored on the system
B. Difficulty of performing the test
C. Desire to experiment with new testing tools
D. Desirability of the system to attackers

A

C. Desire to experiment with new testing tools

52
Q
Matthew would like to test systems on his network for SQL injection vulnerabilities. Which one of the following tools would be best suited to this task?
A. Port scanner
B. Network vulnerability scanner
C. Network discovery scanner
D. Web vulnerability scanner
A

D. Web vulnerability scanner

53
Q
Which one of the following is the final step of the Fagin inspection process?
A. Inspection 
B. Rework
C. Follow-up 
D. None of the above
A

C. Follow-up

54
Q
What information security management task ensures that the organization’s data protection requirements are met effectively?
A. Account management 
B. Backup verification
C. Log review 
D. Key performance indicators
A

B. Backup verification

55
Q

Why is separation of duties important for security purposes?
A. It ensures that multiple people can do the same job.
B. It prevents an organization from losing important information when they lose important people.
C. It prevents any single security person from being able to make major security changes without involving other individuals.
D. It helps employees concentrate their talents where they will be most useful.

A

C. It prevents any single security person from being able to make major security changes without involving other individuals

56
Q
A financial organization commonly has employees switch duty responsibilities every six months. What security principle are they employing?
A. Job rotation
B. Separation of duties
C. Mandatory vacations
D. Least privilege
A

A. Job rotation

57
Q
What should be done with equipment that is at the end of its life cycle and that is being donated to a charity?
A. Remove all CDs and DVDs.
B. Remove all software licenses.
C. Sanitize it.
D. Install the original software.
A

C. Sanitize it

58
Q

Which of the following steps would not be included in a change management process?
A. Immediately implement the change if it will improve performance.
B. Request the change.
C. Create a rollback plan for the change.
D. Document the change.

A

A. Immediately implement the change if it will improve performance

59
Q
Which of the following is not a part of a patch management process?
A. Evaluate patches. 
B. Test patches.
C. Deploy all patches.
D. Audit patches.
A

C. Deploy all patches

60
Q
Which of the following would security personnel do during the remediation stage of an incident response?
A. Contain the incident 
B. Collect evidence
C. Rebuild system 
D. Root cause analysis
A

D. Root cause analysis

61
Q

How does a SYN flood attack work?
A. Exploits a packet processing glitch in Windows systems
B. Uses an amplification network to flood a victim with packets
C. Disrupts the three-way handshake used by TCP
D. Sends oversized ping packets to a victim

A

C. Disrupts the three-way handshake used by TCP

62
Q

Alan is developing the access control system for a new accounting system and implements a control
that mandates that no individual may have both the permission to create a new vendor and issue a
check. What security principle is most directly related to his actions?
A. Defense in depth
B. Separation of duties
C. Need to know
D. Least privilege

A

D. Least privilege

63
Q
Betsy is a security operations analyst at a major company and wishes to conduct a network vulnerability scan to identify security deficiencies in their environment. Which one of the following tools would best help her achieve this objective?
A. Zenmap 
B. Nmap
C. Nessus 
D. lsof
A

C. Nessus

64
Q
Tom is assessing the aftermath of a denial of service attack and discovers that his system received a large number of ICMP Echo Reply packets. What type of attack likely occurred?
A. Fraggle 
B. Smurf
C. SYN Flood 
D. Ping flood
A

B. Smurf

65
Q
Mary is analyzing system logs after a security incident and notices many cases where remote systems initiated three-way TCP handshakes that were never completed. What type of attack likely occurred?
A. Cross-site scripting 
B. SQL injection
C. DNS poisoning 
D. SYN Flood
A

D. SYN Flood

66
Q
What is the first step of the incident response process?
A. Detection 
B. Reporting
C. Recovery 
D. Response
A

A. Detection

67
Q
Harold set aside a portion of his organization’s IP address space that is not used by any legitimate system and instead used to identify malicious activity. What type of control has Harold built?
A. Honeypot 
B. Pseudoflaw
C. Darknet 
D. Honeynet
A

C. Darknet

68
Q
Matt is performing a penetration test on behalf of a client. Before the engagement began, the client provided him with detailed information about the target system. What type of penetration test is Matt performing?
A. Blue box 
B. Black box
C. White box 
D. Grey box
A

C. White box

69
Q
Which one of the following transitions is not acceptable during a code review using the Fagan inspection process?
A. Inspection->Rework 
B. Rework->Planning
C. Overview->Preparation 
D. Rework->Inspection
A

D. Rework->Inspection

70
Q
Mark would like to run a basic port scan against his systems using a free tool that is designed specifically for that purpose. What tool should he use?
A. Nmap 
B. Qualys
C. Ping 
D. Nessus
A

A. Nmap

71
Q
What type of access control system uses predefined rules and does not have the concept of a resource owner?
A. RBAC 
B. NTFS
C. DAC 
D. MAC
A

A. RBAC

72
Q
What type of social engineering attack specifically targets the passwords of senior executives?
A. Spear phishing 
B. Whaling
C. Vishing 
D. Phishing
A

B. Whaling

73
Q
In what type of attack against databases does an individual combine multiple pieces of information classified at a low level to reveal information classified at a higher level?
A. Aggregation 
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Inference 
D. SQL Injection
A

A. Aggregation

74
Q
You are removing used magnetic hard drives from a facility and are worried about data remanence issues. What tool can you use to resolve this issue most effectively?
A. Degausser 
B. Disk partitioner
C. Disk formatter 
D. Single-pass wiper
A

A. Degausser

75
Q
You are working with your personnel department on a legal arrangement to protect information shared with a vendor. What type of agreement would be most effective?
A. NDA
B. Indemnification
C. Non-compete
D. SLA
A

A. NDA

76
Q
The MilTech defense contracting company would like to add an administrative security control that protects against insider attacks. Which one of the following controls best meets those criteria?
A. Penetration tests 
B. Vulnerability scans
C. Data loss prevention system
D. Background checks
A

D. Background checks