term 2 Flashcards

1
Q

supra- omental recess in cattle

A

recess caudally abouve the two sections of omentum in whic the intestine is housed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

name a general product of the rumen

A

volatile fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

rumination

A

primary movment of rumen- Regurgitating food after a meal and then swallowing and digesting some of it. Cattle and other ruminant animals have a four-chambered stomach for the rumination of food and so can chew their cud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

eruptation

A

secondary movemt of the rumen. burping, prevents bloat from gasses produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is the rumen inervated

A

Reticuloruminal movements are centrally regulated by the vagus.
Dorsal vagal nucleus of brainstem.
Afferents from the lumen of the ruminoreticulum monitor distension, ingesta consistency, pH, VFA concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

reticulum

A

sorts food particlales- regulates what moves to omasum

lies caudal to diaphram- when foreign object is injested strong contractions can cause it to pierce muscular wal and diaphram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

omasum

A

same job a simple stomack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

abomasum

A

glandular- protien digestion

proteoloitic enzymes- hca, pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gastric groove

A

In the unweaned animal the gastric groove forms a closed tube for milk to pass directly from the oesophagus to the abomasum.
Formation of the tube is a reflex action when the animal suckles.
The reflex is stimulated by ADH
The reflex may also be stimulated by chemicals such as copper sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

stomach of calf

A

rumen smaller

abomentum big

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Motility of the omasum

A

Contractions are biphasic
Phase 1 squeezes ingesta into recesses between the laminae
Phase 2 is mass contraction of the omasum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Regulation of flow of ingesta from the reticulum to the omasum

A

The omasal orifice remains open.
Contraction of the reticulum causes substances to pass into the omasum. At this time the omasal orifice dilates further.
The omasal orifice then closes as it contracts to force the ingesta between the lamina
This requires innervation form the vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Motility of the abomasum

A

General contraction of the abomasum with increased amount of peristalsis in the pyloric region.
Like simple stomach, regular flow of ingesta from abomasum to duodenum may be regulated by pylorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fibula of ruminentz

A

The shaft of the fibula regresses in ruminants. The proximal extremity persists as a tear-shaped process fused to the lateral condyle of the tibia. The distal extremity is isolated as a small compact malleolar bone that forms an interlocking joint with the tibia completing the articular surface of the talus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the nerve origin, course, function and the consiquenses when damaged of the femoral nerve

A

L4-6
Short course within the thigh, finishing in the quadriceps (saphenous branch continues)
A saphenous branch arises from the femoral nerve close to its exit point from the iliopsoas and innervates the sartorius muscle. It then courses with the femoral artery distally
Femoral innervates:
the iliopsoas and quadriceps femoris muscles
The skin over the medial surface of the limb
Saphenous branch
providing general somatic afferents to the skin over the medial crus and, the dorsomedial metatarsus and fetlock joint
Newborn calves delivered by strong traction on hindlimbs may be unable to bear weight on the affected limb and have a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of the leg skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe the nerve origin, course, function and the consiquenses when damaged of the obturator nerve

A

L4-6
Crosses the ventral surface of the sacroiliac joint, runs medial to the shaft of the ilium, and penetrates the obturator foramen to reach the medial muscles of the thigh.
Innervates the adductor muscles
Loss of adduction:
Can be compressed during dystocia calvings-recumbency/dog sitting posture.
Fall-hind legs do the splits and may be unable to rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe the nerve origin, course, function and the consiquenses when damaged of the sciatic nerve

A

L6-S2
On leaving the pelvis it passes around the dorsal and caudal aspects of the hip joint. Goes between the biceps and semi-membranosus. Divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves before reaching the gastrocnemius.
Innervates the caudal thigh muscles.
Shared responsibility for innervating all structures distal to the stifle (except medial skin)
Goes between the biceps and semi-membranosus, a few centimeters caudal to the femur –at risk from damage by intramuscular injections.
Large/ill placed foetuses may damage the nerve during parturition. Affected limb hangs loose, stifle and hock extended, digits flexed, foot knuckled. No cutaneous sensation over the entire extremity except the area supplied by the saphenous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe the nerve origin, course, function and the consiquenses when tibial nerve

A

L6-S2
(branch of sciatic)
Passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius a short distance cranial to the popliteal lymph node. It branches to the caudal crural muscles. The main trunk (purely sensory) continues towards the hock. It divides opposite the point of the hock into the medial and lateral plantar nerves.
Innervates the caudal crural muscles.
Sensory: the lateral plantar nerve supplies the abaxial plantar portion of the lateral digit. The medial plantar nerve innervates the entire plantar medial digit and the axial surface of the lateral digit
Abnormal excessive innervation of the caudal crural muscles can cause spastic paresis.
Damage to the tibial nerve can cause over flexion of the hock, extension of the fetlock, producing a vertical pastern (innervation to the digital extensors remains intact so hoof placement is correct when the animal walks and weight is correctly carried)
No response to pain stimuli on plantar lower limb skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe the nerve origin, course, function and the consiquenses when damaged of the peroneal nerve

A

L6-S2
(branch of sciatic)
Crosses the lateral surface of the gastrocnemius under the cover of the biceps before becoming superficial and palpable as it passes caudal to the lateral collateral ligament of the stifle. Dives between the peroneus longus and lateral digital extensor muscles before dividing into superficial (3 divisions) and deep branches.
Generally:
Cranial crural muscles
Sensory nerves for the cranial aspect of the leg distal to the hock
Superficial:
medial branch that supplies digit III
middle branch that supplies the axial portions of digits III and IV
lateral branch that innervates the abaxial surface of digit IV
Deep:
sends branches that communicate with the middle branch of the superficial nerve to innervate the axial portions of the claws
Hyperextension of the hock, hyperflexion of the fetlock and digital joints. Unless passively placed in the correct position, the limb rests on the dorsal surface of the flexed digits.
The cow eventually learns to walk correctly by flicking the foot forwards and flat when taking a step.
No response to a pain stimuli on the cranial lower limb skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

injection points on cattle

A

Pericardiocentesis - 5th intercostal space LHS abve costochondral junction
Blood sampling and IV injection– jugular groove, coccygeal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe the dental formula of ruminents

A

Ruminants have a maxillary dental pad with no upper incisors or canines. This is followed by the diastema. They have 3 upper premolars and 3 upper molars.
On the mandible they have 3 incisors, 1 canine. Again, we have a matching diastema, then 3 lower premolars and 3 lower molars.
Ruminants have 20 deciduous teeth (no deciduous molars) and 32 permanent teeth
NB. It is customary to refer to the canine tooth as the fourth incisor in ruminants. The most rostral premolar is known as ‘PM2’ (there is no PM1). But molar 1 is still called M1.
Lack maxillary incisor - cornified dental pad

Mandibular brachydont incisors

Dental attrition is common

Hypsodont (long-crowned) premolar and molar teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe the timeline of ruminent dentition

A

A: Deciduous incisors of a neonate.
The enamel still surrounds the crown

B: 2 years old, 1st incisor is permanent.
The distal border of I1 is slightly worn and dentine is exposed

C: 3.5yrs, I1+I2+I3 are permanent.
The occlusal surface of I2 is wider than I3.

D: 5yrs

E: 8yrs. The occlusal surface is at its greatest and the lingual surface of I1 and I2 is smooth, known as being ‘level’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The facial muscles are supplied by the facial nerve (CNVII) which divides into its principle terminal branches underneath the parotid gland.
describe these branches

A
  1. The auriculopalpebral nerve supplies muscles of the external ear and eyelids. It reaches these by crossing the zygomatic arch directly in front of the temporomandibular joint where its superficial position makes it vulnerable. Damage to the nerve may be evident by drooping of the ear and sagging of the eyelids, and paralysis of the orbicularis muscle makes it impossible to close the eye-therefore blocking this nerve to eliminate the menace reflex (blink) is very handy for eye examinations. It is most easily palpated where it passes over the zygomatic arch.
  2. The dorsal buccal branch continues the parent trunk (facial), crossing the masseter muscle in an exposed and vulnerable position. Injury can cause loss of innervation to the muscles of the nose, upper lip and buccinator. The first loss leads to slight distortion of the face, which is pulled towards the unaffected side (as there are no counteracting muscles working), the second allow food to collect in a wad within the oral vestibule.
  3. The ventral buccal branch takes a more protected course caudomedial to the ramus of the mandible and reaches the face along with the facial artery and vein. It has limited distribution and so visible effects of injury are minimal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Local anaesthetic points for disbudding, eye lid, nose/maxillary skin

A

The sensitive dermis of the horn is supplied mainly by the cornual nerve, which is a branch of the zygomaticotemporal division of the maxillary (lacrimal) nerve, plus a portion of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
The cornual nerve arises within the orbit and then passes backward through the temporal fossa where it is sheltered by the prominent ridge of the temporal line.
The nerve later divides into 2 or more branches that wind around this ridge and approach the horn separately under cover of the thin frontalis muscle.
The cornual nerve is blocked for disbudding and dehorning cattle. It can be found where it crosses the ridge-roughly midway between the postorbital bar and the horn (yellow dot).
Bovine specific Landmarks-Upper 3rd of the lateral temporal ridge of the frontal bone, 7-10mm deep, between the frontalis and temporal muscles. 2-3cm in front of the base of the horn
Infraorbital nerve which appears from the infraorbital foramen-anaesthesia of the nose and upper lip for placing a bull nose ring
Landmarks: Half way between the nasoincisive notch and the first upper premolar

Blue: Auriculopalpebral branch of the facial nerve-paralysis of the eyelids.
Landmarks: subcutaneously, where the supraorbital process of the frontal bone meets the zygomatic arch, point the needle posteriorly, inject for 3-5cm lateral to the zygomatic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe the thymus in young ruminents

A

The thymus produces and secretes thymosin, a hormone necessary for T cell development and production. The thymus is special in that, unlike most organs, it is at its largest in children. Once you reach puberty, the thymus starts to slowly shrink and become replaced by fat
The thymus is large and lobulated. It extends from the larynx to the pericardium in young animals.
The cervical part is connected to the thoracic by a narrow isthmus ventral to the trachea.
The cervical part divides into 2 horns that taper over the lateral aspects of the trachea. It may reach the larynx, with the cranial tip sometimes detached, fragmented and more closely associated with The medial retropharyngeal lymph node and the mandibular and parathyroid glands.
The thymus grows rapidly during the first 6-9monthds of life, although it reaches its greatest relative size much earlier. In some involution may begin as early as 8weeks old. But the tempo of regression varies and the thoracic part in particular may still be present in animals who are several years old. In general the isthmus and neck parts disappear completely.
The thymus in young calves is bright pink/red but lightens with age and the consistency firms as the active tissue is replaced by fatty fibrous tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe horns in cattle

A

The size and conformation of horns depends on their age, sex and breed. Function remains for attack, defence, maintaining social hierarchy and foraging.
The horns begin life as germinal epithelium which can be removed by disbudding, the surrounding epidermis which heals the wound, lacks the inductive capacity of the horn bud.

If not disbudded, the softer outermost layer (episceras) is produced by an irregular epithelial strip at the base which is transitional to the ordinary epidermis.
The cornual processes grow from the frontal bone at caudolateral angles to the head. It has a ridges and porous surface and is covered in papillated dermis that also serves as periosteum. The horn sheath/wall represents a modification of the cornified stratum of the epithelium and consists chiefly of tubules formed over the dermal papillae. The tubules run lengthways and are welded together by irregular, intertubular horn produced by the inter-papillary regions of the epithelium.
Since the whole epithelial surface is productive, the older horn is thrust apically by the newer horn, so the horn thickness increases towards the tip where it is all horn.
Horn growth is continuous but the rate may be slowed by periods of stress, similar to in the hooves, creating horn bands. Often produced at calving
An extension from the frontal sinus invades the cornual process at around 6months old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe the horn in sheep and goats

A

The size and conformation of horns depends on their age, sex and breed. Function remains for attack, defence, maintaining social hierarchy and foraging.
Small ruminants have a more domed head in comparison to cattle and the horns arrive closely behind the orbit in a parietal position unlike the temporal ones of cattle.
HORN BUDS: Each horn is based upon a separate ossification centre that makes a secondary fusion to a projection of the skull quite close to its contralateral fellow. Due to this specialised ossification to the skull, disbudding can only take place before this process occurs, which is very young at under a week old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe the vascuar supply of the horns

A

The cornual nerve is accompanied by a considerable artery and vein that branch from the superficial temporal vessels within the temporal fossa. The artery ramifies before it reaches the horn.
Its smaller branches run in the grooves and canals of the cornual process and retract when severed. Which is pretty impressive unless you are a very trying to tidily dehorn a cow and achieve good haemostasis without blood spurting everywhere. When they retract they cannot be easily grasped with haemostats to stop the bleeding, unless the cut is made close to the skull where the arteries are still embedded in soft tissue and easy to reach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

deascribe the interconnection between sinuses and horns

A

An extension from the frontal sinus invades the cornual process at around 6months old. Here we can see an opening into the caudal frontal sinus
However in both sheep and goats, the frontal sinus later excavates the horn core at the base but does not reach as far inside as in cattle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe sinuses in cattle

A

The paranasal sinus system is very poorly developed in the young calf and it must be several years old before it gets to full size. Even in a mature animal , the maxillary compartment continues to adjust to extrusion of the cheek teeth.
The complete set of sinuses is complicated:
Frontal compartments within the bones of the cranial roof and side walls
A palatomaxillary complex within the caudal part of the hard palate and the face, both before and below the orbit.
A lacrimal sinus within the medial orbital wall
Sphenoidal sinuses that extend past the orbit into the rostral part of the cranial floor
Conchal sinuses within the nasal conchae.
The maxillary sinus occupies much of the upper jaw above the alveoli of the cheek teeth. It communicates with the nasal cavity via a large nasomaxillary opening but natural drainage of pus or other fluid is hindered by the location of this opening high in the medial wall.
The maxillary sinus is continuous with the palatine sinus over the plate of bone that carries the infraorbital nerve in its free margin. It also extends caudally (as the lacrimal sinus in front of the orbit) and within the fragile lacrimal bulla that intrudes into the ventral part of the orbit.
The frontal sinus comprises of several compartments that communicate separately with ethmoidal meatuses. The 2 or occasionally 3, small rostral compartments are of little clinical interest. The caudal compartment is the largest and of most interest to us and spreads mainly within the frontal bone. It covers the dorsal part of the brain case and also extends into the lateral and nuchal walls and into the horn core as we saw earlier. It is separated from its fellow and from the smaller homolateral compartments by partitions which vary in position. The openings in these partitions are closed by mucosa. The major cavity, which continues to increase throughout life, is further subdivided by irregular and perforate septa. Inflammation of its mucosa is a common sequel to dehorning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe sinuses in small ruminents

A

The maxillary sinus is shallower and simpler. It does not communicate with the lacrimal sinus, which may open into the nasal cavity separately or via the lateral frontal sinus.
The frontal sinus comprises separate medial and lateral compartments. They lie medial to the orbit (and extend slightly beyond this both rostrally and caudally) and are of irregular form. The lateral compartment corresponds to the caudal sinus of cattle and provides the extension to the horn core.
The most common clinical involvement of the sinuses in sheep is that caused by the invasion of the frontal sinus by larvae of the nasal bot fly. Treatment involves surgical puncture to either the rostral to the horn or medial to the middle of the orbital rim where there is no risk to the frontal vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe the reasons for ruminal acidosis

A

Often viewed as the most dramatic form of the forestomach fermentative disorders, clinical ruminal acidosis occurs when excessive levels of organic acids accumulate in the rumen, resulting in a rumen fluid pH of less than 5.2. Normal rumen pH=5.6-7
Subclinical rumen acidosis pH=5.2-5.6
Clinical acidosis pH= <5.2
Normally have a balance of fermentable carbohydrates and fibre, plus basic bicarbonate from saliva to help neutralise some of the acid.
Good rumination and chewing the cud stimulate saliva production

A common scenario for the development of clinical rumen acidosis is the excessive consumption of rapidly fermentable carbohydrates by ruminants that are unadapted to a high-concentrate diet. As a result, clinical rumen acidosis is often seen in the early feeding period when newly received growing beef cattle, accustomed to a primarily forage-based diet, are introduced to a primarily concentrate-based ration and the amount is increased too rapidly. Similar signs can also develop when concentrate-adapted ruminants are fed more concentrate than their ruminal microbial population can handle. This situation might occur following a feeding error, overprocessing of grain, changes in ration moisture, or when there is excessive competition for feed within an animal population. Excessive feeding of rapidly fermentable carbohydrates, commonly referred to as “grain overload,” is the classic scenario leading to clinical rumen acidosis. It is important to remember, however, that excess grain consumption is not essential to the development of the syndrome, because excess consumption of any rapidly fermentable carbohydrate (apples and other fruits, bakery waste products, incompletely fermented brewery products, and standing green corn) is capable of providing the necessary substrate for the development of clinical disease. Equally a sudden reduction I the amount of fibre fed, even when the carbohydrate amount stays the same can initiate a ruminal acidosis event due to the lack of buffering.
In non-production systems, ruminal acidosis can be seen in pet goats following consumption of excessive amounts of animal crackers or bread given by the owners as treats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe the pathogenisis of ruminal acidosis

A

Ruminal bacteria that digest starches and sugars proliferate and increase their rate of carbohydrate fermentation.
In the normal animal, or in animals with mild clinical disease, rumen buffering capacity and volatile fatty acid (VFA) absorption match the rate of carbohydrate fermentation. In this scenario, the pH within the rumen will stay in a normal range between 5.6 and 6.9, with the higher pH range being more common in New World camelids.
However, when production of VFAs and lactate exceeds the rate of absorption, rumen pH will begin to drop. VFAs and lactate increase in concentration within the rumen fluid and are subsequently absorbed into the systemic circulation.
Although numerous microorganisms have been implicated in the development of disease, the primary bacterium thought to be associated with the progression of clinical signs is Streptococcus bovis. S bovis, because of its rapid rate of division, ability to produce more ATP per unit time, and tolerance of a pH 4.5. As pH decreases, lactate production by S bovis decreases, and the growth of S bovis is slowed. At this point, the Lactobacilli become the dominant microbes present in the rumen and further serve to depress ruminal pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the biochemical processes of acidosis

A

D- lactate is formed by fermentation and L-Lactate is formed during anaerobic glycolysis of hypoperfused tissues.
Both isomers are powerful corrosive agents that can cause severe damage to the rumen epithelium. In addition, lactate and VFAs are osmotically active.
Increased rumen osmolarity decreases absorption of lactate and VFAs, creating a cycle that perpetuates build up of these compounds and a continued drop in pH.
With the continued accumulation of these compounds and further increases in rumen fluid osmolarity, the rumen epithelium is further disrupted. Yeast and fungi that are resistant to highly acidic environments readily colonize the denuded sites and contribute to the development of mycotic rumenitis and omasitis.
In addition, organisms such as Fusobacterium necrophorum are able to invade the bloodstream and spread to the liver. In fact, rumen acidosis is thought to be one of the inciting causes for the development of liver abscesses in ruminants. In addition to their effects on the rumen, the osmotic pressure of these agents causes systemic dehydration and hypovolemia by pulling fluid from the circulation into the rumen, resulting in a reduction in tissue perfusion.
The loss of circulating blood volume leads to cardiovascular collapse, reduced renal perfusion, and anuria. Reduced peripheral circulation also leads to anaerobic cellular metabolism and systemic acidosis
Other compounds produced by rumen microbes
include endotoxins and histamine.
endotoxin concentrations will increase in the rumen of animals on a concentrate-based diet.
If these animals become acutely acidotic, cause microbial death and release of endotoxin in large quantities all at once.
histamine is also known to accumulate in the acidotic rumen.
Allisonellla histaminiformans thrives at low pH,
produces large quantities of histamine,
histamine can be absorbed through the damaged rumen wall and into the systemic circulation.
Histamine may further intensify the symptoms of acute acidosis, including vasodilation and arterioconstriction, and increase vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

describe the Sequelae of acidosis

A

blood pressure to increase in capillaries and edema, resulting in swelling, hemorrhage, and even rupture of the vessels.
result in local ischemia and damage to the corium.
Laminitis is commonly seen with acidosis in cattle and sheep, but less so in goats.
Mild cases, animals can experience a transient lameness that seems to resolve following correction of the acidotic event. However, animals experiencing a severe acute case can have more serious lesions, and animals experiencing subacute acidosis can develop subclinical or chronic lesions because of long-term damage to the tissues of the hoof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

describe ketosis in ruminents

A

Energy deficiency syndromes which focus around body fat metabolism, increased NEFAs and ketone bodies, and hepatic lipidosis.

Main syndromes are:
Starvation ketosis (protein-energy malnutrition)
Pregnancy toxaemia of beef cattle/sheep 
Fatty liver 
Fat cow syndrome
Clinical ketosis (Type I or II)
Chronic ketosis

It is exhibited in a range of ways depending on the species situation
Post partum in cattle forms
pre partum in sheep form
Starvation form (either species)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

describe the normal metabolic pathway in the cow

A

Ruminants are in a vulnerable position with respect to their carbohydrate metabolism when compared to species with simple stomachs. Their GIT provides little glucose for intestinal absorption (up to 10% of total glucose). Instead dietary carbohydrates are converted by the rumen microflora to the VFAs. Consequently the glucose requirements in cattle must be largely met by gluconeogenesis using primarily proprionate and amino acids. Acetate and butyrate are converted to acetyl-co-enzyme (Acetyl CoA) and can thereafter be used for the synthesis of factor be converted into energy via the tricarboxylic acid (TCA, Krebs) cycle. Entry to the TCA cycle requires that acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate. Citrate passes through a series of intermediate steps to become oxaloacetate again, during which energy is released and 2 molecules of CO2 are produced. Propionate can be converted into glucose, whereas acetate is mainly used for fat synthesis and is stored as lipids or secreted as milk fat. Butyrate can be partially oxidized to ketone bodies. Thus acetate and butyrate are ketogenic, whereas propionate is glycogenic.
Under normal conditions, these 2 groups of VFAs are produced in a ratio of 4:1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

describe clinical ketosis (type I, acetonaemia).

A

lactating dairy cows, first3-6weeks of lactation.
Characterized by
loss of bodyweight,
reduced milk yield,
Hypoglycaemia
presence of ketone bodies in all body tissues and fluids.
Occurrence: demands on their resources of glucose and glycogen cannot be met by their digestive and metabolic activity.

Begin lactating-increase in energy demand but decrease in feed intake
Negative Energy Balance (NEB).
several metabolic adaptations to manage NEB,
However, some animals will experience excessive NEB,
who are associated with increased risk of disease development and a decrease in both milk production and reproductive performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Physiology of energy metabolism-Ketosis

A

In early lactation, homeorhesis is the driving physiologic force
breakdown of body stores of fat and protein
insulin resistance,
Milk production requires large amounts of glucose created by gluconeogenesis
This process is generally diminished in animals affected by ketosis, leading to hypoglycemia.
Providing glucose, stimulating gluconeogenesis, and decreasing fat breakdown form the foundation for rational ketosis treatment
Adipose Tissue
Glycerol and NEFA are released from adipose tissue in response to hormonal cues such as glucagon, corticosteroids, corticotropin, and catecholamines. Insulin is the only hormone that will act to inhibit lipolysis and therefore decrease the amount of NEFA released from adipose tissue. Early in the postpartum period, there is both a decrease in insulin production and a transient state of insulin resistance. These 2 mechanisms allow glucose sparing for lactogenesis by decreasing glucose use by insulin-sensitive tissues, and allowing continued lipolysis even when insulin concentrations increase.
Fatty acid oxidation: fatty acids are derived from the diet or adipose mobilisation. Ruminants have little preformed fat int heir diet and microflora cause little fat to be absorbed intact from the gut.
Fatty acids are taken up directly by the major energy requiring tissues of the body, where they can be oxidised completely to CO2 and energy. However in the absence of adequate gluose or precursors, fatty acids are more likely to be metabolised into ketone bodies
The continual release of NEFA into circulation is not always detrimental: NEFA is a good source of energy for several tissues in the body, and can be used to synthesize milk fat. However, elevated levels of NEFA can result in ab=n inability to oxidise them so they are converted into ketones or re-esterified into triglycerides in the liver and kidney, resulting in hepatic lipidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Homeorhesis

A

the orchestrated or coordinated changes in metabolism of body tissues necessary to support a physiologic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Biochemistry of ketosis

A

Several factors determine the amount and proportion of the 3 major volatile fatty acids (VFA; acetic acid, propionic acid, and butyric acid) produced by microbes in the rumen.
Acetic acid is used mainly in the liver as a major source of acetyl coenzyme A to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Butyric acid is absorbed from the rumen as a ketone body, βHB.
Propionic acid is taken up by the liver via portal circulation and serves as the major substrate for gluconeogenesis.
Liver
The liver receives approximately one-third of cardiac output and removes approximately 15% to 20% of the NEFA in circulation.
Once inside the liver, fatty acids can follow 4 pathways:
complete oxidation in the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA) pathway to produce ATP;
transport out of the liver in very low-density lipoproteins;
transformation to ketone bodies via the b-oxidation pathway or conversion to ketone bodies through peroxisomal oxidation;
or storage in the liver as triglycerides.
When levels of oxaloacetate are low and the cow is unable to oxidise all of the acetyl-CoA that she produces, excess acetyl-CoA is converted in the liver into the 3 major ketone bodies. The 3 major ketone bodies produced by the liver are
1. acetone,
2. acetoacetate (AcAc),
AcAc can convert to acetone and CO2, or alternatively into βHB.
3. βHB.

Acetone
is excreted in urine or exhaled;
it is responsible for the “pear drops/fruity” breath of ketotic cows.

While βHB accounts for most of the total ketone body pool in bovines, in lactating animals with NEB the equilibrium between AcAc and βHB may be shifted even farther toward βHB
Mammary Gland
The mammary gland is not dependent on insulin for glucose use. During excessive NEB, circulating NEFA are regularly incorporated into milk fat. During NEB in the postpartum period, milk fat concentrations tend to increase and milk protein concentrations tend to decrease; thus, the ratio between fat and protein can be used as an indicator of excessive NEB and as a predictor of the risk of developing metabolic diseases. To use milk fat and protein information as a predictor of metabolic diseases that commonly occurs within 30 days in milk (DIM), samples should be evaluated within 9 days postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sequalae of ketosis

A
Following ketosis we may see:
Hepatic lipidosis
Poor immune function, 
An excessive amount of circulating fatty acids may promote inflammation, which is an important factor in common diseases such as metritis and mastitis.
Left Displaced Abomasum
Chronic Ketosis
Poor reproduction
May not hit expected peak milk yield
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

list parts of the male reproductive anatomy in ruminents

A
Paired testes – in scrotum
Paired spermatic cord
Two epididymis
Two ductus deferens
Two ampullae
Two vesicular glands
One prostate
Paired bulbourethral gland (Cowper’s)
Fibroelastic penis – with sigmoid flexure
Spermatic cord (containing ductus deferens, vessels including pamp plexus, nerves, connect tissue and cremaster)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the sigmoid flexure

A

At birth, the bull penis is short and slender and lacks a sigmoid flexure, and its apex is fused to the inner lining of the prepuce. With time (and under the influence of androgens), penile and preputial tissues separate, the penis elongates, and a sigmoid flexure develops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Image result for luteolysis

Luteolysis

A

structural demise of the corpus luteum, which is preceded by loss of the capacity to synthesize and secrete progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Changes that occur in the uterus with pregnancy

A

The progestational changes in the endometrium that are part of the normal reproductive cycle persist and intensify in the presence of an embryo. This response is evident from about 30days after fertilization. The blastocyst is first confined to one horn, and since ovulation is commoner from the right ovary (60%) the same preference for the side is present. The membranes soon spread into the other horn, but the embryo, and later the foetus, is almost always confined unilaterally; a pronounced asymmetry of the gravid uterus Is therefore the rule. Indeed the developing inequality in the size of the horns is one of the first clinically detectable signs of pregnancy in the cow. The distended amnion is palpable from 30days, and the foetus itself may be palpated around day 70.
The 80-90 caruncles in the gravid horn increase in size and become converted from low, 15mm long, smooth-surfaced ‘bumps’ on the mucosa to large sessile swellings with a surface pitted for the reception of the chorionic villi making a Velcro-like reationship. Later, those in the non gravid horn enlarge but to a lesser degree. At term the largest caruncles are the size of a clenched fist.
Broad ligament
Hypertrophy
After the 3rd month of gestation the ligament is fully stretched
Uterus slips down over the abdominal floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

placentome

A

Cotyledon + Caruncle

Cotyledon: the fetal side of the placenta. Caruncle: the maternal side of the placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe the changes in blood flow during pregnancy

A

Blood flow:
Increase
Greatest growth of the uterine artery on the pregnant side
Can be palpated per rectum as a mobile firm vessel passing forward across the shaft of the ilium
‘Fremitus’ of the uterine artery can be palpated
Similar but smaller changes occur in the non gravid horn, vaginal and ovarian arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fremitus

A

Fremitus can be felt because of the hypertrophy of Middle Uterine Artery. There is a fluid turbulence that gives a ‘buzz’ feeling, or a kind of vibration to the artery. Middle Uterine Artery is located in the broad ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Uterine topography as gestation progresses:

A

enters the supraomental recess between the right face of the rumen and the double layer of the greater omentum

2-3months gestation: Sinks towards the abdominal floor

end of the fourth month: lies almost entirely within the abdomen, cervix carried across or beyond the pelvic brim

passes cranially below the right costal arch, pressing on the rumen to the left and the intestines dorsally. The vagina becomes stretched, and as the cervix slides down the caudal part of the abdominal floor, the uterus passes out of reach of the hand within the colon

5th month of gestation: Difficult to palpate the uterus

Further increase in size restores the uterus to reach, it extends forward to come into contact with the diaphragm and liver, pushing the diaphragm towards the thorax and reducing space available to the lungs.
Near term the pregnant uterus occupies most of the ventral and right sections of the abdomen and has raised the rumen from the abdominal floor and crushed the intestines upwards

Topography of the foetus:
First months of gestation: calf moves freely within the surrounding fluid
After 1st month: back is directed dorsally and to one side, toward the greater curvature of the uterus, and towards the mothers flank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

bovien placenta

A

Separate maternal (endometrium) and foetal components.
Foetal placenta-chorioallantois,
feotal membranes- amnion and chorioallantois

Bovine placenta- synepitheliochorial.

The three characteristics of a synepitheliochorial placenta are:
presence of TGC in fetal tro-phectoderm,
formation of fetomaternal syncytia,
development of a placentomal chorioallantoic placental organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

development of the placenta in large animals

A

uterine epithelium persists although initially modified

trophoblastic binucleate/giant cells (TGCs) create fetomaternal hybrid syncytial plaques

syncytial plaques replaced by Uterine Epithelial cells by Day 40, only transient trinucleate mini syncytia produced throughout the remainder of pregnancy.

“cotyledonary” -localized areas of trophectodermal proliferation forming “cotyledons” in the placenta;
each cotyledon is the fetal part of a placentome.

The placentome is formed by the tuft of chorionic villi from the cotyledon enmeshed with corresponding maternal crypts of the caruncles.

These crypts develop from the preformed flat endometrial caruncles. Placentome formation with a synepitheliochorial interhemal barrier provides the vast increase in surface area. The gross morphology and the pattern of fetomaternal interdigitation differ considerably among bovid species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pig placentas

A

non-invasive placenta classified as being epitheliaochorial and diffuse.
Pig blastocysts elongate extensively beginning about day 11 and become evenly spaced throughout both uterine horns.
The embryos become apposed to the uterine surface and begin to attach.
After attachment the endometrial epithelial cells become rounded with bulbous protuberances around which chorionic epithelial cells become moulded.
Processes from chorionic epithelial cells push between endometrial epithelial cells but do not penetrate the basement membrane.
Attachment is strengthened by intertwining of microvilli from chorionic and endometrial epithelial cells and interlocking ridges that act like “tongue and groove” fasteners between the two epithelia.
These attachments soon cover essentially the entire endometrial surface and the chorionic ridges become substantially larger as pregnancy progresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Vaginal palpation

A

Wear PPE=gloves, apply lube to hand, no jewellery, short nails
Approach cow safely, maintain contact
Clean vulva of faeces
Make hand into a beak shape and be gentle
Palpate the structures with flat fingers and palms
Scoop out vaginal discharge for examination
Structures
Vulva, external urethral opening, vaginal mucosa, caudal cervical ring
Cranial cervical ring, uterus, (foetal membranes, calf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Rectal palpation

A

Wear PPE=gloves, apply lube to hand, no jewellery, short nails
Approach cow safely, maintain contact
Make hand into a beak shape and be gentle
Advance arm up to just past the elbow
Palpate the structures with flat fingers and palms

Structures
Rectum, cervix, uterus, uterine horns, ovaries, (Male: seminal vesicles, ampulla, prostate)
Iliac artery, pelvis, rumen, caudal pole of the left kidney, abnormal intestines/caecum (RHS)
uterine artery, foetus, placentomes, fluid filled amniotic vesicle,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Definitive signs of pregnancy in large animals

A

Foetus
Membrane slip (<45d) (feeling the chorioallantois in the uterine lumen)
Placentomes (>8wk, felt appreciably >3m)
Uterine artery fremitus (larger with gestation, don’t confuse with iliac artery which doesn’t move from bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sexing foetuses

A

60-80days gestation
Male: hyperechoic umbilicus, penis (2 hyperechoic lines of the male genital tubercle), scrotum, followed by hindlimbs
Female: hyperechoic umbilicus, hind limbs, vulva (2 hyperechoic lines of the female genital tubercle), tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

camelid dental formula

A

1123/3123

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

describe the basics of mammary glands

A

Modified cutaneous (sweat) glands
Consists of body and papillae or opening (nipple/teat) – number varies across species
Attached to, and suspended from the ventral body wall
Typically paired structures
Function: to nourish
Each mammary gland is made of tubualveolar glands made of secretory units, grouped in lobules, separated by connective tissue septa
Mammary gland development begins with the growth of the epithelial tissue from the embryonic mammary ridge. The gland continues its development until puberty, when the first hormonal stimulus occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Galactopoiesis

A

the phase during which the mammary glands maintain lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

describe the development of mammary gland

A

Epithelial buds grow from mammary ridges (ectodermal thickenings)
Each bud raises a teat (papilla). In some species the draining point, at the teat is made of multiple duct systems.
Cows are single whereas in the bitch there can many other ducts draining into it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Histological anatomy of the mammary gland

A

Each mammary complex comprises one of more mammary units. Mammary units are made of alveoli and ducts.
The body of the mammary glands is made of epithelial tissue (alveoli) and connective tissue with nerves, blood and lymph vessels.
Mammary units end in a system of ducts at the tip of the teat (papilla)

The milk producing part of the gland is divided in lobules (for anatomy purposes!) which are made of alveoli-epithelial tissue. The milk drains into the intralobular duct and from there to a larger interlobular duct and from there to the lactiferous sinus which opens in the teat orifice. This sinus has a little constriction, which creates the part of the sinus close to the gland and the part of the sinus inside the teat itself.
Glands separated by connective tissue
Teat - smooth muscle and elastic fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

describe the streak canal of the mammary glands

A

Functions to keep milk in udder and bacteria out of udder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

describe the teat cistern of the mammary glands

A

Duct in teat with capacity of 30-45 millilitres. Separated from streak canal by folds of tissue called Furstenberg’s rosette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

describe the gland cistern of the mammary glands

A

Separated from teat cistern by the cricoid fold. Holds up to 400 millilitres of milk, collecting area for the mammary ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

isometric growth of mammary glands

A

Birth -> puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

allometric growth of mammary glands

A

Puberty -> pregnancy
Oestrogen – duct development
Progesterone (luteal phase) – alveoli formation
Prolactin, Growth hormone contribute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

describe mammary growth in pregnancy

A

= final mammary development
Terminal alveoli grow into lobules
Prolactin, adrenal cortical hormones and placental lactogen for synthesis of milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

describe the process of lactogenisis

A

During lactogenesis, the mammary epithelium becomes highly differentiated. This period is associated with an overall increase in the size and metabolic activity of each cell, closure of tight junctions between cells, an increase in mitochondrial size, and development of the endoplasmic reticulum
In ruminants, PRL and glucocorticoids provide the primary stimulus for lactogenesis
Rise in progesterone
Tertiary branching of the ductal system

Rise in prolactin in dogs
Required for full development
Initiates lactation

Some species (similar action)
Placental lactogen (ruminants)
Relaxin (sow, horse)

Lactogenesis initiated
Alveoli accumulate colostrum

Increased prolactin (PRL) just before parturition
In other species it contributes to increase milk yield, but this has not been a consistent finding in ruminant
Cortisol stimulates differentiation of the glandular epithelium
GH – insulin growth factor signalling axis. At the start of lactation is a trigger, but mid-lactation GH increases milk yield
Oxytocin – simply helps with the release of milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Milk ejection/let down

A

Milk ejection is active transfer of milk from alveoli and alveolar ducts into larger mammary ducts, cisterns and into the teat/nipples where it can be removed by the suckling neonate.
Active neuroendocrine reflex
Results in rapid transfer of milk from alveolus  teat of mammary gland

Important to feed neonate and prevent pressure atrophy.
More frequent removal = less pressure atrophy = greater quantity of milk can be secreted
Majority of milk remains in alveoli
Milk letdown is a neuroendocrine reflex
Induces emptying of the mammary gland

Sensory activation
Neural activation
Oxytocin release:
binds to myoepithelium in alveoli and ducts
Causes smooth muscle in teat to relax

Tactile stimulation, sounds of neonate, visual triggers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Involution

A

Return to non-secretory state
Recovery time
Less suckling by neonate  build up of pressure
pressure atrophy
Increase feedback inhibitor of lactation (FIL) – inhibits milk synthesis

Secretory cells remain non functional until next pregnancy
Next pregnancy  Alveolar cells restimulated
Prolactin, adrenal cortical hormones, placental lactogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what muscles are involved in the pelvic diaphram

A

coccygeus

levator ani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

describe the origin, termination, inervation and function of the coccugeus

A

Spine of the ischichium and medial surface of the sacrosciatic ligament
Transverse process of the first 3 caudal vertebrae
Pudendal and caudorectal nerve from ventral branch of sacral nerve
Unilateral contralateral draws tail laterally; bilateral contralateral draws tail ventrally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

describe the origin, termination, inervation and function of the levator ani

A

Spine of the ischichium and medial surface of the sacrosciatic ligament
External anal sphincter, caudal fascia
Pudendal and caudorectal nerve from ventral branch of sacral nerve
Holds anus against the contraction of the rectum, aids coccygeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Innervation of and mechanisms involved in the erection of the cavernous tissue in males and females

A

Nerves: parasympathetic, from the pelvic nerves
Erection of the penis is brought about by engorgement of the cavernous and spongy spaces

2 distinct phases of erection are recognised:
Firstly : sexual excitement, blood flow into the penis increases as the walls of the supplying arteries relax.
Secondly: at the same time the venous outflow is obstructed.

Females: clitoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Erection in the fibroelastic penis

A

slight increase in diameter and length
sigmoid flexure
little additional engorgement is required and erection may be rapidly achieved.
In the first phase of erection, there is parasympathetically mediated relaxation of the supplying arteries occurs. This raises the pressure within the corpus spongiosum and corpus cavernosum from the resting level (5 to 16mm Hg) to the arterial pressure (75 to 80mm Hg); the pressures within these bodies then fluctuate with the heart-beat. The apex of the penis protrudes at this stage, although the muscles of the penis (the ischiocavernosi and bulbospongiosus) are not yet active. Contractions of the ischiocavernosi now raise the pressure further and at the same time occlude both the arteries and the veins by compressing them against the ischial arch. These contractions impel blood forward through thick-walled dorsal and ventrolateral veins of the corpus cavernosum to discharge within the sigmoid flexure. The increase in pressure effaces the bends and straightens the penis, causing it to protrude about 25 to 40cm from the prepuce. After intromission, contact with the vaginal wall stimulates the receptors in the integument of the free part, reflexly stimulating completion of erection. During a short period pressure in the corpus cavernosum can rise remarkably, even to 60 to 100 times the arterial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

MOET

A

Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (embryo flush)

Cause multiple ovulations from an ovary using hormonal therapy, inseminate the animal, retrieve the embryos and implant them into recipients/freeze

Advantages:
quickly multiply the genetics of the top females in the herd.
produce calves with superior genetics.
Females in the herd with less desirable genetics can serve as recipients
Embryos can be produced and sold to other producers who transfer them into their own recipient females.
Frozen embryos can be exported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Heterotrophs

A

need to consume other organisms to live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Chemoheterotrophs

A

use organic chemicals and compounds as carbon source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

saprotrophs

A

live off dead or decomposing organic matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

heterotrophic fungi

A

Enzymes synthesised inside fungal hyphae

Excreted via exocytosis

Act on surrounding medium to break it down

Digested organic compounds are then reabsorbed in solution through the cell wall

Large surface area aids absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Biotrophic

A

feed off living cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Necrotrophic:

A

invade living cells, kill them then digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Moulds grow by

A

hyphal tip extension

Cell wall softened at tip

Turgor pressure extends wall

Increase in length as opposed to width

Increases surface area for absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

cell wall of fungi

A

Cell wall is composed of β-glucan and chitin to provide strength and rigidity and resist osmotic stress
Cell membrane is similar to other eukaryotes but has ergosterol instead of cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

mold

A

multicellular fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

yeast

A

unicellular fungi
Unicellular, non-filamentous
Facultative anaerobes: carry out aerobic respiration when O₂ is available and anaerobic (fermentation) when no O₂ available
Reproduce by mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

dimorphic fungi

A

display both yeastlike and moldlike growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

mycelium

A

Made up of hyphae

Extensive tissue invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

septate Hyphae:

A

cross walls that form between cells but often have pores to allow movement of cytoplasm and organelles (oposite of coenocytic hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Ascomycetes produce

A

conidia on conidiophores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Zygomycetes

A

produce sporangiospores on sporangiophores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

resting spores

A

Produced as a result of sexual reproduction

Thicker cell walls protect from abiotic and biotic factors

Harder to eradicat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

mycosis

A

Infection by a fungal agent is called mycosis
Mycoses are generally chronic conditions because fungi grow slowly
Classification is based on the type of tissue infected and the mode of entry into the body - Systemic (lungs, deep tissue/organs) - Subcutaneous (beneath the skin) - Cutaneous (skin, hair and nails) - Superficial (skin surface, hair shafts) - Opportunistic (immune suppression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Dermatophytoses:

A

the generamicrosporumandtrichophyton
Microsporum canis; gallinae; gypseum; nanum

Large, rough, thick-walled multiseptate macroconidia
Fusiform to obovate

Attack hair and skin

Most commondermatophyte

Trichophyton mentagrophytes; equinum; verrucosum

Rarely produce macroconidia
Single-cell microconidia are numerous
Solitary or in clusters
Attack hair, skin, nails, horns, claws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Dermatophytes

A

Arthrospores/conidia are source of infection

Entry via injured skin, scars and burns

Colonisation of keratinised layers

Invade and multiply within keratinised tissues
Produce keratinase

Induces inflammatory reactions
Move away from infection site
Need to overcome biotic and abiotic factors (primary defences)
Adherence and penetration is slow (2-5 days)
Carbohydrate-specific adhesins on surface of conidia
Secreted proteases can facilitate adherence
Fibrillar projections connect conidia to keratinocytes (skin surface
Hyphae grow centrifugally from the initial lesion towards normal skin, producing typical ringworm lesions

Alopecia, tissue repair and nonviable hyphae are found at the centres of lesions as they develop

Growth of hyphae can result in epidermal hyperplasia (overgrowth of skin cells) and hyperkeratosis (thickening of outer layer of skin).
Strategies:

Adherence
Invasion
Colonisation and spread
Immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Aspergillus

A

Primarily a respiratory infection

Spores are very small

Can pass through upper respiratory tract

Carried to terminal part of bronchial tree
Spore germination and invasion of tissue is controlled by many factors
No true virulence factors
Combination of factors leads to disease state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

fungal gleotoxin

A

assosiated with the hyphae
induces cell apoptosis, eithelial cell damage
inhibition of phagocitosis and t-cell response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

fungal restrictocin

A

assosiated with hyphae

inhibitd neutrophil mediated hyphal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

fungal verruculogen

A

assosiated with hyphae and condia

affects transepithelial resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

fungal fumagillin

A

assosiated with the hyphae

damages epithelial cells and slows ciliary beating. angiogenesis inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

fungal helvolic acid

A

assosiated with the hyphae

damages epithelial cells and slows ciliary beating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

describe the invasion of aspergillus

A

Hyphal invasion of blood vessels

Vasculitis and thrombus formation

Formation of mycotic granulomas in the lungs

Vascular dissemination

Colonisation and invasion of other internal organs

Additional mycotic granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Candida albicans

A

Commensal yeast that lives on mucosal membranes

Pleomorphic switch from yeast to filamentous growth
Phagocytic clearance eliminates most yeast cells

Those that survive convert to hyphal forms

Enables tissue penetration and resistance to phagocytosis
Adherence
Avoidance 
Flexibility
Integrin-like molecules on cell surface

Allows adhesion to matrix proteins on mucosal cells
Secretion of toxins; proteinases; lipases and phospholipases to aid tissue invasion

Msb2p counteracts complement system (antimicrobials)
Pre-disposing factors e.g. defective cell-mediated immunity, concurrent disease, prolonged use of antimicrobials, damage from catheters
Vascular invasion by hyphae

Haematogenous spread

Production of systemic lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Principal features of mycotoxicoses

A

Outbreaks are often seasonal and sporadic

  • May be associated with particular batches of stored feed or certain types of pasture
  • No evidence of transmission to in-contact animals
  • Susceptibility can vary with the species, age and sex of the animals exposed
  • Clinical presentation may be ill-defined
  • Antimicrobial treatment is ineffective
  • Recovery depends on type and amount of mycotoxin ingested and the duration of exposure to contaminated food
  • Characteristic lesions in target organs of affected animals provide supporting diagnostic evidence
  • Confirmation requires demonstration of significant levels of a specific mycotoxin in suspect feed or in tissues of affected animals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Aflatoxicosis

A

Aflatoxins are a group of approximately 20 related toxic compounds produced by some strains of Aspergillus flavus (Fig. 44.2), Aspergillus parasiticus and a number of other Aspergillus species during growth on natural substrates including growing crops and stored food. These fungi are ubiquitous, saprophytic moulds which grow on a variety of cereal grains and foodstuffs such as maize, cottonseed and groundnuts. About half of the strains of A. flavus and A. parasiticus are toxigenic under optimal environmental conditions. High humidity and high temperatures during preharvesting, harvesting, transportation and storage, as well as damage to field crops by insects, drought and mechanical injury during harvesting favour the growth of A. flavus and toxin production.
effects all animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Aflatoxins

A

Aflatoxins are a group of related difuranocoumarin compounds with toxic, carcinogenic, teratogenic and mutagenic activity. The four major aflatoxins are B1, B2, G1 and G2. Aflatoxin B1 (AFB1) is the most commonly occurring and also the most toxic and carcinogenic member of the group
Most of the other aflatoxins are metabolites formed endogenously in animals after ingestion or administration of aflatoxins. Aflatoxins are stable compounds in food and feed products and are relatively resistant to heat. They retain much of their activity after exposure to dry heat at 250°C and moist heat at 120°C but may be degraded by sunlight. They have a low molecular weight and are nonantigenic in their native state.
The toxic effects of aflatoxins are dose-, time- and species-dependent. Mature ruminants are less susceptible to the effects of mycotoxins than young animals and monogastric animals. The toxins are absorbed from the stomach and metabolized in the liver to a range of toxic and nontoxic metabolites which are then excreted in urine and milk. The major biological effects of aflatoxins include inhibition of RNA and protein synthesis, impairment of hepatic function, carcinogenesis and immunosuppression.
AFB1 is bioactivated in the liver to a highly reactive intermediate compound which reacts with various nucleophiles in the cell and binds covalently with DNA, RNA and protein. After deliberate administration of AFB1 there is marked interference with protein synthesis at the translational level which seems to correlate with disaggregation of polyribosomes in the endoplasmic reticulum. Many of the toxic responses observed in animals resulting from AFB1 activity can be attributed to alterations in carbohydrate and lipid metabolism and interference with mitochondrial respiration.
Short-term effects include acute toxicity with clinical evidence of hepatic injury and nervous signs such as ataxia and convulsions. In acutely affected animals death may occur suddenly. Long-term consumption of low levels of aflatoxins probably constitutes a much more serious veterinary problem than acute, fulminating outbreaks of aflatoxicosis. With chronic aflatoxicosis there is reduction in efficiency of food conversion, depressed daily weight gain, decreased milk production in dairy cattle and enhanced susceptibility to intercurrent infections in most species due to immunosuppression.
AFB1 is also an extremely potent hepatocarcinogen in many species of animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Fumonisins

A

these substances are produced by several species of the genus Fusarium
The presence of fumonisins in corn grains has been associated with cases of esophageal cancer in inhabitants of the region of Transkei in southern Africa, in China and in northeastern Italy (Peraica, Radic, Lucic, & Pavlovic, 1999). Fumonisins are also responsible for the leukoencephalomacia in equine species and rabbits (Bucci et al., 1996, Fandohan et al., 2003, Marasas et al., 1988); pulmonary edema and hydrothorax in pigs (Harrison, Colvin, Greene, Newman, & Cole, 1990); and hepatotoxic, carcinogenic and apoptosis (programmed cell death) effects in the liver of rats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Trichothecenes

A

produced by fungi of the genera Fusarium, Myrothecium, Phomopsis, Stachybotrys, Trichoderma, Trichotecium, Verticimonosporium and possibly others
strong capacity to inhibit eukaryotic protein synthesis, interfering in the initiation, the elongation and termination steps of protein synthesis.#
DON is the mycotoxin most commonly found in grains. When ingested in high doses by animals it causes nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. When ingested by pigs and other animals in small doses it can cause weight loss and the refusal to eat. Due to these symptoms induced by deoxynivalenol it is known as vomitoxin or food refusal factor. Although less toxic than other trichothecenes, DON is more common in the seeds of safflower, barley, rye, and wheat and in feed mixtures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Zearalenone

A

this is a secondary metabolite produced mainly by Fusarium graminearum
The association between the consumption of moldy grains and hyperestrogenism in pigs has been observed since 1920. High concentrations of zearalenone in pig feed may cause disturbances related to conception, abortion and other problems
In Brazil this toxin has been found on cereals and oak flakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Citrinin

A

Citrinin was first isolated from secondary metabolites of Penicillium citrinum, well before the Second World War (Hetherington & Raistrick, 1931). Subsequently, other species of Penicillium (Penicillium expansum and Penicillium viridicatum) and even of Aspergillus (Aspergillus niveus and Aspergillus terreus) also showed the capacity to produce these substances.
It has also been considered responsible for nephropathy in pigs and other animals, although its acute toxicity varies depending on the animal species (Carlton & Tuite, 1977). Oat (moldy), rye, barley, corn and wheat grains are excellent substrates for the formation of citrinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Ergot alkaloids

A

cereal grains infected by Claviceps purpurea
Also known as ergotism, this intoxication occurs after the ingestion of bread or other products prepared with rye bread grains infected by fungus. Ergotism has two classic forms: gangrenous and convulsive. The gangrenous form affects the supply of blood to the extremities of the body, while the convulsive form acts directly on the central nervous system
With the modern techniques of grain cleaning the problem of ergotism has been practically eliminated from the human food chain. However, it remains a threat from the veterinary perspective. The animals which are susceptible to intoxication include cattle, ovine species, pigs and birds. The clinical symptoms of ergotism in these animals manifest in the form of gangrene, abortion, convulsions, suppression of lactation, hypersensitivity and ataxia (loss of coordination of voluntary muscular movements)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Ochratoxin A

A

Ochratoxin A has been found in oats, barley, wheat, coffee grains and other products for human and animal consumption
metabolite of Aspergillus ochraceus
associated with nephropathy in all animals studied to date
also shows hepatoxic, immunosuppressive, teratogenic and carcinogenic behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

name the four main categories of authorized veterinary medicines:

A

POM-V medicines that can only be prescribed by a veterinary surgeon (veterinarian)
– POM-VPS medicines that can be prescribed by a veterinary surgeon, pharmacist or suitably qualified person
(SQP)
– NFA-VPS medicines that can be supplied by a veterinary surgeon, pharmacist or SQP
– AVM-GSL medicines that can be sold by anyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The Veterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD)

A

an executive agency of the Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs
(Defra), is the UK regulatory authority for veterinary medicines and has responsibility for the development of the Veterinary
Medicines Regulations (VMR). The VMR regulate the authorization, manufacture, distribution and use of veterinary medicines
in the UK.
The VMR transpose EU legislation relating to veterinary medicinal products (VMP) and are explained in the Veterinary
Medicines Guidance pages of the VMD website
They are assessed for safety, efficacy and quality
■ All must have a Marketing Authorization (MA)
■ Authorized VMP must display a VM or EU code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

All POM-V medicines supplied by the practice must be legibly and indelibly labelled with:

A

Name and address of the animal owner
■ Name and address of the veterinary practice supplying the medicine
■ Date of supply
■ Name, strength and quantity of product
■ Dosage and directions for use
■ ‘For animal treatment only’
■ For topical preparations: ‘For external use only’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Written prescriptions for Controlled Drugs

A

If a written prescription is issued for a Controlled Drug (CD) it can be typed, computer generated or handwritten, but it must
be personally signed by the person issuing it.
It is an offence to supply a Schedule 2 or 3 CD against a faxed or emailed prescription.
In addition to the general prescription requirements above, a written prescription for a Schedule 2 or 3 CD should state
an exact dose in words as well as in figures (e.g. not ‘as directed’), and it must include the RCVS number of the veterinary
surgeon prescribing the drug.
A written prescription for Schedule 2 or 3 CDs can only be dispensed once and only within 28 days. Single prescriptions
with multiple dispenses (repeatable prescriptions) are not allowed for Schedule 2 and 3 CDs. It is good practice to mark the
prescription ’no repeats’.
It is a best practice recommendation to dispense only 28 days of CDs at a time. If it is considered necessary to dispense a
CD for a longer period (e.g. in the case of an epileptic dog on long-term medication), the veterinary surgeon must make sure
that the owner is competent to use and store it safely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Cryptococcosis

A

C. neoformans and C. gatti are dimorphic basidiomycetous fungi

Oval haploid budding yeast (vegetative growth)

Transition to filamentous sexual stage (Filobasidiella neoformans) known as a teleomorph
Important fungal infection of humans and animals
Primarily infects immune-compromised patients
Most common in cats
Also seen in dogs, cattle, horses, sheep, goats, birds and wild animals
Virulence factors:

Polysaccharide capsule
Melanin
Mannitol
Enzymes

“Sugar coated killer”
Phenotypic switching
Development of pulmonary lesions

Dissemination via hematogenous spread in macrophages
Localisation in central nervous system

Cross blood brain barrier (BBMB) via transcytosis or inside infected macrophages

Formation of lesions in the brain

Results in neurological signs
Infection can spread to the eye along optic nerves or hematogenous dissemination

Results in cryptococcal optic neuritis and retinitis
Most common systemic mycosis

Chronic infection causing listlessness and weight loss

Cutaneous legions, some large and ulcerative

Upper respiratory signs such as sneezing, chronic nasal discharge, polyp-like masses, subcutaneous swelling over the bridge of the nose

Neurological symptoms include depression, changes in temperament, seizures, circling, paresis and blindness

Optic signs include dilated, unresponsive pupils, blindness, inflammation of ocular structures
Dogs present meningoencephalitis, optic neuritis and granulomatous chorioretinitis

Disseminated disease with CNS or ocular involvement more common than respiratory
Cytologic evaluation of:
Nasal exudate
Skin exudate
Cerebrospinal fluid
Paracentesis of aqueous or vitreous chambers of the eye
Impression smears of nasal or cutaneous masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Phenotypic switching

A

Alterations in cell membrane and capsule structure

Allows cells to persist in the host by minimising the inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Sporotrichosis

A

Seen in cats, dogs, horses, donkeys, pigs, fowl, goats and cattle

Most common in cats and dogs
Entry of spores (conidia) or mycelia through broken skin

Directly through cut or puncture wound

Indirectly through contamination of existing wound

Also transmission in cat scratches
Subcutaneous/lymphocutaneous: most common form
Pulmonary: rare but possible via breathing in fungal spores
Disseminated: spread of infection to other parts of the body (immunocompromised patient
Conversion from mycelial to yeast form upon entry

Production of extracellular enzymes and adhesins allow adhesion to and invasion of cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue

Adhesion to extracellular protein fibronectin

Proteinases I and II hydrolyse stratum corneum cells
Definitive diagnosis relies on culture of both forms
Prognosis is good

Long treatment duration requires owner compliance
Itraconazole is feline drug of choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

expalne the mechanisms of common anti fungals

A

target the cell membrane- AMPHOTERICIN
ECHINOCANDINS
AZOLES
MACROLIDES

target mitosis/ replication- GRISEOFULVIN

target by DNA synthesis- FLUCYTOSINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Amphotericin: Mechanism of Action

A

creates artificial ion channel
Amphotericin binds fungal membrane ergosterol (fungal cholesterol) causing:
Increased membrane permeability and
Creation of transmembrane channels (pores)

Resulting in:
Leakage of monovalent ions (K+, Na+, H+, and Cl-),
Leakage of macromolecules from fungal cell

Other mechanisms:
Stimulates fungus to produce oxygen radicles
Modulation of macrophage activity
Stimulates pro-inflammatory cytokines
Reactive oxygen intermediates
Nitric oxide
Eventually cell death

can enhance other antifungals
good for disseminated aspergillus

“Conventional”
Amphotericin B deoxycholate (AmB-d)

Newer (lipid-based) formulations
Liposomal amphotericin B (L-AmB)
Amphotericin B lipid complex (ABLC)
Amphotericin B colloidal dispersion (ABCD)
Many others- Fewer side effects: lipid vehicle acts as reservoirs, reducing binding to cells
Improved tolerability
Altered tissue penetration – more in liver, spleen and brain, less in lung and kidneys
Reduced toxicity (esp. nephrotoxicity and anaemia)
However, compared to AmB-D these formulations are less potent by mg dose

Resistance:
Dermatophytes- no ergosterol
Pythium
Candida- resistence

Antifungal Spectra:
Candidaspp
Rhodotorulaspp
Cryptococcus neoformans
Histoplasma capsulatum
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Coccidioides immitis
Trichophyton
Microsporum
Epidermophytonspp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Amphotericin: Pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption
Poorly absorbed from the GI tract:
Amphotericin B (IV, Topical, Local, Intrathecally, Intraocularly)
Nystatin/Piramycin (Topically)

Distribution
Well distributed in most body compartments
CNS penetration ~0%- unless there is inflamation, good for crytococcal meningitis

Elimination
Initial Phase (24 hours): 70% plasma reduction, 50% Urine reduction
Second Elimination Phase: 15 day half life.
Excreted unchanged in urine (21%) and faeces (43%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Imidazoles

A
enilconazole
fluconazole
itraconazole
ketoconazole
thiabendazole
change permiability of membrane by inhibiting synthesis of ergosterol
Resistance:
No major
Antifungal Spectra
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Candidaspp
Coccidioides immitis
Cryptococcus neoformans
Aspergillus fumigatus
used in mild to moderate disease
or in combination in severe disease
Inhibition of CYP450 results in reduction of:
Progesterone
Pregnenolone
Corticosterone
Aldosterone
Cortisol
Estrone
Estradiol
Estriol

toxicity more common in cats than dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Imidazoles: Pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption
Rapidly absorbed from the GI tract

Distribution
Well distributed in most body compartments
CNS penetration poor (Fluconazole about 50-90% plasma conc)
Highly protein bound (95%)

Elimination
Initial Phase (1-2 hours): Rapid 
Second Elimination Phase (6-9 hours): Slower
Roughly 5% unchanged in urine
Roughly 80% bilary excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Flucytosine

A
enhances other anti fungals
Mechanism
Converted to fluorouracil
Inhibits RNA synthesis
Inhibits protein synthesis
Resistance
Can develop over course of treatment
Antifungal Spectra
Cryptococcus neoformans
Candida albicans,
Candida spp
Torulopsis glabrata
Sporothrix schenckii
Aspergillus spp

Adverse Effects and Toxicity:
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Reversible hepatic and hematologic effects (increased liver enzymes, anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia).

Interactions:
Synergistic antifungal activity between amphotericin B and ketoconazole.
Renal effects of amphotericin B prolong elimination of flucytosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Flucytosine: Pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption
Rapidly absorbed from the GI tract

Distribution
Well distributed in most body compartments
CNS Excellent
Minimal protein bound

Elimination
Roughly 85% unchanged in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Griseofulvin

A

Mitotic Inhibitor
Inhibits formation of the mitotic spindle.

Fungistatic
Prevents fungi growth rather than killing the fungi.
Use
Dermatophyte infections
Resistance
Can develop over course of treatment
Antifungal Spectra
Microsporum
Epidermophyton
Trichophytonspp.
Actinomyces
Nocardiaspp
Adverse Effects and Toxicity:
Rare
Vomiting
Diarrhoea 
Teratogenic (contraindicated in pregnant animals especially mares and queens)

Interactions
Lipids increase GI absorption of griseofulvin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Griseofulvin: Pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption
Rapidly absorbed from the GI tract, enhanced by high-fat diet.

Distribution
Well distributed in most body compartments
Binds well to keratin
Higher effect in growing nails/horn.

Elimination
Roughly 85% unchanged in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Virion

A

is the infectious particle
composed of nucleic acid, protein capsid, +/- envelope
may be extracellular or intracellular
Has viral surface proteins that attach to host cell surface proteins which allow entry into a cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

describe the four aspects of virus replication

A

Four aspects of virus replication

Entry – binding to host cells and entering the cell
Replication – Producing new copies of the genome
Assesmbly – producing new virus particles
Release – Exiting the cell to infect a new host or a new cell within the current host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

describe virus entry

A

Virus has to bind to cells
Binding can occur via cellular proteins that act as receptors
IMPORTANT to realize that receptors are normal cell proteins that viruses hijack they are not there just for the viruses – they have normal cellular functions
Receptors tend to be virus-specific
Multiple viruses can bind the same receptors
Some receptors bind viruses but don’t facilitate infection – pseudo receptors
Can also be cell type specific – if virus has specific host cell tropism

Not all cell-surface molecules are able to bind virus, if the virus binds to a different molecule no entry is possible
RSFV binds to lrp1
Found on all cell types a ubiquitous receptor allows the virus to enter lots of different cell types
Rabies virus binds to Acetylcholine receptor
Found on muscle cells and the synapses between the nerve and muscle cells – allows the virus to infect muscle and neurons
Poxviruses thought to bind to glycosaminoglycans
These are universal throughout the cells, but it is likely that the virus has specific tropisms to different cells, which is a result of downstream signalling within the cell, not binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

describe Basics of virus replication

A

Viruses hijack the cells systems to replicate – they cannot do it without the cellular machinery
Can occur in the cytoplasm or the nucleus – on membranes on in complexes
Viral proteins also interact with the cellular systems to inhibit cellular transcription or activate other cellular pathways to facilitate infection
Replication occurs in the nucleus for all but one group of DNA viruses
One exception to the rule is Pox viruses (monkeypox) that replicate in Cytoplasm

mRNA’s are then moved out to the cytoplasm for translation and assembly
Viruses uncoat once they enter the cell – Genomic material released for replication

Genomic material is either immediately transcribed (DNA/RNA viruses) or requires an extra step ( negative sense viruses, and retroviruses)

Viruses hijack the host cell systems and produce proteins using the host cell resources, though RNA viruses use their own replication complex proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Poxvirus Replication

A

complexes in the cytoplasm
No use of the DNA so must carry their own polymerase
Activation of various genes in early, intermediate and late phase to facilitate replication and assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Positive strand RNA virus replication

A

Virus enters the cell
Uncoats and the genomic RNA starts producing protein
RNA then generates a replicative intermediate to generate a new genomic RNA
Packaged and then exits the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Negative strand RNA virus replication

A

Virus enters cell and uncoats
mRNA is produced to produce protein
Replication occurs by way of a dsRNA intermediate
Virus assembly from proteins and the genomic RNA
Cell exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Retrovirus replication

A

Virus enters the cell
The RNA is reverse transcribed and then imported into the nucleus
Integrated and then transcribed to produce mRNA
Translated into proteins and then assembly of the virus and release from the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

describe Virus Assembly

A

Surface proteins, either envelope proteins and/or capsids packaged to produce new viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

describe Virus release

A

2 main ways:

Budding from cell using host lipids and generating new enveloped viruses
Lysis of the cell releasing virus into the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

list the aetiological agents that can contribute to the development of Kennel Cough in dogs in the UK (both bacterial and viral).

A

parainfluenza virus, canine adenovirus and Bordetella bronchiseptica, as well as mycoplasmas, Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus, canine herpesvirus and reovirus-1,-2 and -3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

parainfluenza virus

A

Type of virus: 50- to 200-nm virion consisting of a
nucleocapsid surrounded by a lipid envelope that is obtained as the nucelocapsid buds from the plasma membrane of an infected cell. 17 All PIVs, including CPIV,
have a single-stranded, nonsegmented, negative-sense
RNA genome
Pathogenesis and relevant virulence factors:
Incubation period: 3 to 10 days after infection, and viral shedding typically occurs 6 to 8 days after infection
Clinical signs and potential outcome:
Persistent cough
Fever
Nasal discharge
Sneezing
Eye inflammation
Lethargy
Loss of appetite
CPIV suppresses the innate branch of the immune system and causes the loss of cilia and ciliated epithelium, it makes conditions more favorable for coinfections. In puppies or immunosuppressed adult dogs, the presence of CPIV in coinfections can lead to a more severe pneumonia and can be fatal.

Diagnosis: based on the dog’s medical history, clinical signs, vaccination history and physical exam. If a specific diagnosis of canine parainfluenza is needed, ocular and oral swabs can be submitted to the lab for PCR testing to confirm the presence of CPIV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

CAV-2

A
Type of virus:
Pathogenesis and relevant virulence factors:
Incubation period:
Clinical signs and potential outcome: 
    Dry, hacking cough
    Conjunctivitis (causing redness and inflammation of the eye)
    Coughing up foamy discharge
    Retching
    Nasal discharge

Diagnosis: Your vet will want to hear some background history of your dog’s health, details of any symptoms and about any possible exposure to the virus through contact with other dogs. In addition to a thorough physical examination, blood and urine samples will be taken for testing and analysis as they will want to rule out any other more serious conditions such as canine adenovirus type-1, canine distemper and parvovirus which initially exhibit similar symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

canine parainfluenza vaccine

A

non-core

Administer at 6–8 weeks
of age, then every 2–4
weeks until 16 weeks of
age or older [EB4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Rabbit haemorrhagic disease virus

A

Infection is easily transmitted between infected rabbits by the oral, nasal or conjunctival routes, with the digestive system and respiratory tract as the main portals.

Only a few virions are required to produce infection.

Food bowls and bedding can transmit infection. Carcases from wild rabbits that died from RHD can be a source of infection, by spreading the virus via the faeces of scavengers.

RHD has a short incubation period of one to four days.

The virus replicates in many tissues, including the lung, liver and spleen, with subsequent viraemia and haemorrhage.
Viral tropism is for hepatocytes. The disease it causes is essentially a necrotising hepatitis, often associated with necrosis of the spleen. Disseminated intravascular coagulation produces fibrinous thrombi in small blood vessels in most organs, notably the lungs, heart and kidneys, resulting in haemorrhages. Death is due to disseminated intravascular coagulopathy or liver failure.
Peracute, with animals found dead within hours of eating and behaving normally. This is a common presentation
Acute, with affected rabbits showing lethargy, pyrexia (above 40°C) and increased respiratory rate. These animals usually die within 12 hours.
Subacute, with rabbits showing mild or subclinical signs from which they recover and become immune to infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Feline Enteric Coronavirus

A

Two forms of the disease
Mild enteric disease in kittens – GI tract
Feline Infectious Peritonitis – can be fatal

Mutations in the virus lead to the difference in the virus resulting in FIPV – lethal version of the disease

Mortality is high once symptoms occur
FECVs show a pronounced tropism toward epithelial cells in the gut, but they are also able to infect monocytes, albeit inefficiently. It was suggested that in monocytes—rather than in intestinal epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

FECV to FIPV

A

FIP develops in approximately 5% of cats that are persistently infected with FECV
FECVs acquire mutations that can convert them into FIPVs (Pedersen et al., 2012). The resulting FIPVs display an altered cell tropism; they infect and replicate efficiently in monocytes and macrophages. This property is considered a key step in the development of FIP.
One gene the 3c shows a full-length gene in FECV
Essential for replication in the gut – pathogenesis of FECV

In FIPV this 3c gene shows mutations and a truncated gene
Hypothesise that this might result in increased tropisms for macrophages – FIPV

Spike protein can also show 2 mutations in the protein consistent in FIPV sequences – results in increased disease outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Bluetongue virus

A

Bluetongue is characterised by changes to the mucous membranes of the mouth and nose, and the coronary band of the foot.
Clinical signs are generally more severe in sheep but cattle can show signs of disease.
A veterinary surgeon must be contacted by the farmer where large numbers of sheep or cattle present with lameness, high rectal temperatures, salivation, lacrimation and ocular and nasal discharges.
Bluetongue is a notifiable disease in the UK
Midges – culicoides spp. are the vector

Ruminants can be infected, primarily sheep

Once the sheep is infected – enters the lymph nodes and then needs to get into the blood to continue transmission

Symptoms are a result of the prolonged viremia
Midge bite in the skin results in recruitment of APC’s at the bite site and virus migration to the lymphoid cells
BTV replicates within mononuclear phagocytic and endothelial cells, lymphocytes and possibly other cell types in lymphoid tissues, the lungs, skin and other tissues.
Followed by migration to the blood – circulates around the body
Infected ruminants may exhibit a prolonged but not persistent viraemia and BTV is associated with erythrocytes during the late stages of this prolonged viraemia.
The prolonged viremia results in injury to small blood vessels in target tissues – show the characteristic blue tongue
Shows haemorrhage and ulcers in the oral cavity and upper gastrointestinal tract; necrosis of skeletal and cardiac muscle; coronitis; subintimal haemorrhage in the pulmonary artery; oedema of the lungs, ventral subcutis, and fascia of the muscles of the neck and abdominal wall; and pericardial, pleural and abdominal effusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Canine Herpesvirus

A

Clinical signs of canine herpesvirusifpresented are:
Lethargy
Decreased suckling
Diarrhea
Nasal discharge
Conjunctivitis
Corneal edema
Red rash, rarely oral or genital vesicles
Soft, yellow-green feces
Notable absence of fever
CHV is primarily lethal in neonates (1-4 weeks old)
If infected after 1-2 weeks they will generally survive
Timing is therefore key to survival
Infection is by oronasal secretions of other dogs/mother or otherwise
Incubation period is 6-10 days
Duration of illness is 1-3 days
Herpesviruses only infect neonates due to the immature immune system
Not just in dogs, but also in humans very similar
disseminated herpes infection— the most dangerous type of herpes infection. The herpes virus is spread throughout the neonates body and can affect multiple organs, including the liver, brain, lungs, and kidney.
Why do adults not get it?
Functional immune system
Can result in latency
Latency is a hallmark of herpesvirus infections

The viral genome exists as an episome (naked, circular DNA) in the host cell nucleus

No virus is produced until reactivation
Not the same as persistent infection (continuous viral production)

E.g. VZV, which causes chickenpox in children, causes shingles when reactivated in the adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Rift Valley Fever virus

A

Most commonly seen in domesticated animals in sub-Saharan Africa,
cattle, buffalo, sheep, goats, and camels.
People can get RVF through contact with blood, body fluids, or tissues of infected animals, or through bites from infected mosquitoes.
Mosquitoes are the main driver of transmission
Take a blood meal from an infected animal
Infected mosquitoes incubate for 7-14 days
Then once it reaches the saliva it can transmit to the next animal perpetuating the cycle
Cattle movement across boundaries
Climate change expands range of mosquitoes – increases disease range
Increased rains that allow increased mosquito numbers and therefore transmission rates
Notifiable disease DEFRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

High Pathogenic Avian Influenza H5N1

A

The flu virus is an RNA virus
The genome codes for five viral proteins and is made of eight fragments.
The virus has a lipid envelope with two glycoproteins present
Haemagglutinin - this glycoprotein plays a part in infection and provides the “H” in the strain type.
Haemagglutinin attaches the virus to cells and allows the viral envelope to fuse with the cell membrane and enter cells.
Neuraminidase –its role is to allow the release of viruses to infect other cells
Different combinations of H and N glycoproteins give rise to different strains
Mutations which produce small changes in antigens are referred to as antigenic drift and these occur in the same strain
Mutations which result in a major change and produce new strains are referred to as antigenic shifts
The virus is spread by inhalation or by direct contact.
Reservoirs of infection are primarily humans, but birds and pigs can act as reservoirs.
The multiple host status makes for mixing of flu types
Avian Influenza only transmits to humans in close contact
Evidence of HPAI Avian Influenza – reportable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

African Swine Fever virus

A

Double stranded DNA virus
Only DNA virus known to be transmitted by arthropods.
Causes haemorrhagic fever- high mortality rate in domestic pigs
Has an enzootic cycle in addition
Warthogs and bushpigs with soft ticks as the vectors
Eradicated outside of Africa in 1990’s with exception of epidemic in Portugal in 1999
Endemic in Africa
Re-emerging in Europe
Zoonotic disease

Ticks bite wild animals – get infected with ASFV

Once infected, they are infected for life – can transmit even as they moult from larvae – nymph – adult tick

Bite domesticated animals – pigs get infected and can then transmit pig-pig.

No horizontal transmission in wild animals

If pigs are free-range – increased likelihood of contact with ticks
Like other DNA viruses had early, intermediate and late gene expression
Replicates in both nucleus and cytoplasm
Changes in the host result in increased pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

types of vaccine

A

whole innactivate virus- could cause outbreak
recombinanat viral vector-
DNA vaccine
virus like particles- just envelope/ protiens
recombinant bacterial vector vaccine
recombinant sub unit protein
live attenuated virus- very safe and good, basically non pathogenic virus
vacciens are inactivate dor activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

describe the benefits and draw backs of an innactivated vaccine

A
higher cost
adjuvent needed
good stability
no reversion
provided no mucosal immunity, 
 antibody memory response
 the immunity is short lived
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

describe the benefits and draw backs of an activated protien

A
lower cost
adjuvent not needed
poor stability
reversion is possible
provides mucosal immunity, antibody an dCTL imunity and long term immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Issues with antivirals

A

Viruses use our own cells to replicate so anything that targets them also targets our cells

Can have some issues with toxicity – even long-term HIV drug use can affect the body – have some long-term events

Nucleoside analogues are commonly used in veterinary medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Squamata

A

Lizards and snakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Chelonia

A

Tortoises and turtles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How are reptiles different to mammals

A

Poikilothermic ectotherm- interanl temp vairies and outside temp influnces

Jaw bones and auditory ossicles
Quadrate bone, Articular bone & Columella- the singular ear bone
Most reptiles are oviparous (some mammals are oviparous!)- egg laying
Temperature dependent sex determination
No mammary glands
3 chambered heart (Crocodilians - divided atrium, sometimes refered to as 4 chambered)
Homodont dentition- uniform continually growing teeth except fanged snakes
Scales instead of hair
Shed
No sweat glands
No diaphragm- no division between abdomine and thorax so not refered to as such- refered to as coelom
Nitrogenous waste product is uric acid, not urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Anatomy of the reptile integument

A
Epidermis
Keratinised scales
Largely overlapping in squamates
Shell in chelonians
Hard scales in the limbs and tail
2 forms of Keratin
Alpha Keratin
Flexible, between scales & in hinges
Beta Keratin
Harder, found in scutes and scales
Dermis-
Highly vascular
Sensory tissue 
Osteoderms-mineralised bony structures in dermis
Chromatophores- pigment cells
Periodic sloughing and renewal
Crocodilians and chelonians – continuous
Lizards – cyclical - piecemeal
Snakes – cyclical – single piece
Resting phase & renewal phase
Under thyroid control with multiple factors
Vitamin D Activation
Water uptake
Desert species
Anoxia tolerance
Shells (Freshwater turtles)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Nociceceptors in reptiles

A

More mu opioid receptors cf kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Integument Overview - Snakes

A
Heavily keratinised epidermis
Prevents water loss/waterproofs
Protection
Keratin formed into overlapping epidermal scales (non overlapping on head)
Reptile skin is very inelastic
Folds of skin between the scales  to allow to expansion
Single ventral scales – ‘gastropeges’
Thicker, larger scales for support
Important for locomotion
Scales caudal to cloaca – ‘subcaudal scales’
Usually paired
Very few glands
Cloacal glands
Pits

Shedding
Growth
Replacement of worn out skin
Parasite disposal
Most snakes shed 2-4 times/year
Growth
Season (eg post hibernation)
Reproduction (shed 8-10 days before oviposition/parturition)
Shed more frequently when juvenile/rapid growth
Shed ‘in toto’ in one single piece (incl. spectacles)
Controlled by thyroid gland
Environmental conditions key
Lymph fluid builds up between old and new epidermal layers
Bluish colouration to skin ‘blue’
Spectacle opacity ‘in milk’ (inhibits visibility)
Reduced markings
Spectacle clears before shed
Skin circulation engorges to stretch and split old epidermal layer
Colourless
Pigment cells in the dermal layer
Changes in feeding behaviour and activity
Prior to shedding
Irritable/Reduced activity/Seek shelter/humidity
Post Shedding
Defaecation/Thirst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Ecdysis

A

shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Dysecdysis- Snakes

A
Abnormal or impaired shedding
Can affect entire integument
Spectacles ofter retained-
Inhibit vision and can cause inappetence
retention around Cloaca
Patchy shed
Usually husbandry related
-Humidity
-Temperatures
-Substrate & -Furniture
Never remove retained shed
Soak/lubricate
Husbandry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Integument Overview - Lizards

A
Heavily keratinised epidermis
Prevents water loss/waterproofs
Protection
Keratin formed into epidermal scales similar to snakes
Epidermal growth is cyclic
Osteoderms in some species
‘Dermal Armour’
Modified scales
Crests
Spines
Shields
Dewlap
Lamellae- allows geckops to cling- not lepord gecko
Cloacal glands
Scenting
Temporal glands
Chameleon
Function unknown but likely defence/lure
Pre cloacal pores
Geckos
Femoral pores
Iguanas, Many agamids
Gender determination
Salt glands
Marine iguanas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Ecdysis - Lizards

A
Epidermal growth cyclic
Regular patchy/piecemeal shed
Some species eat shed skin
Frequency varies:
Species
Size
Growth – Juveniles may shed q. 2 weeks, Adults q. 3-4 times p.a.
Temperature
Humidity
Nutrition
Skin damage
Endocrine function
Controlled by thyroid gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Dysecdysis- Lizards

A
Abnormal or impaired shedding
Fragmented ecdysis is normal
Dysecdysis
Constrictive bands of tissue
Tail
Digits- missing digits indicitive fo chronic shedding problem
Usually husbandry related
Humidity
Temperatures
Furniture
Care removing retained shed
Soak/lubricate
 Address Husbandry
167
Q

Integument Overview – Chelonians - Shell

A
Shell
Dorsal convex carapace
Carapace formed of 49 bony plates
Dermal ossification
Ventral flatter plastron
Plastron formed of 9 bony plates
Plastrocarapacial bridge
Scutes 
Keratin shields
Form from epithelial thickenings
Reduced in soft shell turtles
38 carapacial scutes
16 plastral scutes
Hinges
Legs, head, tail, neck
Soft, folded skin
B Keratin containing scales
Some areas scaleless
Protected by shell
Ecdysis
Piecemeal continuous shedding
Aquatic turtles shed their scutes
Terrestrial tortoises retain scutes
Glands
Musk/Rathke’s glands
Marine turtles
Bridge/carapace junction
Mental/chin glands
168
Q

Subcutaneous injections in reptiles

A
Not often used
Limited subcutaneous space
Poor absorption rates
Delayed onset of action
Protracted clinical effects
Useful for fluid therapy
Always inject between scales
Snakes
Lateral (dorsal) body wall
Lizards
Lateral thoracic area, inguinal space
Chelonians
Axillary and inguinal space
Skin folds lateral to neck
169
Q

Common features of the reptile eye

A
Striated muscle in the iris & ciliary body
Conscious pupillary control
No consensual pupillary light response
Miosis slower than in mammals
drugs to dilate pupil do not workas it is not smooth muscle
Spherical globe
Pigmentary cells throughout sclera
Ocular movement limited
Poor development of rectus muscles
Chameleons exceptional
Well developed ocular muscles
Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) low cf mammals
Thin cornea
Especially in squamates with spectacles
Avascular retina
170
Q

Snake Eye anatomy

A
Very different to other reptiles
Small
Large cornea
No scleral ossicles- connective muscle in its place
Spherical eyeball
Fibrous sclera
No eyelids
Highly mobile iris
Spectacle or brille protects cornea
No nictitating membrane
Glands
Harderian
no Lacrimal 
Limited eye mobility
Poor vision
Reduced ciliary body
Spherical lens
Pupil shape species, habitat and life mode dependent
Round
Elliptical
Horizontal
Cones and rods present in retina
Some diurnal snakes have lost rods
Conus papillaris in very few species- provides back of eye with nutrient and oxogen
171
Q

Snake Pit organs

A

Eyes responsible for visible light
Pit organs responsible for infrared radiation detection
Pythons, Boas, Vipers
Information from both merged
Accurate prey detection
Pit organ varies between species
Boidae – shallow depression in labial scales
Viperidae – concave membrane within maxillary bone
Trigeminal nerve branch innervation

172
Q

Lizard Eye anatomy

A
Large orbits
Thin interorbital septum
Scleral ossicles
Eyelids present
Upper eyelid largely immobile
Lower eyelid covers majority of cornea
Most gecko spp. have brilles
Descemet’s membrane present in most spp
Nictitating membrane present
Orbital Glands
Harderian – opens medially
Lacrimal- not in chamelions and some geckos
Mucous gland
Good vision
Pupil
Round in diurnal species
Slit in nocturnal species
Serrated pupil in some geckos
Diurnal lizards have cones only 
Nocturnal lizards have rods and cones
Conus papillaris
173
Q

Lizard Parietal Eye

A

Third eye, median eye, parietal accessory apparatus
Most lizards
Eyelike structure on dorsal head
Situated in a depression below parietal bone
Overlying scales show varying transparency
Cornea like apparatus
Primitive retina
Neurological input
Function
Connected to pineal gland
Role in hormone production and thermoregulation
Timing of reproduction
Navigational
Largely absent in nocturnal lizards

174
Q

Chelonian Eye anatomy

A
Highly developed colour vision
Scleral ossicles
Scleral cartilage up to 1cm thick
Scaled eyelids
Nictitating membrane present
Lacrimal gland
Modified into a salt gland in marine spp.
Nasolacrimal duct absent
Tears lost by evaporation
Thick cornea
Descemet’s membrane
Much more effective in air than water
Two orbital lymphatic sinuses
Drain into both eyelids
Cornea more effective in air than water
175
Q

Reptile Olfactory Function

A
Olfactory epithelium
Dorsal nasal cavity
Jacobson’s/Vomeronasal organ
Ventral nasal cavity
Innervated by a branch of the olfactory nerve
Reptile Vomeronasal Organ-
Jacobson’s Organ
Chemoreceptor organ
Most developed in lizards and snakes
Varies between species of reptile
Innervated by a branch of the olfactory nerve
Snakes
Tongue flicking
Tongue transfers particles to the Jacobson’s organ
Pair of domed vomeronasal pits in roof of mouth
Lizards
Similar to snakes
Chelonians
Localised area of sensory epithelium in terrestrial spp
Absent in some aquatic turtles

Olfactory function most developed sense in snakes
Highly developed vomeronasal organ
Paired function with forked tongue
Flick tongue through lingual notch/fossa

lizards-
Well developed olfactory function
Nasal Cavity
Jacobson’s/Vomeronasal organ
Rostral to choana 
Tongue
Organ of taste and smell
Some species flick this like snakes
Contain chemosensory receptors
Buccal oscillation
chelonian-
Well developed olfactory function
Large olfactory bulbs
Esp in terrestrial spp. 
Nasal Cavity
Jacobson’s/Vomeronasal organ
Salt glands in some marine species
Buccal oscillation
176
Q

Reptile Ears

A
Reptile ear is caudoventral to the eye
Likely more important for balance than hearing
Covered by cutaneous scale or semitransparent tympanum
Outer ear
External auditory meatus
Absent in snakes, chelonians and some lizards
Middle ear
Tympanic membrane
Columella
Inner ear
Semicircular canals
Utricle
Saccule
Cochlear duct

snake ear-
No external auditory opening, tympanic membrane or middle ear cavity
Eustachian tube is absent
Can pick up substrate vibrations
Can also pick up low frequency airborne sound (150-600Hz)
Quadrate bone connects mandible to columella
Receives low frequency vibrations

lizard ear-
Visible tympanic membrane
Varies between species
Shallow depression or external ear
Covered with a scale or scute
Some burrowing lizards have no external or middle ear
Transmit vibrations through bone similar to snakes
Minimal differentiation between tympanic cavity and pharyngeal space
Some chameleons have a thin membrane
Eustachian tube present connecting middle ear to pharynx

Chelonian Ear-
Chelonians have excellent hearing
No external ears
Respond to low frequency tones (100-700Hz)
Ground vibrations
Predator approach
Aquatic turtles most sensitive to underwater stimuli <1000Hz
Large tympanic cavity extends caudally
Blind pouch within squamosal bone
Tympanic membrane
Thin osseus columella
Extracolumella cartilage
Eustachian tube connects inner ear to oropharynx
Aural abscesses common in aquatic turtles

177
Q

Acrodont

A

Teeth fused to the maxillary and mandibular ridges
Worn down throughout life
Agamids, Chameleons

Acrodont teeth are seen in agamid lizards (e.g. water dragon, bearded dragon),uromastyx, chameleons, and tuataras (Table 1). Acrodont teeth are superficiallyankylosed to the rim of shallow, crater-like depressions on tooth-bearing bone (Fig1). This attachment is relatively weak and teeth are easily lost while feeding orcapturing prey (Klaphake 2015 O’Malley 2005, Mehler 2003, Cooper et al 1970,Edmund 1970).As the animal grows, new teeth can be added at the posterior end of the tooth row,however acrodont teeth are replaced “only very rarely” in the adult. Instead teethare worn down with age leaving only the dorsal crest of the mandible and theventral crest of the maxilla. The resultant cutting edge in older animals is similar tothe chelonian jaw, except the surface remains serrated. Glancing contact betweenthe occlusal surfaces when the jaws close, ensures wear maintains a sharp edge

178
Q

Pleurodont

A

Teeth sit in grooves on the medial aspect of mandible/maxilla
Constantly shed & replaced
Iguanas

Pleurodont teeth are seen in snakes, many lizards, including iguanids, varanids(monitors), basilisks, chuckwallas, and anoles (Table 1) (Klaphake 2015, Edmund1970). With pleurodont dentition, a larger surface area is in contact with thejawbone, which creates a stronger attachment than acrodont dentition (Fig 1).Pleurodont teeth are constantly shed and replaced throughout life. The lifespan ofteeth varies along the jaws, with posterior teeth lasting longer than anterior teeth.Most teeth last only a few months before being shed and ingested with prey duringfeeding (Cooper et al 1970, Edmund 1970).As each tooth completes its life cycle, the bone of attachment is actively formedand resorbed. A new tooth sits in reserve in pits within the gum lingual to the oldtooth. Tooth replacement does not appear to occur in response to wear or injury ofindividual teeth. Instead each tooth is replaced as part of a regular wave-likepattern affecting the entire dental arcade (Klaphake 2015, O’Malley 2005, Edmund1970).Boids, pythonids, and colubrids (e.g. corn snake) display a back-to-frontprogression of alternating waves. Some venomous snakes, like viperids andcrotalids, tend to display simple alternate replacement, while in elapids, such as thecobra and coral snake, replacement waves progress from front to back. Thisreplacement rhythm may or may not be synchronous on both sides of the mouth. Ifsynchrony is present, it usually manifests only on the premaxilla

179
Q

Thecodont

A

The thecodont tooth has a relatively long cylindrical base set in a deep bony socket(Fig 1). All mammals exhibit thecodonty, however crocodilians are the only livingreptiles with thecodont dentition (Table 1). Thecodont teeth have deep attachments,allowing teeth to withstand strong forces. Lost teeth can be replaced by a limitednumber of replacement teeth in crocodilians, however the frequency and speed ofreplacement decreases as the animal ages (O’Malley 2005, Mehler 2003, Edmund1970).Traditionally, snake dentition has been described as pleurodont, however snaketeeth have more recently been described as modified thecodont because eachtooth is fused to the rim of a shallow socket

180
Q

What are the components of the cloaca

A
Coprodeum
•Urodeum
•Proctodeum- contains musk glands
•Coprourodeal fold
•Cloacal water intake
•Some chelonian species
•Cloacal respiration- Some diving turtles! Reliant on this form of respiration during diving. Underwater hibernation.Accessory air bladders
181
Q

Female reproductive tract - Squamates (snakes and lizards)

A

Paired ovaries in mid-caudal coelom
•Snakes - located cranial to the kidneys (58-80% SVL)
•Lizards – caudal ovarian pole attached to ventromedial kidney
•Right ovary more craniad and usually larger
•Left ovary may be reduce or absent (some snake spp)
•Bilateral oviducts (some missing left)
•Mesosalpinx
•Seminal receptacles
•Oviparous or viviparous
•Shell laid down in isthmus
•Calcification in oviduct
•Cloaca
•Tract terminates at urodeum
•Hemiclitoris/Hemipenal homologue
•Cloacal scent glands (snakes)

182
Q

Female reproductive tract - Chelonians

A
Paired ovaries located cranial to the kidneys
•Symmetrical ovaries
•Left ovary may be reduced or absent
•Oviparous
•Bilateral oviducts
•Infundibulum
•Isthmus – non glandular
•Uterine tube/Albumin gland- Seminal receptacles. Can store semen for months- years
•Shell gland/uterus
•Muscular vagina
•Mesosalpinx
•Clitoris
183
Q

Describe Reptile ovarian follicles

A

Immature ovaries
•Flat and granular
•Mature ovaries
•Variable with various stages of maturing follicles
•Inactive follicles (previtellogenic)- Small and clear to white, Present for much of the season when ovary inactive
•Active follicles (vitellogenic)- Larger, yellow/orange, Ovulate, regress or stasis

184
Q

Describe the Hormonal control of reproduction in reptiles

A

Melatonin- GnRH
•Vitellogenesis and gravidity- Vitellogenesis controlled by pituitary gonadotropins, FSH like hormone in squamates, FSH and LH like hormones in chelonians
•Stimulate gonadal activity- Oestrogen from ovaries, Testosterone from testes, Oestrogen >hepatic conversion of stored lipid to vitellogenin
•Progesterone- Produced by corpora luteum, Support egg and embryo development
•Spermatogenesis- Under pituitary gonadotropin control, Release of steroid hormones as in mammals

185
Q

Describe the Male Reproductive tract - Squamates

A

Paired asymmetrical Testes
•Right testis usually cranial to left
•Snakes – Dorsal, 65%-82% SVL
•Lizards - Dorsal in mid to caudal coelom
•Colour variable, elongated in snakes and legless lizards
•Size varies seasonally
•Mesorchium attaches to dorsal coelomic wall
•Testicular Blood supply- Dorsal aorta>testicular arteries>ductus deferens
•Testicular vein >renal vein >post cava
•Epididymis-Absent in snakes
•Seminiferous tubules
Vas deferens- Runs along ventral kidney >urodeum at genital papillae

  • (Renal) sexual segment- Enlarged when reproductively active
  • Paired hemipenes- Ventral tail base! Retractor muscles! No urethra or direct connection with ductus deferens, Sulcus spermaticus
  • Cloaca, Tract terminates at urodeum, Paired Hemipenes, Cloacal scent glands
186
Q

Male reproductive tract - Chelonians

A
•Paired testes
Cranial to kidney
Can retain sperm in the epididymis for months over winter
•Symmetrical
•No (renal) sexual segment
•Large single phallus
Dark, smooth expansile phallus
Ventral urodeum and proctodeum
No urethra
•Tissue becomes engorged
•Dorsal longitudinal ridges  seminal groove
•Spade shaped glans- Three folds to direct sperm
187
Q

Copulation & Fertilisation - Squamates

A

Brumation- boosts fertility, builds up energy reserves
•Specific and elaborate courtship behaviour
•Copulation may not coincide with vitellogenesis
•Internal fertilisation-
•only use Single Hemipene (Squamates)- Movement of sperm from vas deferens to female’s cloaca
•Variable duration- Biting
•Sperm storage- older sperm has less fertility
•Second clutches don’t require second mating
•Gestation times hard to estimate

188
Q

Copulation & Fertilisation - Chelonians

A

•Specific and elaborate courtship behaviour
•Aquatic turtles breed in the water
•Box turtles and tortoises breed on land
•Internal fertilisation
•Single phallus
Movement of sperm from vas deferens to female’s cloaca
Increases dramatically in size to lock into cloaca
Plastron concavity of male helps fit
•Variable duration
•Females can store sperm from several males
Clutches may have multiple paternity

189
Q

Reptile kidneys overview

A
Function
•Excretion
•Water & Salt balance
•Acid Base regulation
•Hormones
•Vitamins
•Nephrons-, shorter and fewer in number
Glomeruli
Bowman capsule
Tubules
Collecting ducts
No loop of Henle
Less complex nephrons due to preventing kidney damage in drought
No renal pelvis
•No medulla/cortex division
•Renal portal system
190
Q

Describe reptile Renal Physiology

A
Arginine vasotocin (AVT)
•Pituitary hormone
•Reduces GFR
Prolactin
•Increases GFR
•Water absorption
•30-50% filtered water absorbed in proximal tubule (60-80% in mammals)
•Distal tubules, colon, cloaca, urinary bladder (if present)
Control of K and Na poorly understood
•AVT, Aldosterone
•Temperature
Vitamin C synthesis
Vitamin D activation
Erythropoietin
Blood pressure regulation
191
Q

Reptile Nitrogenous waste products

A
•Ammonia (Ammonotelic)- requires water for excrestion, more common inaquatic reptiles than terrestrial which are adapted to desert, Toxic! Soluble
Urea (Ureotelic)- can be passed in semi solid state, requiering less water
•Less toxic
•Less soluble (requires less water)
Uric Acid (uricotelic)
•Insoluble
•Conserves water
•Reptiles primarily uricotelic
•Post renal modification of urine
192
Q

Renal Blood flow in reptiles

A

Supplied by arterial and portal venous blood
•Aorta >Renal arteries
•Caudal & Iliac veins >Renal portal vein
Drained by renal veins >postcaval vein
Low glomerular filtration rates (GFR)
Renal portal system
•Caudal blood can be diverted to or bypass kidneys
•First pass effects
Nephrotoxicicty when administering drugs
Premature excretion when adminitering drugs

193
Q

Urinary tract- snakes

A
Paired assymetrical kidneys
•Right kidney cranial to left
•Dorsocaudal coelom (75-96% STV)
•Elongated, lobulated kidneys
•Kidney length about 10-15% SVL
Elongated ureters enter urodeum
•Right longer than left
•Distinct cloacal opening from genital ducts
•Urogenital papilla
No urinary bladder
Sexually dimorphic kidneys
•Sexual segment
194
Q

Urinary tract - Lizards

A
Paired, retrocoelomic kidneys
•Elongated, lobulated kidneys
•Symmetrical
•Within or cranial to the pelvis
•Sexually dimorphic kidneys in some spp.- Sexual segment
Ureters
Urinary Bladder
•Present in some species
•Vestigial bladders
•Absent bladder- Colonic urine storage
195
Q

Urinary tract - Chelonians

A
Retrocoelomic kidneys
•Large, flat lobulated kidneys
•Deep to caudodorsal carapace
•Adherent to inner carapace
•Caudal to acetabulum
•Symmetrical
Short ureters open into urogenital sinus
Urinary Bladder
•Largest in terrestrial spp.
•Retrograde passage of urine
•Urodeum

Possible for eggs to passinto bladder
Aquatic turtles have smaller thicker bladders

196
Q

Reptile Ultimobranchial gland

A
Secretes calcitonin from C-cells
•Embedded in the thyroid in mammals
•Separate gland in reptiles
•Left sided
•Bilateral
•Cranial to the heart
•Calcium and phosphorus homeostasis
•Skeletal remodelling
•In tandem with PTH & Vitamin D3
•Elevated serum calcium levels  secretion of calcitonin
•Inhibits calcium resorption from bone
•Opposes PTH to reduce serum calcium levels
197
Q

Reptile parathyroid glands

A

Not closely associate with the thyroid gland
•Position variable
•May have one or two pairs of glands
•Cranial pair near mandibular ramus associated with carotid
•Caudal pair associated with aortic arch
•Chief cells
•Produce and release parathyroid hormone (PTH)
•Major role in calcium homeostasis
•Vitamin D3 & Calcitonin
•Low levels of serum Ca stimualates PTH release
•Sites of action
•Bones, kidneys, intestines, lymph, dermal skeleton
•Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
•Renal secondary hyperparathyroidism

Tutle crainail parathyroid containded in thymus

198
Q

Reptile thyroid gland

A
Important multifunctional hormone
•Snakes and chelonians
•Single thyroid gland
•Lizards
•Single, bilobed or paired gland
•Position varies with taxa
•Ventral to trachea
•Near heart base in lizards and chelonians
•Cranial to heart base in snakes
•Large blood supply
•Anatomically distinct from Parathyroid glands
•Thyroid physiology similar to other vertebrates
•T4, T3
•Iodine required
199
Q

Reptile pancreas

A
  • Variable location and anatomical relationships
  • Lizards
  • Trilobed
  • Large islets confined to dorsal lobe
  • Snakes
  • Simple
  • Some species have a splenopancreas
  • Chelonians
  • Variable splenic ad duodenal association
  • Smaller islets, diffusely distributed
  • No segregation of alpha and beta cells in squamates
  • Glucose regulation
  • Alpha cells – glucagon

Alpha cells
•Glucagon  increases blood glucose
Beta Cells
•Insulin  promotes absorption of glucose lowers blood glucose
Delta cells
•Somatostatin (GH inhibiting hormone)  regulates insulin & glucagon

200
Q

Reptile adrenal glands

A
Chelonians
•Retrocoelomic
•Symmetrical
•Dorsally flattened glands lie against kidney
Squamates
•Closely adhered to gonads
•Asymmetrical
•Right gland cranial to left
•Incorporated into mesovarium/mesorchium
Yellow/red in colour
Central ‘cortex’ Peripheral ‘medulla’
Secretions- Catecholamines, Glucocorticoids
201
Q

Hibernation and brumation

A
Not true hibernation as thegut must be empty before entering it
Hibernation/Brumation normal physiology
•Temperate reptiles
•Precedes reproduction
•Cold temperatures
•Thryoid levels drop
•Anorexia
•Hibernaculi
•Areas/nests to provide some protection
•Bladder is water source
•Intestines should be empty
•Emergence triggered by rising temperatures
202
Q

Locomotion - Snakes

A
Relatively low in energy expenditure
Function of scales
Weight distribution
Various modes of locomotion
Lateral undulation
Rectilinear Locomotion
Concertina Locomotion
Sidewinding
(Flying)
203
Q

Skull - Lizards

A
Head typically narrower than body
Kinetic skull
Wide gape
Fused mandibular symphysis
No temporal arch
Braincase
Thin vertical interorbital septum
Variation in skulls
Bony protruberences
Dentition
Pleurodont
Attached to the sides of the mandible
Shed & Replaced throughout life
Acrodont
Attached to the biting edges of the jaws
Not replaced
204
Q

Skull- Snakes

A
Most kinetic skull of all reptiles
No temporal arch
No interorbital septum
No middle ear cavity
No mandibular symphysis
All tooth bearing bones can move independently
Heavily ossified braincase
Loose articulation of quadrate bone
205
Q

lizrd tail autonomy

A
Many lizard species
Predatory escape and/or distraction
Vertical fracture plane throughout body
Cartilagenous plate
Tail is regenerated 
Cartilagenous rod
Rplaces lost vertebrae
New tail
Small, dark scales, irregulat pattern
Shorter, blunter
Care with handling, injections & blood sampling

in some species its only seen in juviniles before fracture plate ossifies

206
Q

Dentition- Snakes

A
Swallow prey whole 
Modified pleurodont 
Six dental arcades
Two maxillary
Two mandibular
Two palatal
Fangs
Front Fanged- Large, venom gland, Single duct , Rostral, hollow fangs, Modified fangs in vipers, Fold back into sheath
Elapids, Vipers

Rear fanged- Duvernoy’s Gland
Colubrids
Grooved caudal fang
Fixed

Venom-Not all bites evenomate

207
Q

Dentition - Lizards

A
Acrodont or pleurodont dentition
No sockets
Acrodont
Teeth fused to the maxillary and mandibular ridges
Worn down throughout life
Agamids, Chameleons
Some agamids have a few rostral pleurodont teeth
Pleurodont
Teeth sit in grooves on the medial aspect of mandible/maxilla
Constantly shed & replaced
Iguanas
Egg tooth
208
Q

Oral cavity - Chelonians

A
Keratinised beak
Broad, fleshy mobile tongue
Unable to extend from mouth
Some specialised lingual features
Salivary glands
Mucus
No digestive enzymes
Tubular glottis
209
Q

what is in the first quarent of the snake

A

treachea
esophagus
thyroid
heart

210
Q

what is in the second quarent of the snake

A

right lung
left lung
liver
left air sack

211
Q

what is in the third quarent of the snake

A
right air sack
stomach
gall bladder
pancreas
gonads
212
Q

what is in the fourth quarent of the snake

A

intestines and kidneys

213
Q

Upper gastrointestinal tract - Snakes

A
Simple relatively short GIT
Oesophagus-
Long & thin walled
Distensible
Can assist in food storage
Stomach-
Difficult to differentiate from oesophagus & duodenum
More glandular mucosa
No well defined cardiac sphincter
Storage and early digestion
Capable of rapid drops in pH
214
Q

traid- snakes

A
Pancreas
Ovoid- Caudal to bladder on duodenal mesenteric border
Some species have a splenopancreas
Gallbladder- Multiple bile ducts
Spleen
215
Q

how many lobes does the snak liver have

A

2-3

216
Q

Lower gastrointestinal tract - Snakes

A

Intestines straight & relatively uncoiled
Small intestine
Empties into colon-
Colon - Small caecum present at proximal colon- Only in boas and pythons
Empties into Coprodeum (cloaca)
Colon and cloaca important for water conservation
Fat bodies- Present within the coelom
Larger with increasing body condition

217
Q

Gastrointestinal Tract - Lizards

A
Oesophagus- Short, thin walled
Enters stomach on left of coelom
Stomach 
- Simple tubular/C shaped
Fundic region
Parspylorica region
Rugae- seen in some
Carnivores & Insectivores
Herbivores- Hindgut fermenters
Rely on high ambient temperatures
Very slow gut transit time
Short small intestine
Large intestine – long/large
Caecum- Right caudal coelom
Colon- Sacculations,Microbial flora, Some lizards have increasing sacculations with age
Pancreas- Trilobed
Elongated structure
Lies along mesenteric duodenal border
Liver- Encapsulated, bilobed organ
Right lobe larger
Gall bladder- Usually associated with right hepatic lobe
Bile storage
Fat digestion
Coelomic fat pads- Can be very large
218
Q

Upper gastrointestinal tract - Chelonians

A
Oesophagus- Ciliated/papilla
Stomach- Ventral left side
Caudal to liver
Gastroesophageal sphincter – Left
Pyloric Sphincter – Central
Digestive enzymes- Stomach, small intestine pancreas
 Bile- Produced in liver
Stored in gall bladder
219
Q

Lower gastrointestinal tract - Chelonians

A

Liver bilobed- Gall bladder in right lobe
Intestines in caudal coelomic cavity
Small intestine- Short
No clear divide between duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Joins large intestine at ileocolic valve

Large intestine-
Primary site of microbial fermentation in herbivores
Caecum- Right caudal coelom ,not well developed, no mesenteric attachments, Ascending, transverse & descending colon, Mesenteric attachments, Coprodeum (cloaca), Colon termination

Pancreas- Empties into pylorus via short duct
Alkaline buffer to neutralise stomach acid in duodenum
High levels of tissue amylase and lipase

Liver- Large ventral dark red/brown liver
Pale yellow/tan colour
Hepatic lipidosis or vitellogenesis in females
2 major lobes
Gallbladder sits on the right
Indentations for heart and stomach
GI Transit time variable
Temperature key
220
Q

General cardiovascular anatomy of non crocidillians

A

Pericardium
3 chambered heart (2 atria + 1 ventricle)
Muscle ridges inside ventricle and AV valves prevent blood mixing
Sinus venosus – large chamber dorsal to RA; receives venous blood;
Right atrium
Left atrium – receives arterial blood
Ventricle – 3 subdivisions:
Cavum pulmonale → Pulmonary Artery
Cavum venosum ← R Atrium
Cavum arteriosum ← L Atrium

221
Q

Renal Portal system

of reptiles

A

Blood from caudal 1/3 body can be directed to kidneys OR general circulation
Can affect drug metabolization, excretion or allow nephrotoxic effects
Not very clinical significant

222
Q

Hepatic portal system of reptiles

A

Blood from caudal ½ body AND gut always go through the liver before general circulation
Can affect drug metabolization, excretion or allow hepatotoxic effects
Clinically significant
Reduces bioavailability of oral drugs

223
Q

Temperature and cardiovascular function in reptiles

A
HR depends on Temperature, species, size, metabolic rate, RR
Increase of Environmental Temp:
Cutaneous vasodilation
BP reduces + HR increases
L to R heart shunt 
Warmed blood returns and increases core body temperature
Reduction of Environmental Temp:
Cutaneous vasoconstriction
Blood pooled in muscles keeps body heat
HR reduces
224
Q

Locating reptiles heart

A

Most species: cranial coelomic cavity
Monitor lizards: more caudal
Snakes: 1/3 cranial part of coelom, location depends on species
Heart auscultation is unrewarding
HR can be determined with a doppler probe:
Different heart position
Affected by temperature

225
Q

Vascular access in reptiles

A
Blood collection:
Done routinely in clinical practice
Vessels not usually visible (landmarks)
Collection site depend on species
Plan to collect 0.5 – 1% patient’s b.w. (g)

IV administration:
Occasionally performed (e.g. anaesthesia induction)
Challenging to place IV catheters (except in some Chelonians)
IO route preferred over IV

Lizards-
ventral tail vein- preffered
Ventral abdominal vein
External jugular

Snakes-
Ventral tail vein – medium to large species
Intra-cardiac – ideally US guided
Palatinal veins – large species

Chelonia-
External jugular (Right)
Sub-carapacial venous sinus 
Occipital venous sinus –terrapins
Dorsal tail vein – large species, risk of hemodilution
Cephalic vein – large species
226
Q

describe the resperatory system of chelonians

A

Glottis – base of the tongue
Short trachea with complete rings
Gular movements (olfactory) – not RR!

Lungs:
Dorsal sac-like structures
Lack alveoli (have flaveoli)
Breathing:
Insp/exp are active processes
No intercostal muscles
Ribs fused with shell
2 paired antagonistic abdominal muscles
Horizontal septum

Additional respiratory exchanges:
Skin – some aquatic turtles
Oropharyngeal mucosa

227
Q

describe the resperitory system of lizards

A

Glottis at the base of tongue
Trachea with incomplete rings
Caudal part of lungs function as air sacs

Ventilation:
Active ins/exp
Mainly intercostal muscles
Smooth muscle on lungs (some sps.)
Monitor lizards have a non-functional diaphragm
Some Chameleons with accessory ventral lung

228
Q

describe the resperatory system of snakes

A

Glottis rostral
Trachea with incomplete tracheal rings
Tracheal lung (dorsal):
Some species
Allows gas exchange while swallowing large prey
Left lung small (Boids) or absent (all other species)
Caudal part of lungs function as air sacs

229
Q

Assessing respiratory function in reptiles

A
Upper respiratory tract:
Check for nasal discharge
Lower respiratory tract:
Assess breathing pattern (e.g. open mouth breathing)
RR – direct visualization
Check for tracheal discharge
Auscultation is unrewarding
Consider ancillary tests (e.g. radiography)
230
Q

describe the skeletal system of ferrets

A
similar to dogs and cats
15 ribs
c7, t15, l5, s3, cd18
posses a clavcal
non retractible claws
plantigrades
231
Q

describe the musculature of ferrets

A

similar to dogs
sub cut: scruff
IM: biceps femoris ( be careful of ishiatic nerve), epaxial lumbar musculature
im done in smakk volumes

232
Q

describe the skeletal system of hedghogs

A

similar to dogs and cats- same no. of vertebrae
5 digits in front 4 in back
plantigrade
c7, t13, s3, cd variable

233
Q

describe the musculature of hedghogs

A

orbicularis muscle sits atop IM injection sites
subcut in spiny or furres areas
IM in tricepts, quadrecepts, gluteals or obicularis

234
Q

describe the skeletal system of rats

A

C7, T13, l5, s3, cd vairable but higher than cats and dogs
bone ossifies later in life
have a clavicle- musch more present than cats and ferrets
5 toes on front limb but one is vestigal
5 digits in back limb
no gall bladder like horses

235
Q

describe the musculature of rats

A

large masseter
sub cut between shoulder blades
IM: epiaxial musculature, high risk of ishiatic nerve in quads- nerve damage may cuse rats to self mutilate
no sweat glands

236
Q

describe the skeletal structure of marsupials

A

ossa marsupiala- extr bone, extention of pubic bone, not sure of function- sugar gliders have none or is very small
bi pedal hopping
long HL

237
Q

describe the digits of a sugar gliner

A

membrane goea from 5th digit of forelimb to metatarsals of hind limb
syndactylous- hl second and thirddigit fused

238
Q

describe the injection sites of sugar gliders

A

sub cut: intrascapular area

IM: triceps

239
Q

ferret eye anatomy

A

large cornea, spherical lens, and a tapetum lucidum that is highly receptive to dim light, all of which make the ferret well-adapted to nocturnal living.
Dorsal and ventral nasolacrimal puncta are present, although the dorsal punctum is smaller.

There is a well-developednictitating membrane which can be used for ulcer treatment as a third eyelid flap.

The cornea is relatively large in relation to the eye structure and the lens is nearly spherical and placed back in the posterior eye chamber
The pupil is a horizontal elliptical slit

The tapetum is well defined with a 7-10 cell layer, the structure being the same in both pigmented and albino ferrets
The myelinated optic disk is relatively small.

The retina is similar in form and vascular pattern (holangiotic) to that found in the dog.

The ferret retina has a high proportion of rods in thephotoreceptor layer that are particularly sensitive to low-intensity light, and predominate the cones in the ratio 50-60:1.

Ferrets have a retrobulbar venous plexus that is similar to that of rodents which has been suggested as a site for blood collection.

240
Q

ferret ear anatomy

A

physiologically similar to that of the cat, but it is thought auditory responsein the ferret is more primitive.
The external ear consists of a pinna and an external ear canal, which differs markedly in shape from that in the dog and cat.

The ferret pinna is set close to the head and half-moon shaped, some 2 cm wide in adult hobs and pointing forward, as is compatible with ahunting animal.

There is no distinct tubular ear canal as in the dog and cat.

The whole ear canal is protected by a screen of fine hairs around the anterior margin.

The relatively large tympanic bullae indicate excellent hearing.
The lateral margin of the ear canal has a more pronounced recession, intertragal notch, which is more tube-shaped than seen in the cat and some 5 mm long.

Almost opposite, medial to the base of the intertragic incisure, is the opening of the horizontal canal, which passes anteriomedially to the tympanic membrane.

The structure of the middle and inner ear is similar to that in the dog.

The inner ear may show idiopathic otitis internal (IOI) with head tilting, and loss of balance due to extensive middle ear infections or blood-borne pathogens.

241
Q

ferret olfactory system

A

The ferret’s sense of smell ranks in importance with its sense of hearing and scenting another animal’s presence and following the scent of prey is important to all mustelids.

The pointed, short face of the ferret has a tapering nasal organ.

Thenasal cavity is formed by themaxillaandnasal bonesdorsally and laterally, with the maxillary andpalatine bonessupplying the cavity floor, similar in shape to the long-nosed dog.

The bony nasal aperture is composed of two symmetrical halves.

Ferrets have an elaborate nasal turbinate system like other carnivores and may assist in providing increased surface area for olfactory receptors.

The ethmoid plate in the ferret does not completely pass ventrally to the cartilage of the nasal septum to divide the nasal fossa as it does in the dog, thus it is more difficult to pass a nasal tube in the ferret, but it is not impossible.

The closeness of the cribriform plate to the brainmeningescan be an entry to suchpathogenic fungiasCryptococcus neoformans, leading to acute meningitis in the ferret.

The vomeronasal organ is well developed.

242
Q

rat eye anatomy

A

The eyes are black (except in albinos), are placed laterally, are spherical in shape and there is frequent blinking.

Although it can see through 360 degrees the rat has a blind spot in front of its nose.
The cornea is large, and the large lens is round, with little power of accommodation.

Although the rat does not move its eye, the ocular muscles are quite well developed.

Thethird eyelidis poorly formed, giving the eyes a bulging appearance.

The uveal tissues of albino rodents, like other parts of their bodies, have no pigment which gives a bright red semi-transparent appearance when illuminated by ophthalmic instruments.

Mice and rats have a rod-dominated holangiotic retina with arterioles and venules that radiate from the optic disc like spokes on a bicycle wheel.

The optic nerve head of mice and rats often appears small and cupped because optic nerve fibres do not become myelinated until after leaving the eye.

Rats have an orbital plexus formed by deep orbital veins - in contrast, mice have a large dilated channel, a venous sinus.

243
Q

glands assosiated with the eye in rats

A

Mice and rats have three lacrimal structures, the intraorbital gland, the extraorbital gland and the Harderian gland.

The intraorbital gland is located deep in the retrobulbar space.

The extraorbital gland is located near the base of the masseter muscle and commonly has been misinterpreted as a neoplasm because of its unusual location.

The two lacrimal ducts open at the puncta located at the medial canthus of the eye and these join to formnasolacrimal duct, which opens just caudal to the nostril in the vestibule.
harderian gland- This gland secretes lipids and aporphyrinred pigment which fluoresces under ultraviolet light.

These secretions play a role in ocular lubrication and pheromone behavior and are spread over the skin during grooming.

The most common abnormality associated with the lacrimal structure of mice and rats is dacryoadenitis or inflammation of the Harderian gland.

The gland hypersecretes when the animal is stressed, creating a red-brown deposit around the eyes and nose known aschromodacryorrhoea which can be mistaken for blood.

A useful way to tell blood from porphyrin is the fact that porphyrin glows pink under UV light, whereas blood does not.

Porphyrins are irritant, which can result in rubbing of the face, self-trauma and secondary infection.

The underlying cause should be investigated and treated appropriately.

244
Q

ear anatomy in rats

A

Rats are less sensitive than humans to noises below 1000Hz so will be less affected by noises like air conditioning.

Ears - the pinna is covered by thin, short hairs.

The tympanic cavity is large, as in most rodents.

A gland called the zymbal gland lies at the ear base (see integument notes).

245
Q

olfactory system in rats

A

The olfactory lobes of the brain are large and over 50% of thenasal cavityis lined by olfactory epithelium, giving rats their acute sense of smell.

Rats, like all rodents, use theirscent glands, faeces, urine, and vaginal secretions for olfactory communication.

Rats, are obligate nose breathers and rely on healthy nares not only for respiration but also for olfaction and feeding, hence, the rapid debilitating effects of respiratory disease.

246
Q

eye anaotmy in hamsters

A

Being nocturnal, vision is less important than hearing, olfaction, and sensation, however the hamster has a panoramic field of vision, long streak-shaped specialization areas in the retina, an obvious area centralis or fovea and a large binocular visual field.

A large orbital venous sinus is present, and this has been used for blood sampling in laboratory animals.

Marked sexual dimorphism of the Harderian gland has been described in Syrian hamsters but not other species of hamsters.

The dimorphism is androgen-dependent, with female hamsters secreting 100–1000 times more porphyrin than males and containing a different lipid profile.

Ocular prolapse – when restraining a hamster by scruffing, it is important to ensure that excessive pressure is not applied around the eyes, which may potentially result in ocular prolapse.

247
Q

ear anatomy in hamsters

A

hamsters have large tympanic bullae giving them a keen sense of hearing.

Sensitive vibrissae are the main channel for somatic sensory input and are important for spatial orientation and communication as they are in many species.

The hamster is unique in that it moves its cranial vibrissae in various complex patterns keyed to particular exploratory situations.

This movement repertoire suggests that a precisely operating motor system controls the vibrissae

248
Q

olfactory system in hamsters

A

The hamster has several nasal serous glands which open into the internal ostium of the external nares, nasal glands with mucus components and the vomeronasal (Jacobson’s) gland.

The vomeronasal organ is a sensory organ that is found in most terrestrial vertebrates and that is principally implicated in the detection of pheromones.

The vomeronasal organ is a 7 mm long tubular structure that is located bilaterally in the rostroventral nasal septum and completely enclosed in a bony capsule.

The cranial end communicates with the nasal cavity through a rostral orifice.

The organ plays a role in pheromone behaviour as well as olfaction – it has been shown in the hamster that removal of the main and accessoryolfactory bulbscompletely removes sexual behaviour

249
Q

integrument of ferrets

A

Normal ferret skin has a compound hair follicle arrangement composed of one primary hair and a collection of secondary hairs with a primary to secondary ratio of 1/5 - 1/15 - the secondary hairs increasing in number with the ferret’s age until maturity.

All hairs emerge through the same follicle outlet of the skin surface and associated with each primary follicle is an arrector pili muscle, a multilobular sebaceous gland, and a coiled tubular sweat gland (secondary hairs lack these features).

Moulting, which usually occurs twice a year, appears to be controlled by hormones responsive to changes in the photoperiod thus oestrogens cause hair and weight loss in ferrets.

This moult may result in bilaterally symmetric alopecia of the tail, perineum and inguinal area, or the ferret may lose most of the guard hairs and appear “fluffy.”

As the hair thins, red-brown waxy deposits, often sebaceous secretions, may be visible on the skin.

Hair that is shaved, for example for surgery, during seasonal hair loss may not regrow for several weeks or months and hair regrowth sometimes imparts a bluish appearance to the skin, which may be mistaken for bruising or cyanosis
The thick skin and muscle found on the neck and shoulders of a ferret protect it from trauma during fighting and mating, however the thick skin can make venepuncture and subcutaneous injections difficult.

The skin contains numerous sebaceous glands which are under androgenic control with secretions increasing during the breeding season.

Sebaceous secretions can cause the hair coat to have a greasy feel and produce the characteristic musky odour.

Secretions may be so profuse that intact male albino ferrets can appear yellow and dirty.

Owners will sometimes bathe ferrets to remove this “dirty appearance” and to reduce odour, but frequent bathing can remove essential oils from the skin and result in pruritus and keratinopathies.

Ferrets are fastidious groomers, and so frequent bathing is not necessary.

Ferrets originate from dry, temperate climates and can suffer from warm temperatures and damp.

They have epitrichial (apocrine) sweat glands on the body and atrichial (eccrine) sweat glands on the footpads.

However, their thick fur prevents significant body cooling by evaporation, making them susceptible to hyperthermia, heatstroke and dehydration.

Ferrets possess a pair of well-developedanal glands, as do all mustelids.

These glands produce a serous yellow liquid with a strong odour.

Ferrets that are frightened or threatened can express their anal glands but, unlike skunks, are unable to project the fluid over long distances.

These glands rarely become impacted, but if it occurs the treatment is the same as for other species.

neutering decreses odour

250
Q

hedghog integrument

A

The crown and dorsum (collectively called the mantel) are covered in a dense coat of several thousand smooth spines.

Each spine has a round basal bulb that firmly attaches it within the follicle, while a more narrowed portion at the skin surface allows each spine to bend when force is applied.

Healthy spines are difficult to pull from the follicle without breaking at this narrowed portion.

Hedgehog spines are composed of keratin and have a complex internal structure that confers lightness, strength, and elasticity.

Hair and sebaceous glands are absent in the spiny skin.

The epidermis in this area is thin, and there is a thick fibrous dermal layer that contains significant layer of fat and few blood vessels.

Hedgehog spines are naturally impact resistant - in the wild, hedgehogs will climb trees and plants in search of food and will often fall from significant heights.

A falling hedgehog rolls into a ball and uses its dorsal muscles to erect its spines before impacting the ground which allows the animal to survive the impact unharmed due to the shock-absorbing capabilities of its spines, which buckle under load.

Spines are absent from the midline of the crown, and hair on the feet and muzzle is sparse to absent.

The haired skin and the soles of the feet are rich in sweat and sebaceous glands.

The toenails are round in cross section and are highly curved.

251
Q

integrument of rats

A

Rat hair is divided into guard hairs and undercoat.
Aged male rats develop brown, granular sebaceous secretions at the base of their hair shafts, which some owners may mistake for ectoparasitism.

The tail becomes more dry and scaly with age.

Vibrissae - the rat has tactile vibrissae which are essential for the animal’s orientation - they have sensory bulbs at their base, and an extensive nerve and blood supply.

There are 50 to 60 vibrissae located on each side of the upper lip and nose in 8 to 10 rows and they are innervated by the infraorbital nerve.

Smaller tactile hairs are also found on the lower lip, chin, and upper eyelid
Sebaceous glands - found around thehair follicles with modified sebaceous glands found in the region of the oralcommisure, the anus andprepuce, and around theteats.

Sweat glands - only found around the footpad which function not for evaporative cooling but for maintaining adhesive friction between the foot and surfaces.

Having fewsweat glands and, being unable to pant, rats have poorheat tolerance.

They do not increase their water intake at high ambient temperatures but instead try to cool down by increasingsalivationand seeking shade.

Death occurs at temperatures over 37° C.

The tail and ear are very important for heat dispersion, with blood vessels vasoconstricting and dilating according to ambient temperatures.

Adultbrown rats have good tolerance to cold and can adapt extremely well to cold climates by laying down brown fat within 3 or 4 weeks.

The preferred ambient temperature range for captive rats is 18-26° C and with a relative humidity of 40-70%.

Scent glands - rats have no specializedscent glands but producepheromonesthrough urine, faeces, milk, and skin - these affect reproductive behaviour, dominance, and territorial behaviour.

Zymbal’s gland - large modified sebaceous glands that surround the base of the ear.

252
Q

hamster integrument

A

Hamster fur is soft and smooth, and the ears are bald and grey.

Around the neck region the skin is very loosely attached and capable of extensive stretching.

There is soft underfur and this is covered by longer and thicker guard hairs.

The hair is sparse on the feet and tail and there are fine hairs on the pinnae.

Cranial sensitive vibrissae are essential for orientation, particularly in nocturnal mammals.
Hamsters have large, potentially reversible cheekpouches that are paired muscular sacs extending as far back as the scapula.

The pouches are evaginations of the oral mucosaand are used for transporting food, bedding material, and occasionally young.

Cheek pouches can develop abscesses and tumours and also can be subject to eversion and impaction.
Golden hamsters have distinctive hip or flank glands that have short sparse hairs, often darkly coloured.

Found bilaterally along the lumbararea, the glands are androgen dependent they are poorly developed in the female, but in the mature male they are prominent and become wet and matted during sexual excitement.

May play a role in lipogenesis, hair and flank gland growth.

Occasionally these glands can become inflamed, swollen and crusted.

253
Q

Rodent –Myomorph–Dental Formula

A

1003/1003

Cheeks drawn in across diastema•Can gnaw for long periods without wearing molars or swallowing debris

254
Q

describe the myomorph rodent stomach

A

Monogastric•Divided into two parts–Non-glandular forestomach•pH is higher than in the glandular stomach•Small amount of fermentation occurs here –Glandular •Similar to other monogastricstomachs•Chief and parietal cells–Separated by a ‘limiting ridge’•Food does not mix between compartments•Spleen attached over the greater curvature

255
Q

describe the myomorph rodent intestines

A

Small intestine –Makes up the largest component of intestines–Long mesentery attachment–Jejunum usually 2-2.5 X the length of the duodenum–Varying length overall depending on species

Large intestine –Caecum •Comma shaped•Base, body and apex (appendix)•Body thin walled•Base and apex –lymphoid rich•Sacculatedin most rodent species (not in rats)–Colon•Ascending, transverse and descending•Similar terminology as in dogs and cats•Formed faecalpellets–Rectum•Distally sebaceous glands (“anal glands”) help to scent the faeces

256
Q

describe the myomorph rodent liver

A

Standard is 4 liver lobes•Left lateral lobe•Left medial lobe•Middle lobe•Right lobe
Gallbladder–As with dog and cat–Exception -Rats = no gallbladder

257
Q

describet tthe myomorph rodent pancreas

A

Well defined–Varying colours(species variations) e.g. rat –white/grey, hamsters white/yellow

258
Q

Ferret –Dentition

A

ypical Carnivore Dentition–Deciduous teeth•Erupt at 3-4 weeks•30 teeth•Very sharp–Adult/permanent teeth•Start erupting at 50-55 days •All present by 11-12 weeks•34 teeth
3131/3132

259
Q

descriebe the ferret esophagus and stomach

A

Oesophagus–Similar to cats and dogs–Ferrets are able to vomit, therefore fasting prior to an anaestheticprocedure is required to reduce the risks of aspiration pneumonia, secondary to regurgitation/vomiting •Stomach–Simple, monogastricstomach–Prone to gastric ulcerations –Helicobacterinfections–Ferrets can engorge when eating and the stomach is able to accommodate this with good ‘stretching’ properties

260
Q

describe the ferret intestines

A

Short’ start and end–Duodenum -10cm length approximately–Ill-defined junction between jejunum and ileum •150-160cm length approximately–Large intestine -10cm length approximately•No caecum•Small intestine (ileum) enters into colon –No ileocolonicvalve–Anatomically appear the same (grossly)–At surgery differentiate by blood supply•Jejunalartery anastomoses with the iliac artery•Paired scent glands at the external sphincter of the anus–‘Musky’ odour–Descentingperformed in the US not the UK

261
Q

describe the ferret liver

A

Sits in the curvature of the diaphragm–5 Lobes:•Right lateral•Right medial •Quadrate central lobe–‘Hides’ the gallbladder•Left lateral •Left medial

262
Q

descriebt eh ferret pancreas

A

Lies parallel to the duodenum–Well defined–Lobulated, irregular appearance–Pale pink/red colour
– prone to Insulinomas

263
Q

African Pygmy Hedgehog –Dentition

A

36 teeth

3133/2123

264
Q

Sugar Glider -Dentition

A

3134/1-2,034
Diprotodont•Meaning ‘two front teeth’•Marsupial•Pair of large procumbent incisors on the lower jaw•Ability to retract the gums to expose more of the teeth

Closed rooted teeth•Do NOT constantly grow•Do NOT chew for behaviour enrichment•Unlike rodents•Teeth function:•‘scoop out’ fruit •pry open bark

265
Q

descrieb the intestines of a sugar glider

A

Small Intestines–Approximately 3X the length of the large intestine–Brunner’s glands are located distal to the pylorus in the submucosa of the duodenum and drain directly into the duodenal lumen•Secrete alkaline fluid and mucus•Large Intestines–They are hindgut fermenters and possess a well-developed caecum –Utilize bacterial fermentation to break down dietary products e.g. gum from the acacia tree–The mesenteric attachments to the colon are loose

266
Q

descrieb the intestines of a sugar glider

A

Small Intestines–Approximately 3X the length of the large intestine–Brunner’s glands are located distal to the pylorus in the submucosa of the duodenum and drain directly into the duodenal lumen•Secrete alkaline fluid and mucus•Large Intestines–They are hindgut fermenters and possess a well-developed caecum –Utilize bacterial fermentation to break down dietary products e.g. gum from the acacia tree–The mesenteric attachments to the colon are loose

267
Q

apterylae

A

one of the spaces between the feather tracts of birds abouve the jugular

268
Q

tomial tooth

A

Falcon beaks are equipped with a tomial tooth, a sharp triangular-shaped ridge on the outer edges of the upper mandible. They use this to kill prey quickly by biting their necks and severing the vertebrae. Other raptors need a bit more than just their beaks and feet to help them get the food they need.

269
Q

fox dental formula

A

3142/3143= 42

270
Q

badger dental formula

A

3141/3142 =38

271
Q

hedgehog dental formula

A

3133/2123 =36

272
Q

rabbit/hare dental formula

A

1033/1023 =28

273
Q

squirrel dental formula

A

1023/1013 =22

274
Q

otter dental formula

A

3141/3132 =36

275
Q

deer dental formula

A

0033/3133 =32

276
Q

ferret reproductive anatomy

A

induced ovulators- fertilisation 12 hours after ovulation, 42-52 hours after mating
long day seasonally polyoestrus breeders
remain in oestrus if not mated
suseptible to oestrogen assosiated anemia if not mated

277
Q

myomorph rodents reproduction

A

bicornate uterus-
seperate urinary and vaginal openings
5-6 pairs of mamary glands
males do not have nipples

278
Q

sugar gliders reproduction

A

4 teats
cloaca
seasonally polyoestrus
pouch for young

279
Q

Sub-metacentric

A

Centromere is just off center in Chromosome

280
Q

Acrocentric

A

Most chromosomes in Dogs are acrocentric

Centromere are very off center

281
Q

Metacentric

A

Centromere is in the center of chromososme

282
Q

aneuploidy

A

Ank abnormal number of chromosomes

associates with physical or mental
abnormalities

283
Q

Euploidy

A

an exact multiple of the haploid (n) chromosome number
As oposed to triploidy or tetraploidy
Assosiated with spontaneous abortion

284
Q

Aneuploidy

A

Any other abnomal number of chromosomes thats not an exact multiple eg downs syndrome in humans

285
Q

Monosomy

A

Monosomy for an entire chromosome is almost always lethal; an important exception
is monosomy for the X chromosome, as seen in Turner syndrome- only one X chromosome
Known as a mosaque karyotype
Effects fertility as gametes with no genetic info are produced

286
Q

Deletion

A

A break in a chromosome results in deleted genetic material

287
Q

Duplication

A

A duplication on genetic material

288
Q

Inversion

A

A break in the chromosome causes reinserted and reordered genetic material

289
Q

Translocation

A

Genetic material from one chromosome attaches to another

290
Q

Robertsonian translocation

A

Most common form of translocation
Breakage and rejoining in acrocentric chromosomes results in a long chromosome and a fragmet which is lost, reducing the number of chromosomes.
Does not always result in health conditions

291
Q

Breifly describe the cell cycle checkpoints

A

G1 Checkpoint: Rest or divide?
S Checkpoint: DNA OK?
G2 Checkpoint: Fully equipped?
M Checkpoint: Is everyone lined up?

292
Q

Lysosomal storage diseases

A
Build up of substrate will interfere 
with cellular function 
Clinical signs include:
• failure to thrive
• incoordination and balance issues
• exercise intolerance
• abnormal vision 
• fainting
• seizures

Ceroid lipofuscinosis:
Missing enzyme that breaks down lipofuscin
• Accumulates in nerve cells, liver, kidneys and spleen
• Progressive permanent loss of motor function
• Decreased vision, dementia, seizures, balance problems
• Affects border collies, Border Collies, Chihuahuas,
Cocker Spaniels, Dachshunds, English Setters, & Salukis

293
Q

Autosomal recessive

A

Individual must receive two copies of the abnormal
(recessive) gene
• Asymptomatic carrier parents
• 25% probability of offspring being affected
• Breeding to remove from gene pool

Myoclonic epilepsy in Rhodesian ridgebacks due to defective DIRAS1 gene
One trait, 2 alleles
A = dominant normal allele
a = recessive abnormal allele

There are five hallmarks of autosomal recessive inheritance:
• Males and females are equally likely to be affected.
• On average, the recurrence risk to the unborn sibling of an affected individual is 1/4.
• It misses generations
• Parents of affected offspring may be related. The rarer the trait in the general
population, the more likely a consanguineous mating is involved.
• The trait may appear as an isolated (sporadic) event in small sibships.

294
Q

Autosomal dominant

A

One trait, 2 alleles
A = dominant abnormal allele
a = recessive normal allele

Hallmarks of autosomal dominant inheritance
1. Every affected individual has an affected biological parent. There is no skipping of generations.
2. Males and females equally likely to inherit the mutant allele and be affected. The recurrence risk of each
offspring of an affected parent is 0.5
3. Normal siblings of affected individuals do not transmit the trait to their offspring
4. The defective product of the gene is usually a structural protein, not an enzyme.
• structural proteins are usually defective when one of the allelic products is non-functional;
• enzymes usually require both allelic products to be non-functional to produce a mutant phenotype.
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) in Persian cats

295
Q

hemizygous

A

Males are always hemizygous for X linked traits, that is, they can never be
heterozygotes or homozygotes. They are never carriers. A single dose of a mutant
allele will produce a mutant phenotype in the male, whether the mutation is
dominant or recessive

296
Q

Sex linkage

A

When the locus for a gene for a particular trait or disease lies on the X chromosome, the
disease is said to be X-linked
• The inheritance pattern for X-linked inheritance differs from autosomal inheritance only
because the X chromosome has no homologous chromosome in the male, the male has
an X and a Y chromosome
• Very few genes have been discovered on the Y chromosome.

• The inheritance pattern follows the pattern of segregation of the X and Y chromosomes
in meiosis and fertilization
• A male child always gets his X from one of his mother’s two X’s and his Y chromosome
from his father. X-linked genes are never passed from father to son
• A female child always gets the father’s X chromosome and one of the two X’s of the
mother. An affected female must have an affected father

Males are always hemizygous for X linked traits, that is, they can never be
heterozygotes or homozygotes. They are never carriers. A single dose of a mutant
allele will produce a mutant phenotype in the male, whether the mutation is
dominant or recessive
• On the other hand, females must be either homozygous for the normal allele,
heterozygous, or homozygous for the mutant allele, just as they are for autosomal
loci.
Males get their X from their mother
• Fathers pass their X to daughters
only
• Females express it only if they get a
copy from both parents.
• Expressed in males if present
• Recessive in females

297
Q

X-linked dominant (XD)

A

Mothers pass their X’s to both sons and daughters
• Fathers pass their X to daughters only.
• Normal outsider rule for dominant pedigrees for
females, but for sex-linked traits remember that
males are hemizygous and express whichever
gene is on their X.
• X
D = dominant mutant allele
• X
d = recessive normal allele

298
Q

Genetic mosaicism

A

One individual has two or
more populations of cells
with different genotypes

The sooner the mutation happens in developmet the bigger potentail fpr more cells to posses the trait in question

299
Q

mutation

A

A mutation is a permanent and heritable change or disruption in the base sequence of the genome
Nucleotides are added one by one during DNA replication
Mistakes made every 1 in 10⁵ pairings
Proofreading increases accuracy to 1 in 10⁷ pairings

300
Q

mismatch repair

A

Post-replication mismatch repair further improves accuracy of dna replication

it occurs when a mismathc is deteted in newly synthesised DNA
the new DNA is cut and the mispaired nucleatide and its neighbours are removed and then replaced with the correct nuclueotide by DNA polymerase
DNA ligase seals the gap

301
Q

Sequence mutations

A

substitution, insertion or deletion

Alters sequence of bases within gene

302
Q

Open reading frames

A

section of DNA or RNA that runs from START codon to STOP codon
ORF is read in triplets of bases (codons) from START codon onwards

303
Q

DNA mutation - substitution

A

One base in the DNA sequence changed to another base
- Transcript affected too
Missense mutation = mutated codon calls for incorrect amino acid.
Nonsense mutation = mutated codon is now a stop codon.
Silent mutation = amino acid sequence not affected
Due to redundancy of code

304
Q

Missense mutation

A

= mutated codon calls for incorrect amino acid.

305
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

mutated codon is now a stop codon.

306
Q

Silent mutation

A

amino acid sequence not affected

Due to redundancy of code

307
Q

DNA mutation – insertion/deletion

A

Inappropriate number of bases in a DNA sequence following mutation
Affects entire reading frame of 3-letter codons after the point of change
Frameshift mutation
Potential catastrophic change in functionality of protein

308
Q

describe the mutation involved in Canine haemophilia B

A

Substitution of A for G at nucleotide 1477

Results in glycine instead of glutamic acid at position 379

Found in over 25 breeds of dog

Milder than haemophilia A

Sex-linked recessive trait

Dogs should not be used for breeding

309
Q

give some conditions caused by missense DNA mutation

A

Bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency (BLAD)- marked neutrophilia
leucocytes cannot migrate into blood
also seen in irish setters
single point missesnse mutation
anmals tend to die young
Hyperkalaemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
results in paralysis due to disruption of sodium ion channel
adenine to gaunine substitution
increses potassium in blood
porcine stress syndrome-
death, inability to walk, blanched apearence of carcus
Missense mutation in ryanodine receptor gene
X-linked tremours-
shaking puppy syndrome
Missense mutation in ryanodine receptor gene
progressive fatal condition

310
Q

give examples of conditions caused by nonsense mutation

A

Hereditary goitre in Afrikander cattle-
Nonsense mutation in thyroglobulin gene
effects some goats

Bovine citrullinemia in Holstein-Friesian cattle-

Nonsense mutation in argininosuccinate synthetase gene

effects urea cycle- build up of amonia in blood
lethal early in post natal period

Deficiency of uridine monophosphate synthase (DUMPS

Hypotrophic axonopathy in quail

Maple syrup urine disease- in cattle

Nanomelia- chickens
connective tissue disorder

311
Q

Mutagens

A

A substance or agent that causes DNA impairment that results in the alteration of the DNA sequence

Radiation:
UV light, x-rays etc.
Directly damage DNA or nucleotides
Induce cross-linking
Break chromosomes
Break DNA strands
Delete bases
Nucleotide dimers

Chemical agents:
Base analogs – structurally similar to nucleotides so get incorporated into DNA
Base altering agents – induce methylation, alkylation, deamination of DNA bases
Intercalating agents – similar structure to base pair heterocyclic ring

Biological agents:
Transposons and insertion sequences
Viruses
Bacteria

Physical, chemical and biological mutagens increase incidence above spontaneous level

Not all damage/impairments are mutations

DNA repair (polymerase) will fix the majority

312
Q

Somatic mutations:

A

Occur in the non-reproductive cells (somatic cells)
May not be manifested to affect an individual due to the reparative and compensative processes of the body.
Somatic mutation that alters thecell divisionpatterns of the cell can eventually result in the formation ofcancerouscells or tissue

313
Q

Germ-line mutations

A

Occur ingametesor in the reproductive cells that produce gametes
Mutations are inheritable
Transferred to the next progeny in all their cells

314
Q

teratogen

A

agents that can induce an effect on a fetus in eutero withot effect to the mother

315
Q

Inborn errors of metabolism

A

Cellular metabolism comprises hundreds of enzymatic pathways with many steps

Each step requires an enzyme or other protein with a particular function

Each step is part of a cascade, inhibition etc.

Non-functional protein stops the pathway

Often results in accumulation of a product

Product can have toxic effects

316
Q

mendelian disorder

A

a type of genetic disorder primarily resulting due to alterations in one gene or as a result of abnormalities in the genome.

317
Q

Citrullinemia

A

Clinical signs begin at 1 to 4 days

Apparent blindness
Depression
Head pressing
Convulsions
Terminal coma
Death by 1 week

Meningitis, hypoglycaemia and sodium ion toxicity should be ruled out

Urea cycle converts toxic ammonia to urea

Each step carried out by specific enzyme

Occurs primarily in the liver

Urea excreted via kidneys

Argininosuccinate synthetase (ASS) converts citrulline to argininosuccinate

Comparison of ASS gene in affected and normal animals shows single base substitution

Substitution of T for C in the first position of the 86th triplet codon
CGA (arginine) becomes TGA (STOP)
Polypeptide terminated at the 85th amino acid

Biochemical detection of carrier status

All heterozygotes have 50% ASS activity compared to normal animals

Affected individuals have 0 ASS activity

318
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Born with easily extendible or very fragile skin

Ehlers-Danlos / dermatosparaxis / cutaneous asthenia

Slight scratch can cause severe lacerations
Collagen fibres formed from triple-helix pro-collagen

Pro-collagen requires enzymatic modification to form mature functioning collagen

More than one type of collagen

Collagen one contains α-1 chains (x2) and α-2 chains (x1)

Both are coded for by separate genes

Type-1 procollagen becomes type-1 collagen through removal of terminal amino acids

Mutations can occur in any of these genes:

α-1 procollagen chain
α-2 procollagen chain
Procollagen I
mutations in these genes are dominant disorders

carboxy-proteinase (PCP-C-I) endopeptidase
Procollagen I aminoproteinase (PCP-N-I) endopeptidase- THIS IS THE ONE THAT MUTATES IN CATLE AND SHEEP- recesive inherited disorder
heterozygous effected animals still have enough enzyme

Mutation in any of these will lead to the clinical symptoms of stretchy and fragile skin

Genetically heterogeneiic

Dominant form in:
Horses
Cats
Dogs
Rabbit
Recessive form in:
Sheep
Cattle
319
Q

Genetic heterogeneity

A

If a specific set of clinical signs arises from more than one mutation, there is genetic heterogeneity for that disorder
If genetic heterogeneity is undetected it can be difficult to establish the form of inheritance if clinical signs have a genetic basis

320
Q

Progressive retinal atrophy

A
Late-onset, autosomal recessive photoreceptor degeneration
Starts with night blindness
Progresses to total blindness
Age of onset varies between breeds
Puppies are born normal 

PRCD (progressive rod cone atrophy) is one of several inherited diseases grouped under the progressive retinal atrophy (PRA) rubric

Autosomal recessive disorder due to mutation in the Progressive Rod-Cone Degeneration (PRCD) gene

Mapped to canine chromosome 9

Substitution of guanine with adenine

Changes cysteine to tyrosine (C2Y)

Genetic tests are available
PRA causes retinal cells to degenerate and die
Initially loss of rods then cone

Ophthalmic evaluation may only take place after first clinical signs

Electroretinography (ERG) is a very sensitive indicator of PRA

Genetic tests are available

Early diagnosis aids lifestyle adjustments

recessive disorder

321
Q

Penetrance

A

: Proportion of individuals with genetic variant (mutation) who exhibit signs and symptoms of genetic disorder

322
Q

Liability

A

the combined effect of all factors (environmental and genetic), that render an animal more or less likely to develop that disorder
Liability is continuous

Classification is ‘normal’ or ‘affected’

Threshold allows classification

Example of a multifactorial trait

323
Q

Heritability

A

proportion of total variation in a trait that can be attributed to variation in genetic factors

Relative importance of genetic and environmental factors

Contribution of each to disease aetiology

324
Q

SNPs

A

Single nucleotide polymorphisms

a difference in a single DNA building block, called a nucleotide

325
Q

Epistasis – coat colour

A

The action of one gene depends on the action of another gene
Coat colour:
Different combinations of alleles from different loci
Agouti (ASIP) gene causes hair pigment cells to switch from black/brown to yellow/white
Expression of ASIP is driven by gene promoters

Different promoter alleles drive different colour patterns- promoter region is part where polymerase enzyme binds to start expression
controls when its expressed, where and for how long

326
Q

Complex inherited disorders

A

Caused by multiple genes and influenced by environmental factors

Inheritance is not always straightforward

Lots of gene contribute to risk

Bell-shaped curve:
Few individuals with all pre-disposing factors (genetic & environmental)
Many with some factors (either, or both)
Few with no pre-disposing factors
Example of a multifactorial trait
327
Q

Heritability of liability

A

Proportion of liability that can be attributed to genetics
or
Proportion of differences in liability that are a result of genetic differences among animals

Most familial disorders have intermediate heritability

Heritability for liability is usually greater than zero

Selection for decreased liability can reduce incidence

Non-genetic means can also alleviate inherited disorders

328
Q

canine type 1 diabetes

A

Common endocrine disorder

Influenced by genetic factors

Similar genes and/or genetic pathways in humans

Destruction of pancreatic beta-cells

No insulin produced

Sugar cannot be absorbed into cells

Blood sugar levels remain high

Genetic basis
Altered immune response- body attacks pancreas in autoimune response
posibly on respone to pancrratitis or viral infection

Environmental factors - things that cause pancrreatitis, high fat diet ect

no type 2 diabetes found in dogs but is found in cats

genetic factors assosiated with brain, thymus, pancreaus lymphocyte activation ect

329
Q

feline type 2 diabtetes

A

Type II is most common form

Between 0.2 and 1% of cats will develop diabetes

Risk factors include:

- Obesity
- Increasing age
- Physical inactivity
- Male gender
- Use of steroids- from feline asthma ect- prolonged use
330
Q

neoplasia

A

the abnomal growth of cells
It is an abnormal growth of cells that leads to a neoplasm (tumour)
Neoplasia can occur in any tissue type in the body and in any body system
Neoplasms can either be described as benign or malignant.
The term ‘cancer’ is sometimes used to describe malignant neoplasms
Neoplasia is the result of uncontrolled cell proliferation.
DNA damage is very common and repair sometimes fails.
Genetic mutations lead to increased cell growth (via mitosis) and decreased cell death (via apoptosis)
Neoplastic cells are able to stimulate angiogenesis.
New vascular tissue grows into the mass to nourish the ever growing mass of cells.
Further mutations allow invasion and metastasis in malignant neoplasms

331
Q

summarise the cell cycle

A

G1 – Growth in cell size and preparation for DNA replication
S – Replication of DNA
G2 – Continuation of growth and preparation of other cell components for division
M – Growth stops and division takes place

332
Q

cell cycle regulators

A

each checkpoint is controlled by protiens that control the progression of a cell through the cycle:
Stimulatingproteins (encoded by proto-oncogenes)- enhance cell division and inhibit cell death- CDK-cyclins

Inhibitoryproteins (encoded by tumour suppressor genes)-
control cell division and simulate cell death- P53 tumour suppressor

333
Q

P53 tumour suppressor

A

Stops progression through G1 to s phase if DNA is damaged

stalls cell cycle

Allows cell time to repair DNA

If irreparable, triggers apoptosis

mutation can lead to cancer

334
Q

CDK-cyclins

A

cytokine dependent kinases
Enzymes that activate or inhibit other proteins via phosphorylation

Can activate proteins that stimulate cell cycle progression
once cyclin concentration reaches threshold mitosis is triggered

mutation can lead to cancer

335
Q

DNA repair protiens

A

prevent mutations that can lead to cancer

336
Q

Oncogene

A

mutated proto-oncogene that stimulates cell division and proliferation

337
Q

Angiogenesis

A

creation of new blood vessels to support growth and spread of cancer
normal process outside the process of cancer
Angiogenesis is regulated by competing pro and anti‐angiogenic signalling

The transition to a pro‐angiogenic status occurs when anti‐angiogenic signalling is overwhelmed

Tumour cells secrete growth factors to stimulate blood vessels

338
Q

Dysplasia

A

presence of abnormal cells within tissue or organ- eg structure of nucleus, structure of DNA

339
Q

Carcinoma

A

Malignant tumours of epithelial origin

340
Q

Sarcoma

A

: Malignant tumours of mesodermal origin

341
Q

describe the formation of a carcinoma

A

normal mucosa> hyperplasia> dysplasia > carsinoma in situ> invasive carcinoma

342
Q

Hyperplasia

A

increase in tissue or organ size due to cell proliferation- possible mutation in cell cycle

343
Q

Benign tumours

A
Tend to grow slowly
Expansive, but well circumscribed
Often encapsulated
Cells are well differentiated i.e. closely resemble the tissue of origin
Few mitotic figures (slower growth rate)
Do not metastasise
344
Q

Lipoma

A

Benign tumour of adipose cells

Common in subcutaneous tissues of older, obese animals

345
Q

Adenoma

A

Benign tumour of glandular epithelial tissue

Perianal adenoma commonly seen in older entire male dogs

346
Q

Histiocytoma

A

Rapidly growing benign tumour of round cells
Commonly seen in young dogs on the face and limbs
Can spontaneously regress with T cell invasion

347
Q

Papilloma

A

Benign wart-like tumour of epithelial cells
Often seen in oral cavity and on lip margins, eyelids, ears
Papilloma virus: develop warts 1-2 months post infection

348
Q

Fibroma

A

Benign tumour of fibrous connective tissue
Biopsy required to distinguish from malignant form
Often caused by poxvirus or papillomavirus infections

349
Q

Malignant tumours

A
More rapid growth
Invasive and infiltrative
Non encapsulated
Cells are anaplastic – do not resemble tissue of origin
Many mitotic figures (rapid division)
Metastasise
350
Q

Carcinomas

A

malignat tumours:
Squamous cell carcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma

351
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Commonly found on ear tips or in oral cavity

On skin: associated with exposure to UV light

352
Q

Transitional cell carcinoma

A

Found in the urinary tract, commonly bladder

353
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A
Malignant tumour of glandular tissue
e.g. mammary glands
Mammary tumours in dogs
The most common neoplasia of the bitch
Caudal glands most commonly affected
Highly malignant, metastasise readily
354
Q

Sarcomas

A
Fibrosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
Feline injection site sarcoma
Lymphosarcoma
Hemangiosarcoma
355
Q

Fibrosarcoma

A

Malignant tumour of fibrous tissue

Often invasive

356
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Malignant tumour of osteoblasts
Common in large breed dogs
Away from the elbow/towards the knee

357
Q

Feline injection site sarcoma

A

Mainly associated with inactivated rabies and FeLV vaccines

Exact aetiology unknown by likely stimulation of inflammation from repeat injections

358
Q

Lymphosarcoma

A

Malignant tumour of lymphoid tissues

Some cases in cats associated with FeLV infection

359
Q

Hemangiosarcoma

A
Malignant tumour of endothelial cells
Can affect
Skin
Spleen
Liver
Heart
Bone
Kidneys, bladder, lungs…
360
Q

Mast cell tumours

A

Malignant tumour in dogs arising from mast cells, usually affects the skin
Contain histamine, highly reactive when irritated by handling/FNA/biopsy
Some can be cured by surgical excision (low grade)

361
Q

Leukemias

A

Neoplastic hematopoietic cells in peripheral blood or bone marrow
Leukemia represents less than 10% of hematopoietic neoplasias in dogs and around 15-35% in cats.
Besides FeLV infection in cats, there is not any other proven etiology for leukemia in small animals
Cell lineage identification is an important step in the classification of leukemia

362
Q

Myelomas

A

Type of plasma cell neoplasm originating from terminally differentiated B lymphocytes that have undergone malignant transformation
Most important plasma cell neoplasm which results in diffuse disease
Accounting for less than 8% of all hematopoietic tumours in dogs
No breed or sex predilections exist, and older dogs are most commonly affected, with a mean age of 8 to 9 years

363
Q

Metastasis

A

When malignant cells of the original tumour transfer to another part of the body
an invasive phenotype is aquired
cells invade the surounding stroma and then enter the hematogenous circulation
they travel to a distant organ and invade
they then adapt and proliferate to form metastases

364
Q

Heterogeneity

A

Evolution of tumour to form different clonal stem cell lines

Additional mutations

Selection pressures

treatment of a cancer can be a heterogenis selection pressure

365
Q

metastasis via circulation

A

Most commonly spreads to organs with large blood supply

Liver and lungs, also skin/bone

366
Q

metastasis via lymphatic system

A

Spread through the lymphatic drainage system and seed in lymph nodes
remove lymphnodes to treat and prevent

367
Q

metastasis through extention

A

Spread to neighbouring organ by direct contact e.g. liver and spleen

368
Q

metastatis via transplantation

A

Exfoliation of tumour cells into a cavity or another site e.g. incision site
can occur becuase of surgery via instruments

369
Q

halmarks of cancer

A
sustained proliferative signalling
activating invasion and metastasis
evading growth supression
inducing angiogenisis
enabling replicative imortality
resisting cell death

underlying hallmarks (driving factors)- genome instability and mutation
tumor promoting inflamation
deregulating cellular genetics- reprograming energy metabolism
avoiding imune distruction

all targets for cancer treatment

370
Q

Diagnosing cancer

A

Imaging techniques can be a useful aids to locate abnormal growths however they give no information about the type of growth
The most helpful aid to diagnosis is to take a biopsy.

Histopathological examination will enable definitive diagnosis and allow grading of the tumour to determine its degree of malignancy.

Collection of the sample
Fine needle aspiration
Impression smear
Biopsy:
Needle core biopsy
Bone marrow biopsy
Punch biopsy
Wedge biopsy
Excisional biopsy
Processing of the sample:
Cytology
Histopathology (formalin)
371
Q

Complications of cancer

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes
Hypercalcaemia – adenocarcinoma, lymphoma, multiple myeloma
Hypoglycaemia – insulinoma, hepatic tumours
Coagulopathy – hemangiosarcoma, MCTs, thyroid tumours
Changes in blood pressure
Hyperviscosity – multiple myeloma, lymphoma

Other complications
Anaemia  - through myelosuppression or haemorrhage
Ulceration and infection
Weight loss and cachexia
Obstruction
Histamine release - MCTs
372
Q

cancer treatment options

A
Surgery
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Cryotherapy
Hyperthermia
Photodynamic
therapy
Adjunctive therapies

more often palliative

373
Q

species used for studying aging

A

yeast- can rapidly provide information about aspects of cellular ageing
roundworms- live only 2-3 weeks, allows mutations relating to lifespan to be identified
Fruit flies-commonly used. extremely effective tool for studying evolutionarily conserved aspects of ageing. additional interactions at play within and between tissues of a multicellular, differentiated, organism (such as insulin signalling pathway) can be modelled in worms and flies.

When combined for their individual experimental strengths, flies can function as an effective pipeline of discovery of evolutionarily conserved interventions to enhance lifespan, which can be targeted for experiments in the longer-lived vertebrate systems, such as mice (approx. 3y) and rats (approx. 3y).

Drosophila- convinient,easy husbandry, distinct tissues with human equivilents that can be genetically manipulated

rodents- more closly related to humans. cost effective, convinient, Mice are better models than flies or worms for studying complex biological systems found in humans, such as the immune, endocrine, nervous, cardiovascular and skeletal systems - like humans, mice naturally develop diseases that affect these systems, includingcancer anddiabetes.

non-human primates- allows the integrated system of genes to be studied. rhesus monkey, common marmoset. similar aging process to humans

birds- high metabolic rates body temperatures and blood sugar levels, and yet some species are among the most long-lived of all animal species.
birds have mechanisms to protect them from oxidative damage and that they can regenerate certain neurones in the brain

374
Q

Genes and ageing.

A

Ageing in both human and yeast cells is not only the result of passive wear and tear, it is also caused by an active process orchestrated by a distinct set of genes, some of which slow down ageing while others speed it up.

For example, by exposing yeast to lithocholic acid (an ageing-delaying natural molecule) scientists created long-lived yeast mutants that they dubbed “yeast centenarians.”

These yeast mutants lived five times longer than their normal counterparts because their mitochondria consumed more oxygen and produced more energy than in normal yeast.

The centenarians were also much more resistant to oxidative damage – a key process that causes ageing.

375
Q

Clock genes

A

investigators have looked at a mechanism controlled by a group of genes called clock genes that regulate metabolism in the roundworm and affect lifespan.

The roundworm genes that seem to confer increased longevity do so by supporting resistance to external stresses, such as –

Bacterial infections,
High temperatures,
Radiation,
Oxidative damage (oxidative damage results when the toxic by-products of oxygen metabolism damage the components of cells).

376
Q

Co-enzyme Q7 (COQ7)

A

There has been significant research in roundworms has focused on the gene that regulates the activity of a particular type of protein, co-enzyme Q7, hydroxylase (COQ7) that plays a crucial role in electron transport within mitochondria that produce energy.

Investigators have discovered that mutations that diminish COQ7 lead to a modest increase in life span.

These mutations have a bigger effect when combined with other mutations, such as those in the insulin pathway and affect resistance to oxidative damage.

377
Q

DAF-16

A

other research has studied a variant of roundworms that possess a mutant gene labelled DAF-16.

These mutant worms carry large amounts of DAF-16 in their nuclei, which cause the worms to live longer than worms without an excess of DAF-16.

Although the explanation for this phenomenon is still not fully known, it does offer an opportunity to screen drugs to see if they increase nuclear levels of DAF-16.

If certain drugs can increase the amount of DAF-16, then they might be beneficial in increasing life span.

378
Q

Insulin pathway and TOR.

A

Past research on the Insulin Signalling (ISS) and TOR pathways shows that altering certain genes, usually yields a 100% and 30% lifespan increase, respectively.

The assumption was then, that altering them together would boost lifespan by 130%, however when scientists tested this they found that the effect was much greater than the sum of its parts.

The study, published in 2020,showed that altering the IIS and TOR pathways together yields a lifespan extension of about 500 percent.

These findings demonstrate well that nothing in nature exists in a vacuum, i.e. in order to develop the most effective anti-ageing treatments it can be most effective to look at longevity networks rather than individual pathways.

The findings suggest that future anti-ageing therapies might involve a combination of treatments, similar to how combination treatments are sometimes used for cancer and HIV.

379
Q

what are the five majour symptom clusters for assesing cognative decline

A
Disorientation
Social Interactions
Sleep-wake cycles
House-training
Activity

Codes for presence over severity.

Quick and easy.

380
Q

Canine Dementia Scale (CADES)

A
Four symptom clusters:
Spatial orientation
Social interaction 
Sleep–waking cycle
House soiling

each section cored from 0 to 5 points based on frequency and then added to form an acumulative score
allows dog to be graded on cognative disfunction

381
Q

mechanisms of cognative decline

A

Atrophy (shrinkage) of tissue in some regions
Increased ventricular volume
Loss of neurons and synapses and reduced formation of new neurons
Accumulation of abnormal proteins
decline in glucose metabolic rates in the brain
chemical loss- degeneration of neurons that provide neurottansmitters, eg dopamine,acetylecholine

382
Q

Mechanisms Cognitive Decline: Dopamine

A

Dopamine cells located in the Ventral tegmental area (VTA) and Substantia nigra (SN).

Three main projections:
Mesocortical
Mesolimbic- reward
Mesostriatal

regulates behahviour, emotion learning
Dopamine cells are limited in supply.
Less than 50,000

Degenerate easily during ageing.

Degeneration linked to mechanisms to compensate for failed function.

Balance of degeneration vs chemical compensation.

383
Q

Mechanisms Cognitive Decline: Acetylcholine

A

Acetylcholine cells located in the Medial septal nucleus (MSN), Nucleus basalis (NB), and Tegmental nucleus (TN).

Three main projections:
Frontal
Septal
Basal

plays role in memory loss

degenerate easily but more prone to enviromental factors than other neurones

384
Q

Treatment of Cognitive Decline: Selgian

A

Active ingredient is Selegiline Hydrochloride.

Inhibits monoamine oxidase B. ensures higher levels of dopamine

Low dose (sub 20mg per Kg)
Increased dopamine levels
High dose (20mg per Kg)
Increased dopamine, serotonin and noradrenaline. 

Selegiline is a selective MAO-B inhibitor at low doses.

Prevents breakdown of dopamine therefore increasing levels in the brain.

At high doses inhibits MAO-A.

Prevents breakdown of noradrenaline and serotonin increasing levels in the brain.

Counter indicated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI’s).

385
Q

Treatment of Cognitive Decline: Vivitonin

A

Active ingredient is Propentofylline.

Inhibits phosphodiesterase (PDE) and adenosine reuptake transporters.

Low dose (6mg per Kg)

High dose (10mg per Kg)

Propentofylline inhibits phosphodiesterase (PDE) and adenosine reuptake transporters.

Increases adenosine signalling and nitric oxide production.

Significant vasodilation affect, resulting in increased cerebral blood flow.

386
Q

dietery suplimentation for congnative deterioration

A

vitamine B, D and E
Flavonoids-improve blood vessel function and communication between nerve cells
Fish Oils

387
Q

golden retriever Muscular dystrophy

A

Muscular dystrophy (MD) is a progressive fatal disease characterized by degeneration of skeletal and cardiac muscle

Most common form is Golden Retriever MD (GRMD)

Also seen in rottweiler; pointer; beagle and others

phenotypic variability due to differencec in muscle metabolism

Characterised by degeneration of skeletal and cardiac muscle

Affected individuals exhibit atrophied muscles

Seen early in life (1 month) – often ineffectual sucklers

effects dystrophin gene

clinicla signs:
Stiff gait
Decreased agility
Decreased exercise tolerance
Muscle atrophy
Prominent bones along spine, ribs and skull
Megaoesophagus
Large tongue
Excessive drooling

diagnosis:
Elevated creatine kinase in bloodwork
Muscle biopsy
Histopathological examination of muscle tissue
Degenerating muscle fibres
Changes in diaphragm and heart observed during necropsies
genetic test

388
Q

GRMD – molecular pathology

A

Defect in a gene on the X chromosome

X-linked recessive disorder

Higher prevalence in males as they only have one X chromosome

Males are always hemizygous for X linked traits

Females must receive two copies to display GRMD phenotype

Gene is responsible for production of dystrophin
Very long gene product
Very large protein

mutation is on splicing site

substitution results in exon not being recognised as exon and is removed
results in frame shift and new stop codon created

protien loses regions that interact with sarcolema

389
Q

Dystrophin in the context of GRMD

A

Dystrophin acts as a shock absorber

Connects the actin cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix

Each end of the molecule is tailored to interact with cytoskeleton or glycoproteins

Mitigates any damage in muscle when muscle cells contract

transferes force of muscle contracts from insidd to outside
sarcolema becomes weaker with every muscle contration without it reaulting in leaky muslce cells and subsiquently degeneration

Reduced membrane integrity allows enzymes such as creatine kinase (CK) to leak out
Calcium influx leads to protease activity
Results in muscle abnormalities and necrosis
Stimulates inflammation and further muscle damage

Muscles deteriorate

with loss of myofiber membrane integrity muscle is repalced with connective tissue and fat eventualy effecting cardiac and respiritory muscle

390
Q

Equine sarcoids

A

Most common cutaneous tumour in horses. Prevalence 04-15.8%
Non life threatening but big effect on welfare and material value of the horse (Gerber, 1989; Marti et al., 1993):
Pre-purchase examination!
Exclusion from insurance coverage
Infection of the site
Diffulties defecating, urinating, mastication, locomotion
Tack issues
Prevalence is higher in younger horses (as early as 6 months and the average is 3.5-4 y.o)
Genetic predisposition:
equine major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is encoded in the equine leucocyte antigens (ELA) in chromosome 20 ELA haplotypes A3 and B1 higher susceptibility But… not all B1 horses suffer sarcoids!
Markers in chromosomes 20, 22, 23 and 25 identified

Breed: Standardbred and Warmblood at least risk. Quarter horse, arabs, appaloosa and TB higher risk. Donkeys the highest risk!
Anatomical region: any!
First described papillomavirus cross-species non-productive infection . In horses non-permissive for virus production and non regressing

There is great variability in the histopathological signs and to date there are no pathognomonic features in equine sarcoids

diagnosis:
Clinical presentation
Histology – expert clinical pathologist! As easily confused with fibroma and fibrosarcoma (Roberts, 1970; Martens et al., 2001c) (Weiss, 1974; Taylor & Haldorson, 2013)
Detection of BPV-1 (equine sarcoid variants) and -2 (Nasir & Reid, 1999; Carr et al., 2001a; Nasir & Campo, 2008).
Modern technologies: microRNA detection

391
Q

cinical types of equine sarcomas

A

Occult, verrucose, nodular (types A1, A2, B1 and B2), fibroblastic (types 1a, 1b and 2), mixed and malignant

392
Q

Occult equine sarcoids

A

most benign form of ES and are thought to represent an early stage of the disease. Occult sarcoids are often circular alopecic lesions with a grey colour, that lack hair and their appearance is of a hyperkeratotic dry lesion. On palpation, skin feels thickened, dry and has small nodules underneath. This form is easily misdiagnosed as ‘ring-worm’ (dermatophytosis) or skin rubs from tack or other equipment (see Figure 1.2, Image 1). Verrucose sarcoids are prominent from the skin and they are similar to warts in appearance. The skin on these lesions is dry, alopecic and scaly. The margins are not well defined. Due to the ‘wart-like’ appearance these can be mistaken for equine papillomas.

393
Q

Nodular equine sarcoids

A

are circumscribed firm subcutaneous masses that can appear as single or multiple lesions. Type A are characterised by no skin involvement (the skin can be freely moved over the nodules). If the underlying tissues are not involved it is classified as nodular type A1 and if there is deep tissue involvement it is named A2 (Knottenbelt, 2005a). Nodular type B sarcoids are nodular sarcoids with visible and palpable skin involvement. When they have defined margins they are classified as B1 and if they have ill-defined margins they are named B2.

394
Q

fibrielastic equine sarcoma

A

Fibroblastic tumours have a ‘fleshy’ appearance (see Figure 1.2, Image 5). They are an aggressive form of sarcoids and have a tendency to ulcerate and become infected. Fibroblastic pedunculated sarcoids have a clear margin and a ‘neck’ that separates the lesion from healthy skin. Depending on deep tissue involvement, fibroblastic pedunculated sarcoids are classified as type 1a with no deep tissue involvement, and type 1b with deep tissue involvement. Fibroblastic sessile sarcoids on the other hand have ill-define margins, a broader base and there is always involvement of underlying tissue. It can become difficult to macroscopically differentiate any of the fibroblastic sarcoids from fibrosarcoma and squamous cell carcinoma in which case biopsy will be recommended. Other skin diseases that fibroblastic sarcoids may be mistaken with are exuberant granulation tissue (‘proud flesh’), a common complication in horses in wound healing. Mixed sarcoids are very variable in appearance and they can combine two or more of the forms described above.

395
Q

Malevolent equine sarcoids

A

Malevolent equine sarcoids sometimes called malignant, are rarely described in the literature. The tumour infiltrates the lymphatic system and the progression is fast. It affects extensive areas and it may comprise different clinical types of ES.

396
Q

melenoma

A

[-

397
Q

Nutritional deficiencies

A

longterm, steady-state conditions

corrected through dietary supplementation.

398
Q

Metabolic diseases

A

acute states
dramatically respond to systemic administration of the deficient nutrient or metabolite
accurate and rapid diagnosis is important
Ideally, diagnostic tests can be used to predict the occurrence of disease.

Pathogenesis of each disease is primarily related to alterations in metabolism.

In most cases, the basis of disease is from an increased demand for a specific nutrient that has become deficient under certain conditions.

Diseases are augmented by management practices directed toward improving and increasing production.
considered production diseases.
also metabolic diseases because management of the animal is directed at production,

hypocalcemia
hypomagnesimia
hypoglycemia
milk fever of cows occurs when the mass of calcium in the mammary secretion is greater than the cow’s diet or its skeletal reserves can supply.

399
Q

what are macroelemens and what 7 minerals come under this catagory

A
concentrations in the body higher than 50 mg kg-1 BW
calcium, 
phosphorus, 
potassium, 
sodium, 
chloride, 
Magnesium
 sulphur, 

The structural function involves
elements that build organ and tissue structures
calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, silicon in bones and teeth, phosphorus and sulphur in muscle proteins.

The physiological function is responsible for the
supply of electrolytes to body fluids and tissues in order to regulate osmotic pressure, maintain the acid-base balance, regulate membrane permeability and nerve impulse transmissions
sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, magnesium.

The catalytic role of minerals is probably the most important function.
Macronutrients and micronutrients act as
catalysts in enzyme and endocrine systems;
coenzymes to initiate enzyme and endocrine functions,
constitute integral and specific structural elements of metalloenzymes and hormones.
mineral elements are also responsible for cell replication and differentiation.
Zinc influences transcription, iodine is a component of thyroxine (a hormone responsible for thyroid function and energy processes)

400
Q

what are microelemens and what 15 minerals come under this catagory

A

concentrations in the body below 50 mg kg-1 BW.

iron, 
iodine, 
zinc, 
copper, 
manganese, 
cobalt, 
molybdenum, 
selenium, 
chromium, 
tin, 
vanadium,
 fluoride, 
silicon, 
nickel 
arsenic

The structural function involves
elements that build organ and tissue structures
calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, silicon in bones and teeth, phosphorus and sulphur in muscle proteins.

The physiological function is responsible for the
supply of electrolytes to body fluids and tissues in order to regulate osmotic pressure, maintain the acid-base balance, regulate membrane permeability and nerve impulse transmissions
sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, magnesium.

The catalytic role of minerals is probably the most important function.
Macronutrients and micronutrients act as
catalysts in enzyme and endocrine systems;
coenzymes to initiate enzyme and endocrine functions,
constitute integral and specific structural elements of metalloenzymes and hormones.
mineral elements are also responsible for cell replication and differentiation.
Zinc influences transcription, iodine is a component of thyroxine (a hormone responsible for thyroid function and energy processes)

401
Q

mineral deficiencies

A

Mineral deficiency can impair or inhibit metabolic pathways required for normal body function

Severe macroelement or microelement deficiencies
symptoms corresponding to the function of the deficient element in the body accurate diagnosis
Minor deficiency,
the symptoms are non-specific, often transient difficult to diagnose.
Frequently occur

Mineral deficiency generally leads to 
impaired immunity, 
inhibited growth, 
reproductive disorders
lower productivity

Mineral deficiencies can result from
low quality feed,
impaired absorption or assimilation
increased demand for minerals

402
Q

Milk fever

A

disruption of Calcium homeostasis

What is calcium involved with normally? ossification, blood coagulation, milk, cardiac rhythm control, cell membrane permeability and linkage between cells, nerve and muscle excitation, activation and secretion of hormones through exocytosis and activation of enzymes. Structural integrity of teeth and bones……………

Where does it come from-food! (Stored and released from bones).
The major absorption site of Ca in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract of ruminants is the small intestine

Major increase in requirement-start of lactation, have to meet that demand. The severity and duration of a hypocalcaemic event depends on the integrity of the cows Ca homeostasis mechanisms.

Plasma calcium is distributed in 3 major fractions:
About 50% of total plasma Ca is bound to negatively charged sites on proteins, such as albumin. parasites can decrese albumin levels and have knock on effect
Free calcium. Between 42-48% of total plasma Ca is present as free ions in plasma. This is the portion of total Ca that is hormonally regulated and which contributes to certain Ca-associated pathological states.
About 5-8% of total plasma Ca is bound to non protein anions

What happens physiologically
99% is in the bone in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals.
The next largest pool of calcium is intracellular calcium.

In the inactive cell state, calcium concentrations are relatively low in the cytosol; calcium is bound to proteins or contained within the mitochondria or granules of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Calcium concentrations are indicative of cell activity.

How much?
Blood Ca in the adult cow is maintained around 2.1-2.5mmol/L
3g Ca in the plasma pool
8-9g in all compartments outside of the bone in a 600kg cow.

The smallest pool of calcium, which resides in the Extra Cellular Fluid (ECF), is the most important pool for physiological control of calcium concentrations in the blood. This component comprises interstitial calcium, blood calcium and a small (0.5%) but important part of the bone calcium pool, which exists as amorphous crystals or in solution. The soluble bone calcium pool allows access to the large reserve of calcium that resides in bone.
The regulation of calcium levels involves control of the movement of calcium between the ECF and three body organs: bone, GI tract and kidneys (less so in ruminants due to the contributon of the salivary glands). The exchange of calcium ions

Fluid within the canaliculi of the bone may contain another 6-15g Ca;
dependant on the acid base status of the animal

Around 50% of the total plasma calcium is bound to proteins (primarily albumin),

with another 5% bound to organic compounds in the blood, such as citrate.

From 42-48% of the total plasma Ca exists in the ionised, soluble form (Ca2+),
the amount being closer to 48% at low blood pH and closer to 42% at elevated pH.
As the pH of blood becomes acidic, the calcium ions (Ca2+)will increase due to the competition of hydrogen ions (H+) for binding to the negatively charged site on serum proteins.

During the dry period, Ca requirements are minimal 10-12g/day.

At parturition -sudden increase in cows Ca requirements.
A dairy cow producing colostrum or milk needs to withdraw 20-40g Ca from her pools each day.
not available in the plasma pool
withdrawer calcium from bone or increase the rate of absorption of dietary Ca.
these processes may take 2-3days to become fully active and if they fail, hypocalcaemia results.

In common with their other homeostatic controls, all ruminants are able to regulate with strict precision the concentration of Ca in plasma, under the influence of three hormones:
parathyroid hormone (PTH),
calcitonin (CT)
1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D 3 (l,25(OH) 2D3 ). (1,25-DHD)

In principle PTH and 1,25-DHD increase blood calcium, where as calcitonin decreases it.
Calcium metabolism from bone is less rapid:
in older cows
in cows fed pre-partum diets high in Ca.

So a sudden and large increase in loss of Ca from the extracellular pool can result in hypocalcaemia before the Ca homeostatic mechanisms can act.

Calcitonin is secreted by cells in the thyroid gland, principally in response to Ca concentrations in blood and extracellular fluids.

Calcitonin and PTH act in together to provide a negative feedback mechanism to maintain the concentration of Ca in extracellular fluids within narrow limits.

The major inhibitors to PTH synthesis and secretion (stimulated by elevated Ca in blood) are calcitonin and 1,25-DHD.

403
Q

Calcium homeostasis

A

In common with their other homeostatic controls, all ruminants are able to regulate with strict precision the concentration of Ca in plasma, under the influence of three hormones:
parathyroid hormone (PTH),
calcitonin (CT)
1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D 3 (l,25(OH) 2D3 ). (1,25-DHD)

In principle PTH and 1,25-DHD increase blood calcium, where as calcitonin decreases it.
Concentrations of Ca in the carotid artery blood are monitored by Ca-sensing receptor molecules located on the surface of parathyroid cells.
The parathyroid gland secretes PTH when Ca concentrations are too low.
The primary target cells for PTH are bone osteoblasts and osteocyte, as well as renal tubular epithelial cells.
Under normal conditions PTH is the major factor concerned with the minute-by-minute regulation of blood Ca concentrations that protect the animal against hypocalcaemia.

The short term effects of PTH are:
Increased renal absorption of Ca from the glomerular filtrate
Stimulation of intestinal Ca absorption
If the disturbance in plasma Ca is small or short term, plasma concentrations return to normal and PTH secretion drops back to baseline level.

Where the drain of Ca from the extracellular pool is continuous there is also continued PTH secretion, whose main effect is to stimulate resorption of bone Ca stores.
Calcium is initially derived from the extracellular fluid of bone canaliculi,
….but thereafter it must come from the osteoclastic resorption of the inorganic bone matrix.

The main mechanism of action of PTH in ruminants is through increasing 1,25-DHD production.
There are 1,25-DHD receptors in many tissues, main effects on Ca metabolism are mediated via absorption from the gut (small intestine) and resorption from the bone.

Most Ca is absorbed from the gut by active transport mechanisms regulated by 1,25-DHD,
….although when concentrations in the digesta are very high (eg oral drenches of Ca as a preventative)
-then passive transfer can occur.

PTH triggers the production of 1,25-DHD by the kidney by stimulating the enzyme 1α-hydroxylase, which converts vitamin d3 into the physiologically active form 1,25-DHD

404
Q

Absorption of Ca from the GIT can be reduced by high concentrations of….

A

dietary potassium,
high rumen nitrogen
low dietary phosphorus.

405
Q

metabolic alkalosis predisposes cows to

A

hypocalcaemia by reducing the sensitivity of tissues to PTH.
a lack of osteoclastic bone resorption
failure to upregulate renal 1α-hydroxylase activity.
Metabolic alkalosis commonly occurs as a result of a diet that supplies more strong basic cations (K+, Na+, Ca2+, Mg+) than strong acidic anions (Cl-, SO42-, phosphate).

406
Q

High concentrations of K+ in the diet of a cow

A

reduce the absorption of Ca from the gut and reduce the mobilisation of Ca from bone. High rumen ammonia concentrations also reduce Ca absorption.

407
Q

Milk fever clinical signs

A

Where is there low calcium-blood

What do we see clinically:
blood coagulation (enzymes)
cardiac rhythm control-tachycardia
cell membrane permeability and linkage between cells,
nerve and muscle excitation-lack of smooth and skeletal muscle contraction
Recumbent/paresis of limbs&neck,
no uterine involution,
RFM
cannot swallow,
cannot urinate,
cannot ruminate/eructate (become bloated),
teat sphincter cannot close
Reduced activation and secretion of hormones

408
Q

describe calciums relationship with magnesium

A

What happens physiologically-relationship with magnesium
Mg absorption from the rumen-variable, mostly due to intakes,
Surplus is rapidly compensated for -excretion by the kidneys.
Small reductions in blood Mg may impair the capacity to mobilise Ca in response to hypocalcaemia.

Low magnesium status (hypomagnesaemia) affects Ca metabolism by
Reducing PTH secretion in response to hypocalcaemia
Reducing the ability of PTH to act on its target tissues
Interfering with the hydroxylation process of vitamin D3 in the liver.

Magnesium absorption from the rumen is dependent on
the concentration of Mg in solution in the rumen fluid
the integrity of the Mg transport mechanism (Na+ linked active transport process).

High dietary K+ reduces Mg absorption from the rumen.

409
Q

Magnesium homeostasis

A

Bones and muscles are the main magnesium pools in the body.

Magnesium has major roles in physiological processes and cellular metabolic pathways

The ability of magnesium to stabilize cell membranes is one of its most important functions .

Magnesium and calcium remain in a dynamic equilibrium
Mg plays a significant role in the secretion of the hormone for calcium homeostasis and the responsiveness of tissues to hormones.
It is estimated that more than 75% of hypocalcaemia cases seen in mid-lactation are due to inadequate dietary Mg supply
Magnesium (Mg) is the second most abundant intracellular cation in mammals after potassium. Bones and muscles are the main magnesium pools in the body. Magnesium plays vital roles in nearly all physiological processes and participates in many cellular metabolic pathways.
-It activates nearly 30 enzymes and participates in the metabolism of carbohydrates, nucleic acids and proteins.
-Magnesium stabilizes DNA structure and influences RNA transcription as well as the formation of ribosomal subunits.
-The presence of Mg2+ ions is required in all processes involving ATP.
-The ability of magnesium to stabilize cell membranes is one of its most important functions (Soetan et al. 2010).

Magnesium and calcium remain in a dynamic equilibrium,
Mg plays a significant role in the secretion of the hormone that controls blood calcium and the responsiveness of tissues to that hormone.
It is estimated that more than 75% of hypocalcaemia cases seen in mid-lactation are due to inadequate dietary Mg supply

and a higher intake of magnesium than calcium can stilt the bone growth (Zimmermann et al. 2000). Magnesium improves potassium absorption and protects cardiac muscle cells and neurons against free radicals and toxic substances. It activates classical and alternative complement pathways (McCoy, Kenney 1992).

410
Q

Grass staggers: disruption of Magnesium homeostasis

A

In adult ruminants,
particularly in animals fed fast growing grass with low Mg content
High levels of potassium (application of potash fertilisers) disrupt the absorption of magnesium.
High levels of ammonia (from nitrogenous fertilisers) inhibit magnesium absorption.
low in fibre and increase the rate of passage of food material through the rumen reducing time for Mg absorption.
Reduced food intake e.g. due to bad weather or transportation.

Hypomagnesaemia doesn’t correlate well with clinical signs, even a minor magnesium deficiency can lead to
reduced dry matter intake, nervousness, a reluctance to be milked or herded, reduced milk fat and yield
nerve and muscle excitation (aggressive!!), incoordinated movements, hyperexcitability, muscle spasms and seizures (chomping of jaws and frothy salivation)
further drop in Mg concentrations increases the risk of hypomagnesemic tetany and death

411
Q

absorbtion sites for magnesium in ruminents

A

Adult cows
Rumen mainly absorbs Mg

Sheep
reticulorumen is a main absorption site of Mg
Mg uptake from the site is achieved by an active transport process

Calves
the omasum is the main absorption site for Mg

412
Q

Disruption of Magnesium homeostasis in young ruminents

A

milk replacers deficient in magnesium.
Other factors that increase the demand for magnesium or lower its availability,
such as exercise, low temperature, decreased appetite/fasting and diarrhoea

affects mostly rapidly growing animals at the age of 1.5 to 4 months,
. The first symptoms of nerve and muscle excitation are observed after several days or weeks of hypomagnesemia.
anxiety, twitching of the ears, bulging eyes, jerking movements of the head, kicking at the abdomen, stiff and unsteady gait
it is followed by contraction episodes lasting 5 to 20 minutes
After each episode, the animal remains weak, may exhibit tremor and signs of allotriophagy.

Contractions may reappear 1-2 days later, and they can lead to death

413
Q

Osteoarthritis

A
Progressive degeneration of the joint
Inflamitory disorder
Pain and stiffness in joints
Degeneration of carilage
Hypertorphy of bone at margins
Changes in synovila membrane
Formation of bony outgrowths at joint
Age relataed changes in skeletal system combined with injury

Stiff gaiute
Joint pain
Sensitive legs

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral cysts
Subchondral sclerosis

Risk factors:

Genetics

  • Joint alignment
  • Injury
  • Activity level
  • Obesity

Treatment:

Lifestyle advice (weight loss, activity level, diet etc.)

  • Pain relief (NSAIDs; corticosteroids; fluid modifiers)
  • Surgery (joint fusion; replacement; amputation)

Outlook:

OA is a non-curable, progressive, degenerative condition

  • Pain relief is key outcome
  • Major cause of euthanasia due to quality of life
414
Q

Parhogenisis of osteoarthritis

A

Carilage lost-Exposure of underlying bone
Formation of oseophys and subcondral bone cysts
Joint space lost and bones rub toghter

Articular cartilage degradation and synthesis destabelises- chondrochtes maintainds EXM
Chondrocytes however have limited potential for replication do when damaged it is hard to recover
Link to aging- osteoarthritis is linked to aging due to decreased cellular synethesnse, this esspecially effects condrocytes due to the low potentail for replication
Senescent manifest dramatic changes in what they secret, proinflamitory secretions contribute to ectracellular matrix decline
Stem cell decrease
Altered intracellular communication- pro inflammatory tissue damage

Summary,

Arrest of cell cycle

  • Necrosis of chondrocytes
  • Release of degradative enzymes
  • Breakdown of ECM
  • Release of proinflammatory cytokines- from break down of ecm, bones rubbing and senesence secrerory changes