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Anatomy (Own Cards) > Term 1 > Flashcards

Term 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the origin of the pectoralis major

A
  1. Medial third of clavicle
  2. Sternum
  3. Costal cartilages
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2
Q

What are the four vertical lines of the chest wall called?

A
  1. Mid-clavicular
  2. Anterior auxiliary
  3. Mid auxiliary
  4. Posterior auxiliary
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3
Q

What is the insertion f the pectoralis major?

A

Humerus

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4
Q

What is the origin and insertion of a muscle

A

The origin is the fixed attachment of the muscle, where the muscle starts. The insertion will move with the contraction and is where the muscle ends

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5
Q

What is the innervation of the pectoralis major?

A

Medial and lateral pectoral nerves

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6
Q

What is the action of pectoralis major?

A

Abduction and medial rotation of the humerus at the shoulder

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7
Q

What is the origin of the pectoralis minor

A

Ribs 3-5

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8
Q

What is the insertion of the pectoralis minor?

A

The coracoid process of the scapula

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9
Q

What is the innervation of pectoralis minor?

A

Medial pectoral nerve

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10
Q

What is the action pectoralis minor?

A

Protraction go the shoulder

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11
Q

What is the origin of serrated anterior

A

Upper 8 ribs

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12
Q

What is the insertion of serrated anterior

A

Costal surface of the scapula

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13
Q

What is the innervation of serratus anterior

A

Long thoracic nerve

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14
Q

What is the action of serratus anterior

A

Protraction of the scapula

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15
Q

What is the function of the lungs?

A

Oxygenates blood by bringing insured air into contract with O2 poor blood in the pulmonary capillaries

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16
Q

What is the innervation of the intercostal muscles?

A

The intercostal nerves

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17
Q

What does the internal thoracic artery branch into?

A
  1. Musculophrenic - supplies the diaphragm

2. Superior epigastric arteries - supplies the front of the abdomen

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18
Q

What is the pleural cavity?

A

A potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura

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19
Q

Name 2 function of the serous fluid within the pleural cavity

A
  1. Lubricates the pleura

2. Creates a surface tension helping the lungs to expand on inspiration

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20
Q

Name the four main structures found at the hilum of the lung

A
  1. Pulmonary artery x1
  2. Bronchus x1
  3. Pulmonary vein x2
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21
Q

What branch foes the right main bronchus give off outside of the right lung?

A

Superior lobar bronchus

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22
Q

What other smaller vessels are found at the hilum of the lung?

A
  1. Bronchial arteries
  2. Pulmonary plexus of autonomic nerves
  3. Lymph nodes
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23
Q

Which lung are inhaled bodies more likely to be found in and why?

A

The right lung. The right main bronchus is shorter and more vertical.

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24
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have and what are they called?

A

3 - superior, middle, inferior

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25
Q

How many lobes does the left lung have and what are they called?

A

2 - superior and inferior

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26
Q

What is the fissure in the left lung called?

A

Oblique - lies along the 6th rib

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27
Q

What are the fissures in the right lung called?

A

Horizontal, (extends from the mid-auxiliary line anteriorly along the 4th rib) and oblique (lies along the 6th rib)

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28
Q

Name the 3 surfaces of the lungs

A
  1. Costal
  2. Mediastinal
  3. Diaphragmatic
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29
Q

Name the 3 borders of the lungs

A
  1. Anterior
  2. Posterior
  3. Inferior
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30
Q

Describe the innervation of the lungs

A
  1. Parasympathetic innervation derived from the vagus nerve
  2. Sympathetic innervation derived from sympathetic trunks
  3. Visceral afferents - conducts pain impulses to sensory ganglion
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31
Q

What is the action of parasympathetic innervation in the lung?

A

Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation of pulmonary vessels

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32
Q

What is the action of sympathetic innervation in the lung?

A

Bronchodilation and vasoconstriction of vessels that are poorly ventilated

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33
Q

What is th surface marking for the apex of the lung?

A

2 finger breadths (3cm) above the medial clavicle in the neck

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34
Q

What are to surface markings of the lower border of the lung?

A

6th rib anteriorly, 8th rib in the mid-auxiliary line and 10th rib posteriorly

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35
Q

What are the surface marking for the lower border of the pleural cavity?

A

8th rib anteriorly, 10th rib in the mid-auxiliary line and 12th rib posteriorly

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36
Q

What are the 3 branches of the aorta?

A
  1. Brachocephalic trunk
  2. Left common carotid artery
  3. Left subclavian artery
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37
Q

What are the branches of the braciocephalic trunk?

A

Right common carotid

Right subclavian

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38
Q

What is the ligament arteriosum a remnant of and what was its function in the foetus

A

Remnant of the ductus arteriosum.

It’s function was to shunt blood between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta to bypass the non-functioning lungs

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39
Q

What branch does the left vagus nerve give off as it crosses the arch of aorta

A

The left recurrent laryngeal nerve

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40
Q

Briefly describe the anatomical course of the right phrenic nerve?

A

Lies on large veins (braciocephalic, SVC) and along the right side of the heart. Crosses in front of root of the lung

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41
Q

Briefly describe the anatomical course of the left phrenic nerve

A

Crosses the arch of aorta and descends in front of the root of the lung

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42
Q

What spinal roots in the phrenic nerve derived from

A

C3, 4 and 5 - cervical plexus

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43
Q

What does the phrenic nerve supply

A

Motor innervation to the diaphragm.

Sensory innervation to the pleura, peritoneum and pericardium

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44
Q

Briefly describe the anatomical course of the left vagus nerve

A

Crosses the aorta and behind the root of the lung. Breaks up into branches on the oesophagus and leaves the thorax as the anterior gastric nerve

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45
Q

Briefly describe the anatomical course of the right vagus nerve

A

Lies on the trachea and crosses behind the root of the lung. Breaks up into branches on the oesophagus and leaves the thorax as the posterior gastric nerve

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46
Q

Does the phrenic nerve enter the diaphragm? If so where?

A

Yes. It pierces the central tendon of the diaphragm alongside the IVC on the right (T8)

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47
Q

Does the vagus nerve enter the diaphragm? If so, where?

A

Yes. Through the oesophageal hiatus (T10)

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48
Q

What are the layers of the pericardium?

A
  1. Outer fibrous layer
  2. Parietal serous layer
  3. Visceral serous layer
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49
Q

What structures form the left border of the heart?

A
  1. Left pulmonary artery
  2. Left auricular appendage
  3. Left ventricle
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50
Q

What is the surface marking for the apex of the heart

A

5th intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line

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51
Q

What forms the right border of the heart

A

The right sternal edge

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52
Q

On what aspect of the hearty would you find the left atrium

A

The posterior aspect. It is closely related to the oesophagus

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53
Q

Where is the RCA found?

A

In the atrio-ventricular sulcus

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54
Q

Name the 3 main branches of the RCA

A
  1. Sino-atrial nodal branch
  2. Right marginal branch
  3. Posterior inter-ventricular branch
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55
Q

In 90% of hearts where does the posterior inter-ventricular artery arise from?

A

RCA

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56
Q

In 30% of hearts where does the posterior inter-ventricular artery arise fro,?

A

The circumflex artery

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57
Q

In 20% of hearts where does the posterior inter-ventricular artery arise from?

A

The RCA and the circumflex artery

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58
Q

Name the 2 branches of the LCA

A
  1. Circumflex

2. Left anterior descending

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59
Q

In what sulcus does the circumflex artery lie? What other large vessel can be found here?

A

Left Astro-ventricular sulcus

The coronary sinus can also be found here. It passes posterior and drains into the RA

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60
Q

Where is the SAN locates

A

The upper aspect of the Christa terminalis in the RA

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61
Q

Where is the AVN located

A

Inter-atrial septum

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62
Q

Name the artery that supplies
A - the SAN
B - the AVN

A

A - sink-atrial nodal branch of the RCA

B - posterior inter-ventricular branch, usually RCA

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63
Q

At what’s phase of the cardia cycle do the coronary arteries fill?

A

Diastole, when the ventricles are relaxed

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64
Q

What 2 spaces does the crista terminalis divide in the RA

A

It divides the smooth walled atrium from the trabeculated auricle - ridges = musculi pecanti

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65
Q

What is th fossa ovalis a remnant of

A

The foramen ovale, in the foetus the foramen ovaries shunted the blood from the RA to the LA so as to bypass the lungs

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66
Q

In the ventricles, what are the chordate tendinae attached to?

A

The valves, mitral or tricuspid, and the papillary muscles

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67
Q

How doe the mitral and tricuspid valves work

A

They open passively when the atria contract and then close afterwards to prevent back flow. The papillary muscles and chordae tendinae work to keep the valves closed during the ventricular contraction

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68
Q

How do the atrial and pulmonary valves work?

A

They open passively when the ventricles contract. Towards the end of systole they close to prevent the back flow of blood. The pressure of blood on the valves keeps the closed

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69
Q

How would you know if the atrial and pulmonary valves were incompetent

A

You would get regurgitation of blood into the ventricles, heard as a diastolic murmur

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70
Q

Where can you hear the pulmonary valve?

A

Left of the sternum, 2nd intercostal space

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71
Q

Where can you hear the aortic valve

A

Right of the sternum, 2nd intercostal space

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72
Q

What is the midline connection called of the two lateral thryoid gland lobes?

A

Isthmus

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73
Q

What tracheal rings does the isthmus of the thyroid gland lie in front of

A

2nd, 3rd, 4th

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74
Q

Where do the thyroid gland arteries arise from

A
  1. Superior thyroid artery - external carotid artery

2. Inferior thyroid artery - thr yo cervical trunk, a branch of subclavian

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75
Q

What vessels are contained within the carotid sheath

A
  1. Carotid artery
  2. Jugular vein
  3. Vagus nerve
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76
Q

What is the origin of sternocleidomastoid

A

The manubrium of the sternum and the clavicle

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77
Q

What is the insertion of sternoclediomastoid

A

Mastoid process

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78
Q

What nerves are related to the superior thyroid arteries?

A

The external laryngeal arteries

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79
Q

What nerves are related to the inferior thyroid arteries?

A

The recurrent laryngeal nerve crosses the inferior thyroid artery

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80
Q

How man parathyroid glands are there

A

4

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81
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located

A

Posterior surface of thyroid glands

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82
Q

How are the parathyroid glands developed

A

From the pharyngeal pouches

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83
Q

Name 3 functions of larynx

A
  1. Phonation
  2. Cough reflex
  3. Protection of the lower respiratory tract
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84
Q

What is the epithelium of the vocal cords and why?

A

Stratified squamous, more robust and can withstand vibrations and wear and tear

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85
Q

What is the blood supply to the larynx

A

Superior and inferior laryngeal arteries, branches of thyroid

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86
Q

What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve supply?

A

Motor innervation to intricinsic muscles of the larynx, except cricothryoid

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87
Q

What does the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supply

A

Sensory innervation to larngopharynx and larynx

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88
Q

What does the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supply

A

Motor innervation to the cricothryoid muscle

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89
Q

Name the 3 unpaired cartilages in the larynx

A
  1. Epiglottis - elastic
  2. Thyroid - hyaline
  3. Cricoid - hyaline
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90
Q

What do the two sheets of the thyroid form in the midline

A

Laryngeal prominences, Addams apple

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91
Q

What do the inferior horns of the thyroid cartilage articulate with?

A

They form a synovial joint with the cricoid cartilage

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92
Q

What do the superior horns of the thyroid cartilage articulate with

A

Hyoid bone

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93
Q

What vertebral level is the inferior border of the larynx at

A

C6

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94
Q

Name the 3 paired cartilages in the larynx

A
  1. Arytenoid
  2. Cuneiform
  3. Corniculate
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95
Q

What do the artenoid cartilage articulate with?

A

The base articulates with the cricoid cartilage and the apex articulates with the corniculate cartilages

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96
Q

Where are the cuneiform cartilages located?

A

Within the ary-epiglottic folds, they strengthen the folds

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97
Q

What is the space between the vocal cords called?

A

Roma glottidis

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98
Q

What is the superior vestibular folds also know as

A

False vocal cords

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99
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles of the pharynx

A

The suprahyoids, infrahyoids, stylopharngeus

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100
Q

What is the function of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx

A

They move the larynx superiorly and inferiorly during swallowing

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101
Q

Name the 4 infrahyoids muscles

A
  1. Omohyoid - scapula to hyoid
  2. Sternohyoid - sternum to hyoid
  3. Sternothyroid - sternum to thyroid
  4. Thryohyoid - thyroid to hyoid
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102
Q

What is the function of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx

A

They control the shape of the rims glottidis, and the length and tension of the vocal cords

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103
Q

What is the innervation of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

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104
Q

What intrinsic laryngeal muscle is not innervation by the recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

Cricothryoid

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105
Q

What is the innervation of the cricothryoid muscle

A

External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

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106
Q

What is the function of the cricothryoid muscles

A

Stretches and tenses the vocal cords. Important for the creation of speech

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107
Q

What is the function of the thyroartenoid muscles

A

Relaxes the vocal ligaments, allowing for a softer voice

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108
Q

What is the function of the posterior cricoaryetnoid muscles

A

Abduction of the vocal cords, the only muscles capable of widening the rima glottidis

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109
Q

What is the function of the lateral cricoarytenoid muscles

A

Abduction of the vocal cords, narrow the rima glottidis

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110
Q

What is the function of the transverse arytenoid muscles

A

Abduction of the arytenoid cartilages, narrows the laryngeal inlet

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111
Q

What nerve passes through the parotid gland

A

Facial nerve - Cn 7

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112
Q

What are the five branches of the Cn 7

A
  1. Temporal
  2. Zygomatic
  3. Buccal
  4. Mandibular
  5. Cervical
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113
Q

Where does the pharynx extend from and to

A

The base of the skull to the cricoid cartilage

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114
Q

What are the three sections of the pharynx called

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Laryngopharynx
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115
Q

What is the function of the pharyngeal constrictor muscles

A

They contract sequentially to propel food into the oesophagus

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116
Q

What is the origin of the superior constrictor

A

Pteriogoid plate and pterygomandibular raphe

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117
Q

What is the origin of the middle constrictor

A

Hyoid bone

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118
Q

What is the origin of the inferior constrictor

A

Thyroid and cricoid cartilages

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119
Q

What is the innervation of the pharyngeal constrictors

A

The pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve

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120
Q

What is the function of the longitudinal pharyngeal muscles

A

They shorten and widen the pharynx, they also elevate the pharynx during swallowing

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121
Q

What are the 3 longtiudinal pharyngeal muscles called

A
  1. Stylopharyngeus
  2. Salpingopharyngeus
  3. Palatopharngeus
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122
Q

What is the origin of the stylopharyngeus and what is its innervation

A

Origin - styloid process of the temporal bone

Innervation - glossopharyngeal, Cn 9

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123
Q

What is killians dehiscence

A

Weakest part of the pharyngeal wall, located infeirorly in the midline. It is the commonest site for a pharyngeal diverticulum

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124
Q

What vessels are found in the carotid sheath

A
  1. Common carotid artery
  2. Vagus nerve
  3. Internal jugular nerve
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125
Q

Where is the carotid sinus located

A

At the bifurcation of the common carotid artery

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126
Q

Where does the glossopharyngeal nerve exit the cranial cavity

A

Through the jugular foramen

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127
Q

What nerve supplies sensory and taste innervation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

The glossopharyngeal nerve

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128
Q

What does elevation of the soft palate

A

It closes the orifice between the nasopharyncx an oropharynx. This occurs during swallowing to prevent food resulting into the nose, it also occurs in phonation

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129
Q

What nerve supplies sensory sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Trigeminal nerve, Cn 5

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130
Q

What nerve supplies taste sensation to anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Facial nerve, Cn 7

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131
Q

What fold bind the tonsilar fossa

A

Palatoglossal, anterior, palatopharyngeal - posterior

132
Q

What is the function fo the tonsils

A

The tonsils are a consolidation of lymphoid tissue. They prevent infection by stopping germs entering the mouth and nose

133
Q

Give 4 functions of the nasal cavity

A
  1. Warms and humidifies the air
  2. Olfaction
  3. Removes and traps the pathogens
  4. Drains and clears the para-nasal sinuses
134
Q

What is the function of the nasal conchae

A

Increase the SA of the nose and disrupt the fast flow of air. Air spends more time in the nasal cavity so it can be humidified

135
Q

What opens into the inferior meatus

A

Nascocrimal duct

136
Q

What opens into the middle meatus

A

The frontal, maxillary and anterior ethmoid sinuses open at the hiatus semilunaris. The middle ethmoid sinus opens onto the ethmoidal bulla

137
Q

What opens into the superior meatus

A

Posterior ethmoid sinus

138
Q

Where does the sphenoid sinuses open into the nasal cavity

A

At the spheno-ethmoidal recess

139
Q

Why does the nose have a rich vascular supply

A

This means it can change the humidity and temperature of inspired air

140
Q

What nerve supplies general sensation to the nose

A

Branches of the trigeminal nerve

141
Q

What vertebral level is the tracheal bifurcation

A

T4

142
Q

What is the function of the thoracic duct

A

It drains all the lymph from the lower half of the body and bowel back into the blood stream

143
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain into

A

The confluence between the left jugular vein and left subclavian vein

144
Q

Where does the azygous vein drain into

A

The superior vena cava

145
Q

What are the names of the 3 splanchnic nerves

A

The greater (T5-9), the lesser (T10-11), the least (T12)

146
Q

What is the function of the splanchnic nerve

A

They provide the sympathies innervation to the foregut, midgut and hind gut

147
Q

Occlusion of which vessels is most likley to result in a fatal heart attach

A

The left main coronary artery

148
Q

Which artery provides the main blood supply to the left ventricle

A

The left anterior descending artery

149
Q

Which vessels is most likley to become occluded without producing any symptoms

A

Right marginal artery

150
Q

What is stenosis

A

Narrowing

151
Q

Which artery most frequently supplies the AVN

A

The right main coronary artery

152
Q

What 2 vertical lines divide the abdomen into its 9 regions

A

Mid-clavicular lines that extend to the mid-inguinal point

153
Q

What 2 horizontal lines divide the abdomen into its 9 regions

A

Upper - subcostal - joins the lower costal margins

Lower - intertubercular - connects the iliac crests

154
Q

How would you draw the transpyloric plane

A

Half way between the suprasternal notch and the pubic symphysis

155
Q

What vertebral level is the transpyloric plane found

A

L1

156
Q

Name 5 structure found on the transpyloric plane

A
  1. Pylorus of stomach
  2. Fundus of gall bladder
  3. Pancreas
  4. Hilum of kidneys
  5. Duodenojejunal flexure
157
Q

How would you draw the transtubercular plane

A

Joins the iliac crests of the pelvis

158
Q

What vertebral level is the transtubercular plane found at

A

L4 - same level at the birfurcation of the abdominal aorta

159
Q

What is the intercristal plane

A

It joins the highest points of the pelvis at the back

160
Q

What vertebral level is the intercrtislal found at? Why is this important

A

Between the L4 and L5 verterbrae. This is important for lumbar punctures and epidurals

161
Q

What is the subcostal plane and at what vertebral level does it lie

A

It joins the lower points of the costal margins and lies at the L2 level

162
Q

What can the subcostal plane, L2, be a marker for

A

The end of the spinal cord

The superior mesenteric artery

163
Q

What is McBurney’s point

A

2/3 of the way along a line extending from the umbilicus to the right andteriuor superior iliac spine

164
Q

What is the significance of McBurney’s point

A

Marks the base of the appendix and can act as a guide for the location of the caecum

165
Q

Name the 3 flat muscles of their abdominal wall

A
  1. External oblique
  2. Internal oblique
  3. Transverus abdominis
166
Q

In what direction doe the fibres of the flat muscles of the abdomonis run in

A
  1. External oblique - inferiorly and medially
  2. Internal oblique - superiolry and medially
  3. Transverus abdominis - transversely
167
Q

What is the origin of external oblique

A

Lower 8 ribs and thoraco-lumbar fascia

168
Q

What is the insertion of external oblique

A

Pubic crest, pubic tubercle, iliac crest and linea alba

169
Q

What is the origin of internal oblique

A

Thoraco-lumbar fascia, iliac crest, lateral 1/2 of the inguinal ligament

170
Q

What is the insertion of internal oblique

A

Linea alba, pubic tubercle

171
Q

What is the origin of transverus abdominis

A

Thoraco-lumbar fascia, iliac crestm, lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament

172
Q

What is the insertion of transverus abdominis

A

Linea Alba, pubic tubercle

173
Q

What are the fibrous intersections of the rectus abdominis called

A

Tendinous intersections

174
Q

What are the attachments of rectus abdominis

A

Rectus sheath, pubis, costal cartilages

175
Q

Name 5 structures contained within the rectus sheath

A
  1. Rectus abdominis
  2. Sup and inf epigastric arteries
  3. Sup and inf epigastric veins
  4. Nerves
  5. Lymphatics
176
Q

What is the inferior epigastric artery and branch of

A

The external iliac artery

177
Q

What is the internal thoracic artery a branch of, and what does it supply

A

Branch of subclavian artery and supplies the anterior, chest and abdominal wall and the breast

178
Q

Define dermatone

A

Area of skin supplies by nerves from a single spinal root

179
Q

What are the dermatones of the front abdominal wall

A

T7 to L1

180
Q

If a disease process involved the peritoneum of the abdominal wall, then the pain is localised, why is this

A

The peritoneum covering the inside of the abdominal wall has the same sensory nerve supply as the overlying skin

181
Q

What is the epithelium of the abdominal cavity

A

Simple squamous epithelium

182
Q

What is the peritoneal cavity

A

A potential space between the visceral and parietal peritoneum, filled with peritoneal fluid

183
Q

What is a retroperitoneal organ

A

An organ that only has its anterior surface covered by peritoneum, these organs lie behind the peritoneum

184
Q

Name 6 retroperitoneal organs

A

Duodenum, ascending colon, descending colon, pancreas, oesophagus, kidneys. (DADPOK)

185
Q

What is an intrapertioneal organ

A

An organ fully covered in visceral peritoneum, it is suspended in the peritoneal cavity

186
Q

Name 6 intraperitoneal organs

A

Sigmoid colon, appendix, liver, transverse colon, stomach, small intestine. (SALTSS)

187
Q

What connects the lesser sac to the greater sac

A

There epiploic foramen

188
Q

What does the lesser omen Tim attach to

A

It extends from the liver and attaches to the lesser curvature of the stomach and first part of the duodenum

189
Q

What is found in the right free border of the lesser omentum

A

Common bile duct
Hepatic artery
Hepatic portal vein

190
Q

Where is attached to the greater curvature of the stomach

A

Greater omentum

191
Q

Describe the position and folding of the greater omentum in the peritoneal cavity

A

It hangs down like and apron and then folds back on itself meaning there are 4 layers. The posterior 2 layers go on to enclose the transverse colon and then form the parietal peritoneum of the posterior abdominal wall

192
Q

What is it called when the peritoneal cavity becomes distended by fluid

A

Ascites

193
Q

When a patient in a supine, lying down, position, where might fluid collect in the abdomen

A

In the right retohepatic space

194
Q

What embryological structure forms the liagmentum trees

A

The umbilical vein

195
Q

Which structure surround the epiploic foramen

A

Anteriorly - lesser omentum
Posteriorly - IVC
Inferiorly - deuodenum
Superiorly - caudate lobe of liver

196
Q

What connects the jejunum to the posterior abdominal wall

A

Small intestine mesentery

197
Q

What party’s of the large intestine are intrapertioneal

A

The transverse and sigmoid colon

198
Q

Define lesser sac

A

A peritoneal sac that lies posteriorly to the stomach and lesser omentum. It communicates with the greater sac through the epiploic foramen

199
Q

What lies in the free border of the lesser omentum

A

The hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein and common bile duct

200
Q

Which structure like posteriorly to the stomach

A

Pancreas, diagram, splenic artery and vein

201
Q

Name 4 main regions of stomach

A
  1. Cardia
  2. Fundus
  3. Body
  4. Pylorus
202
Q

What vertebral levels does the stomach lie between

A

T7 to L3

203
Q

What are the folds of the internal stomach surface called

A

Rugae

204
Q

Name the 2 sphincters of the stomach

A
  1. Inferior oesophageal sphincter

2. Pyloric sphincter

205
Q

Which sphincter of the stomach is physiological (contains no sphincteric muscle)

A

The inferior oesophageal sphincter

206
Q

What forces act on the inferior oesophageal sphincter

A
  1. The diaghraphm exerts a pressure on the hiatus
  2. The lumen is collapsed in the normal state
  3. The oesophageus enters the stomach at a right angle: when the stomach is full this is closed off
207
Q

What is the function of the pyloric sphincter

A

Controls the exit of chyme from the stomach

208
Q

What vertebral level is the coeliac trunk found

A

T12

209
Q

Where does the foregut begin and end

A

The mouth to the 2nd part of the duodenum (major duedeonal papilla)

210
Q

What is the blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach

A

The short gastric, and the right and left gastro-epiploic arteries

211
Q

What is the blood supply to the lesser curvature of the stomach

A

The left and right gastric arteries

212
Q

What is the right gastric artery a branch of

A

The proper hepatic artery which arises from the common hepatic artery from the coeliac trunk

213
Q

What is the right gastro-epiploic artery a branch of

A

It is the terminal branch of the gastroduodenal artery, this artery arises from the common hepatic artery which arises from the coeliac trunk

214
Q

What is the left gastro-epiploic artery a branch of

A

The splenic artery which arises from the coeliac trunk

215
Q

When vein does venous blood from the GI tract, liver and spleen drain into

A

The hepatic portal vein, goes to the liver

216
Q

What supplies sympathetic innervation to the stomach, foregut

A

The greater splanchnic nerve, T5-T9

217
Q

What supplies parasympathetic innervation to the stomach, foregut

A

The vagus nerve, Cn 10

218
Q

Is contraction of th stomach sphincters a sympathetic or parasympathetic action

A

Sympathetic, (parasympathetic = rest and digest)

219
Q

At what vertebral level does the oesophagus pass through the stomach

A

T10

220
Q

What structures pass through the diaphragm along side the oesophagus

A

Vagus nerves and the oesophageal arteries and veins

221
Q

What does the left gastric artery supply

A

The superior part of the lesser curvature of their stomach

222
Q

What structures lie anterior to the stomach

A

The anterior abdominal wall and the left lobe of the liver

223
Q

What nerve lies anterior to the abdominal oesophagus and which posterior

A

Left vagus - anterior
Right vagus - posterior
(LARP)

224
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the small intestine called

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejenum
  3. Ileum
225
Q

What is the principle function of the small intestine

A

Digestion and absorption of food

226
Q

What are the folds of mucosa inside the small intestine called

A

Plicae circulares

227
Q

What are Peyer’s patches

A

Large, sub-mucosal, lymph nodules

228
Q

Where in the small intestine would you find the Peyer’s patches

A

Ileum

229
Q

Is the duodenum intraperiotoneal or retroperitoneal

A

Retroperitoneal

230
Q

The first part of the duodenum is prone to the peptic ulceration. What artery can this affect

A

The gastric-duodenal artery. This artery lies in direct. Contact with the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum

231
Q

Would you describe the jejenum and ileum as intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal

A

Intraperitoneal

232
Q

Which parts of the small intestine can become twisted, resulted in strangulation and ischaemia

A

Jejenum and ileum

233
Q

Which has a thicker intestinal wall, the jejenum or the ileum

A

Jejenum

234
Q

Describe the 5 characteristics of the jejenum

A
  1. Thick intestinal wall
  2. Longer vasa reta
  3. Less arterial arcades
  4. Pronounced plicae circulares
  5. Red in colour
235
Q

Describe the 5 characteristics of the ileum

A
  1. Thin intestinal wall
  2. Shorter vasa recta
  3. More arterial arcades
  4. Peyer’s patches
  5. Pink in colour
236
Q

Where might you find Meckel’s diverticulum

A

1 metre from the termination of the ileum

237
Q

What is meckel’s doverticulum an embryonic remnant of

A

The attachment of the mid-gut to the front yolk sac

238
Q

Where does the mid-gut begin and end

A

3rd part of the duodenum to 2/3 along the transverse colon

239
Q

What is the blood supply to the midgut

A

Superior mesenteric artery (L1)

240
Q

What is the first branch of the SMA

A

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery

241
Q

Name 3 branches of the SMA

A
  1. Ileo-colic
  2. Right colic
  3. Middle colic
242
Q

What does the right colic artery supply

A

The ascending colon

243
Q

What does the middle colic artery supply

A

The transverse colon

244
Q

Into which vein does blood from the jejenum and ileum drain and what is the final destination of the blood

A

Drains into the superior mesenteric vein

This vein combines with the splenic vein to form the hepatic portal vein which then goes on to the liver

245
Q

Which foodstuffs are absorbed through the lymphatic system

A

Fats

246
Q

What is the innervation of the small intestines

A

Sympathetic: lesser splanchnic (T10-11)
Parasympathetic: vagus, no somatic innervation

247
Q

Name 4 mechanism that ensure a high surface area for the absorption of nutrients int he intestine

A
  1. Pliae cirularis
  2. Coiled length
  3. Villi
  4. Microvilli
248
Q

What is the main function of the large intestine

A

Water absorption and the formation of faeces

249
Q

State whether the caecum is intra or retroperitoneal and describe the blood supply and venous drainage

A

Intraperitoneal
Ileocolic
Ileocolic vein, drains into the superior mesenteric vein

250
Q

State whether the ascending colon is intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal and describe the blood supply and venous drainage

A

Retroperitoneal
Ileocolic and right colic arteries
Ileocolic and right colic veins

251
Q

State where the transverse colon is intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal and describe the blood supply and venous drainage

A

Intraperitoneal
Middle colic artery
Superior mesenteric artery

252
Q

State wither the descending colon is intra or retroperitoneal and describe the blood supply and venous drainage

A

Retroperitoneal
Left colic and superior sigmoid arteries
Inferior mesenteric vein

253
Q

State wither the sigmoid colon is intra or retroperitoneal and describe the blood supply and venous drainage

A

Intraperitoneal
Sigmoid arteries
Inferior mesenteric vein

254
Q

What si the marginal artery of Drummond

A

An artery that forms important anastomosis between SMA and IMA. It extends the length of the colon

255
Q

What vertebral level is the inferior mesenteric artery found at

A

L3

256
Q

Name 3 characteristic features of the large intestine that allow it to be distinguished from other abdominal organs

A
  1. Haustrations
  2. Tenia coli
  3. Appendices epiploicae
257
Q

What are appendices epiploicae

A

Small pouches of peritoneum filled with fat. They mark where blood vessels enter the bowel to supply the mucosa

258
Q

What are tenia coli

A

Three strips of longitudinally running muscle on the outer surface of the large intestine

259
Q

What are haustrations

A

Sacculations produced from where the tenia coli contract to shorten the wall of the bowel

260
Q

Where does the hind gut begin and end

A

Distal 1/3 of the transverse colon to the anal canal

261
Q

What is the innervation of the hind gut

A

Sympathetic - least splanchnic nerve, T12

Parasympathetic - S2-4, no somatic innervation

262
Q

What artery supplies the descending colon

A

The left colic artery

263
Q

What is the importance of the marginal artery of Drummon

A

If there is an occlusion to the IMA, blood can still be supplies to the large intestine via the SMA through this artery

264
Q

Give 4 locations where the distal end of the appendicex may lie

A
  1. In the pouch of Douglas
  2. Behind the caecum
  3. Behind the umbilicus
  4. Below the liver
265
Q

Name the intrapertioneal parts of the large intestine

A

Caecum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon

266
Q

Give 4 functions of the liver

A
  1. Synthesis of bile
  2. Glycogen storage
  3. Clotting factor production
  4. Detoxification of blood
267
Q

What is th liver and embryological derivative of and in which mesentery does it develop

A

Derivative of the foregut. Develops in the ventral mesentery

268
Q

What structures lie anterior to the liver

A

The rib cage and the anterior abdominal wall

269
Q

What structures lie superior to the liver

A

The diaphragm

270
Q

What structures lie posterior to the live

A

Oesophagus, stomach, gall bladder, first past of the duodenum, all are foregut derivative organs

271
Q

What aspects of the liver does the diaphragmatic surface refer to

A

The anterior superior aspects. This surface is smooth and convex

272
Q

What aspects if the liver does the visceral surface refer to

A

The posterioor inferior aspects, it is moulded by the shape of surrounding organs and so is irregular

273
Q

Name the 3 liver ligaments

A
  1. The falciform
  2. The right and left coronary
  3. The right and left triangular
274
Q

What is the function of the falciform ligament

A

To attach the liver to the anterior abdominal wall

275
Q

What is found in the free edge of the falciform ligament

A

The liagamentum trees, remnant of the umbilical vein

276
Q

What is the fucntion of the coronary and triangular ligaments

A

They attach the superior surface of the diaphragm to the liver

277
Q

Name the 4 lobes of the liver

A
  1. Right
  2. Left
  3. Caudate
  4. Quadrate
278
Q

What structrures bind the caudate lobe and where is it located

A

The IVC and a fossa produced by the ligamentum venosum. It is located on the upper aspect of the right lobe on the visceral surface

279
Q

What structures bind the Quadrate lobe and where is it located

A

The gall bladder and a fossa produced by the ligamentum tree. It is located on the lower aspect of the right lobe on the visceral surface

280
Q

What divides the liver into the right and left lobes

A

The falciform ligament

281
Q

What vein supplies the liver with deoxygenated blood

A

The hepatic portal vein

282
Q

What vein supplies the liver with oxygenated blood

A

The hepatic artery proper

283
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder

A

A temporary storage for bile

284
Q

What is the storage capacity of the gall bladder

A

30-50ml

285
Q

What are the three divisions of the gall bladder

A

Fundus, body, neck. The neck is where the gall bladder tapers and becomes continuous with the cystic duct

286
Q

Briefly describe the biliary tree

A

Left and right hepatic ducts = common hepatic duct
Common hepatic duct + cystic duct =. Common bile duct
Common bile duct + pancreatic duct = hepatopancreatic ampulla of Vater

287
Q

What is it called where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct meet

A

The hepatopancreatic ampulla of Vater

288
Q

What is the orifice called where the bile empties into the duodenum

A

The major duodenal papilla

289
Q

What sphincter regulated the emptying of bile into the duodenum

A

The sphincter of oddi

290
Q

What artery supplies blood to the gall bladder

A

The cystic artery

291
Q

Does parasympathetic or sympathetic innervation result in contraction of the gall bladder and the secretion of bile

A

Parasympathetic

292
Q

What is the arrangement anterior to posterior of the ducts artery and portal vein at the porta hepatis

A

Anterior: common bile duct, hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein

293
Q

What is Calot’s triangle

A

An anatomical space bounded by the inferior aspect of the liver superiorly, cystic duct laterally and common hepatic duct medially

294
Q

What is the cystic artery a branch of

A

The right hepatic artery - hepatic artery proper - common hepatic artery - coeliac trunk

295
Q

Where is the bare area of the liver

A

Under the tendinous part of the hemi-diaphragm, it has no peritoneal cavity

296
Q

What is the surface marking for the gall bladder

A

The tip of the 9th costal cartilage, where the lateral rectus sheath joins the costal margin

297
Q

Where do the hepatic veins drain

A

Into the IVC

298
Q

What are the three major branches of the coeliac trunk

A

The left gastric, the splenic and the common hepatic

299
Q

What does the left gastric artery supply

A

The lesser curvature of the stomach and the lower oesophagus

300
Q

What branches does the splenic artery give off

A

The short gastric arteries
The pancreatic arteries the left gastroeopiploic artery
5 branches just before it reaches the spleen

301
Q

What do the short gastric arteries supply

A

The greater curvature of the stomach

302
Q

What does the left gastroepiploic artery supply. What does it anastomoses with

A

It supplies the greater curvature of the stomach. It anastomoses with the right gastroepiplopic artery

303
Q

Name the 2 branches of the common hepatic artery

A
  1. Proper hepatic artery

2. Gastroduodenal

304
Q

Name the 2 branches of the gastrodeodenal

A
  1. Right gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach
  2. Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, supplies the head of pancreas
305
Q

Name three branches of the proper hepatic artery

A
  1. Right hepatic artery
  2. Left hepatic artery
  3. Right gastric artery
306
Q

What does the right gastric artery supply

A

The lesser curvature of the stomach

307
Q

What is a branch of the right hepatic artery

A

The cystic artery, supplies the gall bladder

308
Q

Name the 4 divisions of the duodenum

A
  1. Superior
  2. Descending
  3. Inferior
  4. Ascending
309
Q

Where in the duodenum are ulcers most likely, and which artery would they affect

A

Most likely in the superior duodenum, 1stv part. If the ulcers erode through the posterior wall they may effect the gastroduodenal artery and cause heaemorrhage

310
Q

What does the descending portion of the duodenum lie posteriorly and anteriorly to

A

Posteriorly to transverse colon, anteriorly to right kidney

311
Q

What vessels lie anteriorly to the inferior part of the duodenum, 3rd part

A

The superior mesenteric artery and vein

312
Q

Is the duodenum retro or intraperitoneal

A

The duodenal cap is intraperitoneal but the rest of the duodenum is retroperitoneal

313
Q

Is the pancreas intra or retroperitoneal

A

The tail is intrapertioneal but the rest of the pancreas is retroperitoneal

314
Q

Name the 5 parts of the pancreas

A
  1. The head
  2. The uncinate process
  3. The neck
  4. The body
  5. The tail
315
Q

What does the tail of the pancreas lie in close proximity to

A

The hilum of the spleen

316
Q

Why can disease of the pancreas spread to adjacent tissues

A

Because it isn’t contain within a capsule

317
Q

What is the blood supply to the head of the pancreas

A

The superior and inferior pancreaticoduodenal arteries

318
Q

What is the superior pancreaticoduoednal a branch of

A

The gastroduodenal

319
Q

What is the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery a branch of

A

The SMA

320
Q

What is the bloody supply to the rest of the pancreas

A

Pancreatic branches of the splenic artery

321
Q

What is the venous drainage of the pancreas

A

The head drains into the SMV, drains into the hepatic portal vein. The pancreatic veins drain the rest of the pancreas, these drain into the splenic vein.

322
Q

What is the function of the spleen

A

In an adult it functions mainly as a blood filter, removing old RBCs from circulation

323
Q

Is the spleen intra or retroperitoneal

A

Intraperitoneal

324
Q

What ligaments of the greater omentum connect the spleen to the stomach and the kidney

A

Gastrosplenic and splenorenal

325
Q

How far away is the major duodenal papilla from the pylorus of the stomach

A

5cm

326
Q

What is the embryological significance of the major duodenal papilla

A

It marks the junction between the foregut and the midgut

327
Q

What is the importance of the plicae circulares

A

They increase the intestinal SA available for absorption

Anatomy (Own Cards) (1 decks)

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