Tentafrågor Flashcards

1
Q

Encryption is one way to protect confidentiality.

A

True

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2
Q

The main security properties (CIA) are confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity.

A

False

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3
Q

Eavesdropping is an attack on integrity.

A

False

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4
Q

Authentication has two parts, identification (who is the subject, e.g., user id) and verification
(making sure they really are who they claim to be).

A

True

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5
Q

Authentication always requires proving that you know a secret, e.g., a password.

A

False

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6
Q

The reason for individual salts for hashing passwords is to compensate for different lengths of passwords, which would otherwise make them easier to guess.

A

False

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7
Q

With symmetric encryption, the sender and receiver use the exact same secret key.

A

True

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8
Q

For digital envelopes to work, the sender and receiver first need to agree on a shared key.

A

False

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9
Q

If Alice sends a message to Bob using public-key cryptography, Bob needs to have both his own private key and Alice’s public key to decrypt the message and be sure that it is from Alice.

A

True

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10
Q

Strong collision resistance means that a secure hash function withstands brute force attacks
to find a collision with a given hash value even from attackers with high computational power.

A

False

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11
Q

If the interpreter or JIT is correct, the usage of memory safe languages (like Java) prevents buffer overflows.

A

True

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12
Q

Functions check stack canaries (to be unmodified) just before they return.

A

True

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13
Q

Stack canaries can be used to detect all possible buffer overflows.

A

False

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14
Q

The main propagation strategy of a worm consists of exploiting vulnerabilities of remote
programs.

A

True

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15
Q

The main propagation strategy of a virus consists of exploiting vulnerabilities of remote programs.

A

False

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16
Q

An antivirus using generic description emulates the CPU, executes the virus in the interpreter, and waits that the virus decrypts itself to identify the malicious payload.

A

True

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17
Q

Flooding (non-distributed) attacks like ICMP flood require that the attacker has more band- width than the victim.

A

True

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18
Q

A successful DOS is a loss of confidentiality.

A

False

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19
Q

In a TCP/IP SYN spoof attack the attacker attempts to fill the TCP connection table of the
victim.

A

True

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20
Q

Guard pages are regions of virtual memory whose execution is forbidden, but writable accesses are permitted.

A

False

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21
Q

Address space randomization counters buffer overflows because it prevents an attacker from knowing the size of the buffers.

A

False

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22
Q

In case of executable address space protection, the heap is configured as writable and non- executable.

A

True

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23
Q

In multi-level security, users (subjects) have clearance levels and resources (objects) have classification levels. What a user with a specific clearance can do to a resource with a specific classification depends on the security model.

A

True

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24
Q

Discretionary access control means that it’s up to owner of a resource (e.g., a file) to decide whether an access request is checked.

A

False

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25
Q

Role-based access control assigns rights to roles and maps users to roles. Roles can be hierarchical.

A

True

26
Q

White listing will let less bad traffic through than blacklisting.

A

True

27
Q

The two main approaches to intrusion detection are signature based (meaning only install pro- grams that are authentic, e.g., checked the message digest or digital signature) and anomaly based (meaning using a list of malicious programs that do not behave like normal programs and detecting if a program is on the list)

A

False

28
Q

DMZ (demilitarized zone) means that there is no firewall or intrusion detection system set up around it.

A

True

29
Q

A side-channel attack usually relies on a buffer overflow.

A

False

30
Q

Constant time programming is a programming technique guaranteeing that no condition of
branches and no index of array depend on secret information.

A

True

31
Q

Cache partitioning prevents an attacker to extract secret information by analyzing execution time of the victim (time-driven attacks).

A

False

32
Q

A side-channel attack is based on information gained from the execution of a system, for instance by measuring its execution time.

A

True

33
Q

The GDPR (general data protection regulation) has one set of rules for all EU countries and it even applies to companies outside the EU if they offer services in the EU.

A

True

34
Q

Purpose binding means that once a user (data subject) has consented to their data being analyzed and used by an organization or company (data controller , data processor) for a given purpose, they have no right to get their data deleted.

A

False

35
Q

Privacy concerns not only the data itself (e.g., contents of files or messages) but also metadata, meaning data about the data.

A

True

36
Q

One way to prevent SQL injection is to use parameterized queries.

A

True

37
Q

Cross-site scripting takes advantage of a user being authenticated for a session with a server
and makes it look like a transaction was initiated by the authenticated user.

A

False

38
Q

One of the OWASP Top 10 most critical web application security risks is broken access control. There are many ways to bypass access control, such as by manipulating things like the URL, request parameters or cookies.

A

True

39
Q

Social engineering exploits often positive human traits, not lack of intelligence.

A

True

40
Q

The security policy is best developed by one or two security experts, as users or managers usu- ally do not know enough about security and tend to increase the complexity of the document which in turn increases the probability of errors.

A

False

41
Q

An organizational security policy is a formal statement of rules by which people given access to the organization’s technology and information assets must abide.

A

True

42
Q

Blockchains rely on consensus (a majority must agree on something) and on proof of work (proving that one has dedicated processing power, although there are alternative proposals for proofs).

A

True

43
Q

DevOps security defines the set of options developers need to integrate into programs so that users can configure the program settings in a secure way.

A

False

44
Q

Mobile network security in 4G/5G is about securing the access to the radio network, all other functions, such as identity management, privacy, or confidentiality and integrity on the wired network (core network or Internet) are done by the application (banking, social networks, etc.).

A

False

45
Q

􏰀When some unauthorized entity reads my secret file, it is a violation of integrity.

A

False

46
Q

Availability is only threatened when a server is under a DoS attack. Preventing an individ-
ual person from accessing their account by, e.g., changing the password, does not qualify.

A

False

47
Q

The principle of least privilege means only those permissions that are needed to carry out the task should be granted, for example, do not grant write access to files that need only b􏰀e read. 􏰀

A

True

48
Q

The principle of complete mediation means that every single request for access is checked.

A

True

49
Q

Confidentiality means only authorized entities can read a resource.

A

True

50
Q

The principle of psychological acceptability means that if access to a resource, e.g., a file, is refused, the requesting user needs to be notified in a polite way or they could threaten the system.

A

False

51
Q

The GDPR is a recommendation for EU member countries for how to change their privacy laws from May 25, 2018.

A

False, not just recommendation

52
Q

The GDPR extends to all foreign companies processing data of EU residents. 􏰀

A

True

53
Q

􏰀
Important principles of the EU data protection directive 95/46/EC were data minimization,
anonymity, unlinkability, purpose specification, and purpose binding.

A

False, (anonymity, unlinkability)

54
Q

Privacy by Design is a set of principles that prioritizes privacy over security once a minimum
level of security is reached.

A

False (zero-sum)

55
Q

For privacy, data confidentiality is not enough; much information can be inferred from
metadata.

A

True

56
Q

Transparency-enhancing technologies include both tools that show what would happen
before an action is taken and those that show how data was handled after the fact.

A

True

57
Q

In discretionary access control, anyone who has access rights to a resource (e.g., a file) can
change the permissions to give access rights to others.

A

False

58
Q

Role based access rights follow the hierarchy of the organization, for example, if an employee
has access to file X, her manager also has access to file X, all the way up to the CEO.

A

False

59
Q

Mandatory access control means every access request is checked, whereas in discretionary
access control it is up to the administrator to decide which requests are checked.

A

False

60
Q

In mandatory access control, whether access is granted depends on the requested access (read, write, or execute), security levels of the subject (requester) and the object (requested resource), and the policy that says which level needs to be greater than or equal to the other.

A

True

61
Q

In discretionary access control, the owner of a resource (e.g., a file) can give access rights to others.

A

True

62
Q

In role-based access control, the user’s identity is not as important as what role they have at the moment. Users can have several roles and switch between them.

A

True