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AWS Practitioner Exam > Technology > Flashcards

Technology Flashcards

1
Q

What is EC2?

A

EC2 is a web service that provides resizeable compute capacity in the Cloud.

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2
Q

What are the storage options for EC2 instances?

A

The supported storage options are :
- Elastic Block Store (EBS)
- Elastic File System (EFS)
- Instance Store

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3
Q

What are the key attributes of EBS?

A

The key attributes of note for EBS are:

  • The data persists when the instance is not running
  • It is tied to one AZ
  • It can only be attached to 1 instance in the same AZ
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4
Q

What is EBS recommended for?

A

EBS is recommended for

  • Quickly accessible data
  • Running a database on an instance
  • Long-term data storage
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5
Q

What is EC2 instance store?

A

EC2 instance store is local storage that is physically attached to the host computer and cannot be removed.

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6
Q

What are the key attributes of EC2 instance store?

A

The key attributes of note for EC2 instance store are:

  • Storage on disks physically attached to an instance
  • Storage is temporary with the data being lost when the EC2 is stopped
  • EC2 instance store is fast with high I/O speeds
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7
Q

What is EC2 Instance Store recommended for?

A

EC2 instance stores are recommended for:

  • temporary storage data needs
  • data replicated across multiple instances
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8
Q

What are the key attributes of Elastic File System (EFS)?

A

The key attributes of note for EFS are:

  • It only supports the Linux file system
  • It is accessible across different AZ’s in the same region
  • It is more expensive than EBS
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9
Q

What is EFS recommended for?

A

EFS is recommended for:

  • Main directories for business-critical apps
  • Lift and shift existing enterprise apps
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10
Q

What are the steps in connecting to an EC2 using SSH?

A

The steps to connect to an EC2 using SSH are:

  • generate a key pair
  • use the private key to connect to the EC2 (public key)
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11
Q

When should you use On-Demand EC2 instances?

A

You should use on-demand instances when:

  • you care about low cost without upfront payment or long-term commitment
  • your applications have unpredictable workloads that can’t be interrupted
  • your applications are under development
  • your workloads will not run any longer than a year
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12
Q

When should you use Spot instances?

A

You should use Spot instances when:

  • you are not concerned about the start or stop time of your application
  • your workloads can be interrupted
  • your application is only feasible at very low compute prices
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13
Q

When should you use EC2 Reserved Instances?

A

You should use EC2 Reserved Instances when:

  • your application has a steady state usage and you can commit to 1 - 3 years
  • you can pay money upfront in order to receive a discount on on-demand prices
  • your application requires a capacity reservation(you need to sign a contract)
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14
Q

When should you use EC2 Dedicated Hosts?

A

You should use EC2 Dedicated Hosts when:

  • you want to bring your own server-bound software licences
  • you have regulatory or corporate compliance requirements around tenancy models
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15
Q

When should you use EC2 Savings Plans?

A

You should use EC2 Savings Plans when:

  • you want to lower your bill across multiple compute services.
  • you want the flexibility to change compute services, instance types, OS’s or regions
  • savings can be shared across various compute services like EC2, Fargate and Lambda
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16
Q

What are the methods to access an EC2 instance?

A

EC2 instances can be accessed by:
- AWS Management Console
- Secure Shell (SSH)
- EC2 Instance Connect (EIC)
- AWS Systems Manager

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17
Q

What is EC2 auto-scaling?

A

EC2 auto-scaling adds or replaces EC2 instances automatically across AZs based on need and changing demand.

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18
Q

A developer wants to be alerted when an EC2 running their application is approaching 100% CPU utilization. Which service helps the developer do this in an automated way?

A

CloudWatch can monitor the state of your AWS resources and can notify you when an EC2 is approaching 100% utilization

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19
Q

How would you create and manage access keys for users that need to access AWS services from the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)?

A

IAM allows you to create and manage access keys for an IAM user.

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20
Q

Under the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for the configuration of infrastructure devices?

A

AWS maintains the configuration of its infrastructure devices. Don’t forget AWS is responsible for its global infrastructure elements: Regions, edge locations, and Availability Zones.

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21
Q

What pillar of the Well-Architected Framework would include the use of information gathered through a workload process evaluation to drive adoption of new services or resources when they become available?

A

This Performance Efficiency pillar focuses on the effective use of resources to meet demand.

In this pillar, you would use the information gathered through the evaluation process to actively drive adoption of new services or resources. You would also define a process to improve workload performance, and you would need to stay up-to-date on new resources and services.

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22
Q

A customer has created an Administrators group in IAM containing 5 users. What does the customer attach to the group to ensure all the users have the needed administrative access?

A

IAM policies can be attached to a group to ensure all users in the group have the same access.

AWS even has a managed policy, Administrator Access, you can use.

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23
Q

Which is the most efficient AWS feature that allows a company to restrict IAM users from making changes to a common administrator IAM role created in all accounts in their organization?

A

Service control policies (SCPs) within AWS Organizations provides central governance and management for multiple accounts.

Organization SCPs allow you to create permissions guardrails that apply to all accounts within a given organization.

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24
Q

You need to set a number range of EC2 instances to be made available to handle the load for your application. Which AWS service should you use?

A

AWS Auto Scaling will ensure you have the optimal number of EC2 instances to handle your application’s load, based on rules you specify.

The other services mentioned can help distribute load amongst existing resources, but they do not have the ability by themselves to create new resources.

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25
Q

A company has designed a hybrid architecture and needs to connect its on-premises database to an application running on an EC2 instance in the AWS cloud using a fast, private, and secure manner. Which method allows the company to securely connect on-premises to the cloud?

A

Direct Connect is a private (bypasses the public internet), dedicated physical network connection from your on-premises data center to AWS. Since the connection is private, it is extremely fast.

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26
Q

When you upload an object to S3 storage, where will AWS keep it?

A

Any object uploaded to S3 is automatically stored in multiple Availability Zones in the Region in which it was uploaded.

This means that if any single AZ in a Region is experiencing issues, objects stored in S3 will still be available. Although objects in S3 can be made to be accessible globally, by default they are always stored in a redundant fashion in only the Region they were uploaded, ruling out the other answers

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27
Q

A customer has an on-premises 5-gigabyte Oracle database that needs to be migrated to AWS and converted to Aurora. The customer requires minimal downtime to the database. Which service is the best option for migration and conversion?

A

DMS supports homogeneous migrations like Oracle to Oracle and heterogeneous migrations like Oracle to Aurora, with minimal downtime.

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28
Q

A company is migrating its workloads to AWS. Which tool will help the company estimate their potential cloud bill and calculate their overall total cost of ownership (TCO) based on their current workloads?

A

The Pricing Calculator provides an estimate of AWS fees and charges. Since the company knows the workload details, the AWS Pricing Calculator can also help with calculating the total cost of ownership.

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29
Q

A company wants to ensure all AWS accounts in their environment conform to company-wide policies. Which services can help?

A

Organizations allows you to centrally manage multiple AWS accounts under 1 umbrella. You can allocate resources and apply policies across accounts.

Control Tower helps you ensure your accounts conform to company-wide policies. Control Tower actually sits on top of Organizations.

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30
Q

What is the Lambda pricing model?

A

Using Lambda you are charged based on the duration and number of requests.You have access to 1 million free Lambda calls each month.

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31
Q

When using Lambda, what are you responsible for ?

A

You are only responsible for your application code. AWS manages servers, coding environment, and language support

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32
Q

What is Lambda?

A

Lambda is a sever less compute service that lets you run code without managing servers.

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33
Q

What are the key features of Lambda?

A

The key features of Lambda are:

  • the support of popular programming languages such as Java, Powershell and Python
  • coding via IDEs or in the console
  • Lambda can execute in response to events
  • Lambda functions have a 15 minute timeout
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34
Q

What is Lambda?

A

Lambda is a serverless compute function that runs code in response to events and requests without managing servers

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35
Q

What is Fargate?

A

Fargate is a serverless compute engine for containers.

Fargate allows you to manage containers. It is serverless and scales automatically

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36
Q

What is Lightsail?

A

Lightsail is a service that allows you to quickly launch all the resources needed for small projects.

Lightsail enables the deployment of preconfigured applications such as WordPress websites and comes with a VM, a static IP, SSD based storage and more.

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37
Q

What is AWS Batch?

A

AWS Batch allows you to process large workloads in smaller chunks (or batches).

AWS Batch can run hundreds / thousands of smaller batch processing jobs and can dynamically provision instances based on volume.

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38
Q

What are S3 access logs used for?

A

S3 Access logs are used to track the access to your buckets and objects

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39
Q

Is S3 a global or regional service?

A

S3 is a regional service but bucket names must be globally unique

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40
Q

What is durability in regards to Data Accessibility and S3?

A

Durability means your objects are never lost or compromised.

Amazon S3 Standard is designed for 99.999999999% (11 9’s) of durability.

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41
Q

What is availability in regards to Data Accessibility and S3?

A

Availability means you can access your data quickly when you need it.

Amazon S3 Standard is designed for 99.99% availability.

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42
Q

What is S3 Standard recommended for?

A

S3 Standard is recommended for frequently accessed data

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43
Q

What is S3 Intelligent Tiering is recommended for?

A

S3 Intelligent Tiering is recommended for data with unknown or changing access patterns

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44
Q

What is S3 Infrequent Access (IA) recommended for?

A

S3 Infrequent Access is recommended for long-lived data that is not frequently accessed yet gives millisecond access when needed

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45
Q

What is S3 One Zone Infrequent Access (IA) recommended for?

A

S3 One Zone IA is recommended for re-creatable data, infrequently accessed with millisecond access but where availability and durability is not essential

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46
Q

What is S3 Glacier recommended for?

A

S3 Glacier is recommended for long term backups and cheaper storage options

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47
Q

What is S3 Glacier Deep Archive recommended for?

A

S3 Glacier Deep Archive is used for long-term data archival accessed once or twice a year, or retaining data for regulatory compliance needs.

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48
Q

What is S3 Outposts recommended for?

A

S3 Outposts is recommended for data that needs to be kept local or has demanding application performance needs.

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49
Q

What are 4 common real world usage scenarios for S3?

A

4 common real world usage scenarios include:

  • Static websites (deploy to S3 and distribute with Cloudfront)
  • Data archival ( store in S3 Glacier)
  • Analytics systems (store in S3 and use analytic services like Redshift and Athena)
  • Mobile applications (App users can upload to S3 buckets)
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50
Q

What is S3?

A

S3 is secure, durable and highly scaleable object storage.

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51
Q

What are the S3 tiers?

A

The S3 tiers are:

  • S3 standard
  • S3 IA (infrequently accessed)
  • S3 one zone IA -
    S3 intelligent tiering (moves objects around based on how you use/access your data)
  • S3 glacier
  • S3 glacier deep archive
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52
Q

What can you use to restrict bucket access?

A

You can restrict S3 bucket access in the following ways:

  • Bucket policies (that apply across the whole bucket)
  • Object policies (that apply to individual files)
  • IAM policies to users and groups
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53
Q

What is Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration?

A

S3 Transfer Acceleration improves content uploads and downloads to and from S3 buckets.

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54
Q

What are the benefits of S3 Transfer Acceleration?

A

S3 Transfer Acceleration provides:

  • improved speed in the transfer of files over long distances
  • enables customers worldwide to upload to a central bucket
  • uses CloudFront’s globally distributed edge locations
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55
Q

What is S3 versioning?

A

S3 versioning allows you to create multiple versions of your file in order to protect against accidental deletion or to use previous versions.

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56
Q

What are S3 access logs?

A

S3 access logs allow you to track the access to your buckets and objects.

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57
Q

What would you use to query historical data stored in S3 buckets as if they were relational dbs using SQL?

A

You would use Athena to query historical data in S3.

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58
Q

What is EBS?

A

EBS (Elastic Block Store) is a high-performance, block-storage service to store data on the cloud. It can be seen as a virtual hard disk in the Cloud.

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59
Q

How can you use an EBS volume to create an image?

A

You can take a snapshot of your volumes to create images to provision new EC2 instances.

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60
Q

What are EBS volumes?

A

EBS volumes are stores that are created from an Amazon EBS snapshot.

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61
Q

What is a key use case of EBS?

A

A use case maybe for large enterprise apps to use EBS to store self-managed relational and NoSQL databases. They may then run big data analytics engines against this information that work at lightning speed.

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62
Q

Does Block Storage contain metadata?

A

No, block storage contains no metadata. Object-based storage has metadata

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63
Q

When would you use EBS?

A

EBS’s biggest strengths are its reliable performance and flexibility.

It’s ideal for apps that need low latency with many IO operations like database servers. It’s scalable, so you can add extra block storage volumes without dropping performance.

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64
Q

What is EFS?

A

(EFS) is a fully managed and scalable NFS file system (for Linux) that can be mounted to EC2 instances and on-premises compute resources.

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65
Q

What is Storage Gateway?

A

Storage Gateway is a device used to transfer data from your on premise site to AWS Cloud-based storage to provide seamless integration.

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66
Q

What are the different types of Storage Gateways?

A

The different types of Storage Gateway are:

  • File Gateway
  • Volume Gateway
  • Tape Gateway
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67
Q

What is AWS Backup?

A

AWS Backup is a service that lets you manage data backups across multiple AWS Services.

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68
Q

To what does AWS Backup integrate?

A

AWS Backup integrates with EC2, EBS, EFS and more.

Backup plans can include both frequency of backup and retention period

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69
Q

What are 4 key attributes of CloudFront?

A

4 key attributes of CloudFront are:

  • makes content available globally or restricts it based on location
  • provides security features like DDoS protection and geo-restriction
  • speeds up delivery of static and dynamic web content
  • uses edge locations to cache content
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70
Q

What is a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

A

A CDN is a mechanism to deliver content quickly and efficiently based on geographic location.

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71
Q

What is latency?

A

Latency is the time it takes to respond to a request.

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72
Q

What does CloudFront do?

A

CloudFront:

  • makes content available globally or restricts it based on location
  • uses edge locations to cache content
  • speeds-up delivery of static and dynamic web content
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73
Q

What are 2 use cases for CloudFront in the real world?

A

2 use cases for CloudFront are:

  • S3 Static websites- Prevent attacks (can stop DDOS attacks)
  • IP address blocking (geo-restrictions prevents users in certain areas accessing content)
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74
Q

What is CloudFront?

A

CloudFront is a fast content delivery network (CDN) that delivers data and applications globally with low latency.

75
Q

What is Amazon Global Accelerator?

A

Global Accelerator sends your users through the AWS global network when accessing content, speeding up delivery.Global Accelerator provides low latency.

76
Q

What are the benefits of Global Accelerator?

A

Global Accelerator provides:

  • improved latency and availability of single-region applications
  • 60% performance boost
  • sending traffic through AWS infrastructure
  • re-routing of traffic to healthy available regional endpoints
77
Q

What is Route 53?

A

Route 53 is a DNS service that routes users to applications.

78
Q

Do your instances need public IP addresses in order to communicate with other services using a VPC endpoint?

A

An endpoint enables instances in your VPC to use their private IP addresses to communicate with resources in other services. Your instances do not require public IP addresses, and you do not need an Internet gateway, a NAT device, or a virtual private gateway in your VPC.

79
Q

What is a VPC?

A

A VPC is a Virtual Private Cloud - a virtual data centre where you can deploy your Cloud assets.

80
Q

What is AWS Direct Connect?

A

AWS Direct Connect is a cloud service solution that makes it easy to establish a dedicated network connection from your premises to AWS.

Using AWS Direct Connect, you create a private connection between AWS and your data centre, office, or colocation environment.

81
Q

What are the key features of Direct Connect?

A

Direct Connect provides:

  • a dedicated physical network connection
  • a means for data to travel over a private network
  • connects on premise and AWS
  • supports a hybrid model
82
Q

What is AWS VPN?

A

AWS VPN creates a secure connection between your internal networks and your AWS VPCs.

83
Q

What are the key features of AWS VPN?

A

AWS VPN provides:

  • connectivity between your on-premise data to AWS
  • similar features to Direct Connect but the data travels over the public internet
  • encrypted data
  • support for a hybrid model
84
Q

What is API Gateway?

A

An API Gateway is a mechanism to build and manage APIs.

85
Q

What is RDS?

A

RDS is Amazon Relational Database Service that makes it easy to launch and manage relational databases.

86
Q

What are the key features of RDS?

A

The key features of RDS are:

  • it supports popular database engines
  • AWS manages the databases with automated patching, backups and maintenance etc
  • it offers high availability and fault tolerance using multi-AZ deployment options
  • Read replicas can be used across regions to provide enhanced performance and durability.
87
Q

What is Amazon Aurora?

A

Amazon Aurora is a relation db compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL created by AWS.

88
Q

What are the key features of Aurora?

A

The key features of Aurora are:

  • it supports MySQL and PostgreSQL
  • it scales automatically while providing durability and high availability
  • its is 5x faster than normal MySQL and 3x faster than PostgreSQL
  • it is managed by RDS
89
Q

What is DynamoDB?

A

DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL key-value and document database

90
Q

What are the key features of Amazon DynamoDB?

A

The key features of DynamoDB are:

  • it is a NoSQL key-value database
  • it is non-relational
  • it is fully managed and serverless
  • it scales automatically to massive workloads and fast performance
91
Q

What is Amazon DocumentDB?

A

Amazon DocumentDB is a fully managed document database that supports MongoDB.

92
Q

What are the key features of DocumentDB?

A

The key features of DocumentDB are:

  • it is a document database
  • it is fully managed and serverless
  • it is MongoDB compatible
  • it is non-relational
93
Q

What is Amazon Elasticache?

A

Elasticache is a web service to deploy, operate and scale an in-memory cache in the Cloud.

The service improves the performance of web applications by retrieving information from managed in-memory caches, instead of relying entirely on slower disk-based databases

94
Q

What are the key features of Elasticache?

A

The key features of Elasticache are:

  • it is an in-memory datastore
  • it is compatible with Redis or Memcached engines
  • it offers high performance and low latency
95
Q

What is Amazon Neptune?

A

Amazon Neptune is a fully managed graph database that supports highly connected datasets.

96
Q

What are the key features of Neptune?

A

The key features of Neptune are:

  • it is a graph database service
  • it is fully managed and serverless
  • it supports highly connected datasets like social media networks
  • it is fast and reliable
97
Q

What is the best database to use to migrate an on-premise Oracle database to the cloud?

A

RDS is the best choice to migrate an on-premise Oracle db to the cloud

98
Q

What is the best database to use to migrate an on premise PostgreSQL database to the cloud?

A

Either RDS or Aurora are the best choices to migrate an on-premise postgreSQL db to the cloud

99
Q

What is the best database to use to alleviate database load for data that is accessed often?

A

Elasticache is the best choice to alleviate database load for data that is accessed often

100
Q

What is the best database to use to process large sets of user profiles and social interactions?

A

Neptune is the best choice to process large sets of user profiles and social interactions

101
Q

What is the best database to use for a NoSQL db fast enough to handle millions of requests per second?

A

DynamoDB is the best choice for a NoSQL db that can handle millions of requests a second

102
Q

What is the best database to use to operate MongoDB workloads at scale?

A

DocumentDB is the best choice to operate MongoDB workloads at scale

103
Q

What are the RDS supported database engines?

A

RDS supports:

  • Amazon Aurora
  • PostgreSQL
  • MySQL
  • MariaDB
  • Oracle
  • SQLServer
104
Q

What is Database Migration Service (DMS)?

A

DMS helps you to migrate databases to or from AWS.

105
Q

What are the key features of DMS?

A

The key features of DMS are:

  • it migrates on-premise dbs to AWS
  • it supports homogeneous and heterogeneous migrations
  • it provides continuous data replication
  • it has virtually no downtime
106
Q

What is server migration service (SMS)?

A

SMS allows you to migrate on-premise servers to AWS.

107
Q

What is the Snow Family?

A

The Snow family consists of SnowCone, Snowball and Snowball Edge, and SnowMobile

108
Q

What is SnowCone?

A

SnowCone is the smallest member of the data transport devices. It provides up to 8TB of storage and can be shipped offline or uploaded using DataSync.

109
Q

What are Snowball and Snowball Edge?

A

Snowball and Snowball Edge are petabyte scale data transport solutions. Snowball Edge also supports EC2 and Lambda

110
Q

What is Snowmobile?

A

Snowball is a multi-petabyte or exabyte scale transport solution on a truck. The data can be loaded into S3.

111
Q

What is AWS DataSync?

A

DataSync is used to move large amounts of data from on-premise to AWS. Replication can be done hourly, daily or weekly

112
Q

What is Amazon RedShift?

A

ARedshift is a fully managed petabyte scale data warehouse service in the cloud.Redshift allows you to perform business intelligence operations on historical data to answer business questions.

113
Q

When would you use RedShift?

A

You would use Redshift when you need to consolidate multiple data sources for reporting, or if you want to run a db that doesn’t require real-time transactional updates.

114
Q

What is Glue?

A

Glue is an ETL tool. It prepares your data for analytics.

Glue extracts the data from different data sources, transforms it, and then saves it in the data warehouse.

115
Q

What is Elastic MapReduce (EMR)?

A

Elastic MapReduce helps you to process large amounts of data.

EMR works with big data frameworks and allows you to analyse data with Hadoop.

116
Q

What is Data Pipeline?

A

Data Pipeline helps you move data between compute and storage services running on AWS or on-premise.

Data Pipeline moves data at specific intervals and on certain conditions and sends notification of success or failure

117
Q

What is QuickSight?

A

QuickSight helps you to visualise your data.

QuickSight lets you build interactive dashboards and embed them within your applications

118
Q

What would you use to analyse logs in near real time for application monitoring or fraud detection?

A

You would use Kinesis to analyse logs.

119
Q

What is Rekognition?

A

Recognition is a service that enables the automation of image and video analysis

120
Q

What is Comprehend?

A

Comprehend is a natural language processing service that finds relationships in text.

121
Q

What is Polly?

A

Polly is a service that turns text into speech

122
Q

What is SageMaker?

A

SageMaker is a service that helps you build, train and deploy machine learning models quickly.

123
Q

What is Translate?

A

Translate is a service that provides language translation

124
Q

What is Lex?

A

Lex is a service that lets you build conversational interfaces like chatbots.

125
Q

What is Cloud9?

A

Cloud9 allows you to write code in an IDE within your web browser.

126
Q

What is CodeCommit?

A

CodeCommit is a source control system for private GIT repos. It is a service similar to GIThub

127
Q

What is CodeBuild?

A

CodeBuild allows you to build and test your application source code

128
Q

What is CodeDeploy?

A

CodeDeploy manages the deployment of code to compute services in the cloud (EC2, Fargate and Lambda) or on-premises

129
Q

What is CodePipeline?

A

CodePipeline automates the software release process.

CodePipeline integrates with CodeCommit to retrieve source code, with CodeBuild to run builds and tests, and CodeDeploy to deploy the changes.

130
Q

What is X-Ray?

A

X-Ray helps you to debug production applications. For example by tracing calls to an RDS database

131
Q

What is CodeStar?

A

CodeStar helps developers work collaboratively on development projects.CodeStar can manage the development pipeline of CodeCommit, CodeBuild and CodeDeploy

132
Q

What is CloudFormation?

A

CloudFormation is a service that allows you to provision AWS resources using IaC

133
Q

What is Elastic Beanstalk?

A

Elastic Beanstalk allows you to deploy your web applications and web services to AWS.

For example, after you upload your Java code, Elastic Beanstalk deploys it and handles capacity provisioning, load balancing, and Auto Scaling. Elastic Beanstalk even monitors the health of your application.

Elastic Beanstalk deploys to the Cloud only, not on-premises.

134
Q

What is OpsWorks?

A

OpsWorks allows you to use Chef or Puppet to automate the config of your servers and deploy code.

OpsWorks allows you to define software installation scripts and automate configuration for your application servers. OpsWorks can deploy applications on-premises.

135
Q

What is loose coupling?

A

Coupling defines the interdependencies or connections between components of a system.

Loose coupling helps reduce the risk of cascading failures between components.

136
Q

What is Simple Queue Service (SQS)?

A

SQS is a message queuing service that allows you to build loosely coupled systems.

SQS works in a FIFO order

137
Q

What is Simple Notification Service (SNS)?

A

SNS allows you to send emails and text messages from your applications.

For example, you can have emails sent when a CPU utilisation goes above 80%. SNS works with CloudWatch when an alarm’s metric threshold is breached to send an email.

138
Q

What is Simple Email Service (SES)?

A

SES is an email service that allows you to send richly formatted HTML emails from your applications

139
Q

What is CloudWatch?

A

CloudWatch is a collection of services that help you to monitor and observe your Cloud resources.

140
Q

What is CloudTrail?

A

CloudTrail tracks user activity and API calls within your account. CloudTrail can:

  • log and retain account activity
  • identify which user made changes
  • track activity through the console, SDKs and CLI
  • detect unusual activity in your account
141
Q

What things can be tracked with CloudTrail?

A

CloudTrail can track:

  • user name
  • event time and name
  • IP address
  • access key
  • region
  • error code
142
Q

A developer deployed an application that consisted of 1 Lambda function, a DynamoDB table, and a firewall using Web Application Firewall (WAF) via the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI). When attempting to access the application’s resources via the AWS Management Console, the developer cannot find the Lambda function or DynamoDB table. What could be the problem?

A

The developer is probably in a different Region from where the resources were initially deployed.

Resources that aren’t global are typically deployed to a specific Region. Since Regions are isolated and resources aren’t automatically replicated across them, the developer needs to switch to the correct Region in order to find the resources.

143
Q

When considering common cloud computing models, which model is Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (AWS EC2) an example of?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

IaaS includes the fundamental building blocks that can be rented from AWS. AWS manages the infrastructure and provides you a virtual machine that you can use however you’d like to meet your business requirements.

144
Q

A company can provision a new EC2 instance at the click of a button, which reduces the time to make those resources available to their development team from weeks to just minutes. Which benefit of cloud computing does this demonstrate?

A

Increase speed and agility.

The cloud gives you increased speed and agility. All the services you have access to help you innovate faster, giving you speed to market.

145
Q

Microsoft has announced a new patch for its operating system. For a platform-as-a-service solution, who would be responsible for applying the patch?

A

AWS

The platform-as-a-service model removes the need for organizations to manage the underlying infrastructure (usually hardware and operating systems) and allows you to focus on the deployment and management of your applications.

146
Q

What are best practices when it comes to securing your AWS account?

A
  • Delete your root access keys.
  • Activate MFA on the root account
  • Create individual IAM users
  • Apply an IAM password policy
  • Use groups to assign permissions

The root user should only be used in emergencies, and therefore there should be no need to have root access keys which allow the root user programmatic access - any programmatic access should use something other than the root account.

147
Q

A popular company that sells products online just experienced a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack that consumed all available bandwidth on their network and didn’t allow legitimate requests to be processed.

Which AWS services can the company integrate and combine going forward to prevent future attacks?

A
  • Route 53
  • Web Application Firewall (WAF)
  • AWS Shield
  • CloudFront
148
Q

Which tool provides a view of the performance and availability of your AWS services based on your requirements?

A

AWS Personal Health Dashboard

AWS Personal Health Dashboard focuses on the performance and availability of your AWS services so you can respond accordingly.

149
Q

You have many database backups you need to store for an indefinite amount of time. If the backups are ever needed, they just need to be retrieved within 6 hours. What is the lowest cost solution for this scenario?

A

Amazon Glacier Flexible Retrieval

Amazon Glacier Flexible Retrieval (formerly Amazon S3 Glacier) provides the lowest cost option for long-term storage and is perfectly suited for this scenario. The backups would not need to be retrieved quickly, so Glacier Flexible Retrieval is the best option.

150
Q

A company has made the decision to migrate its internal on-premises data center to the cloud. Who can help the company plan and conduct the migration.

A

AWS Infrastructure Event Management

Infrastructure Event Management offers architecture guidance and operational support during the preparation and execution of planned events, such as shopping holidays, product launches, and migrations.

Consulting partner from the AWS Partner Network (APN)

Consulting partners offer professional services.

151
Q

A company would like to reduce operational overhead when operating AWS infrastructure. Which service can help them do this?

A

Managed Services helps you efficiently operate your AWS infrastructure and reduces operational risks and overhead.

152
Q

What is AWS Infrastructure Event Management?

A

AWS Infrastructure Event Management (IEM) offers architecture and scaling guidance and operational support during the preparation and execution of planned events, such as shopping holidays, product launches, and migrations.

153
Q

What is the difference between Professional Services and Managed Services?

A

Professional Services are used to help enterprise customers move to a cloud-based operating model whereas MS augments your internal staff to provide ongoing management of your infrastructure to reduce operational risks and overhead.

154
Q

What are the CloudWatch services?

A

The CloudWatch services consist of:

  • CloudWatch Metrics
  • CloudWatch Alarms
  • CloudWatch Logs
  • CloudWatch Events
155
Q

A company has an application with user bases in both Australia and Canada. The company has deployed their application to servers currently provisioned in the Canada (Central) Region. Unfortunately, Australian users are experiencing high latency and slow download times. How can the company reduce latency?

A

Provision resources to the Asia Pacific (Sydney) Region in Australia.

A multi-Region deployment solves the issue by deploying the application closest to the user base.

156
Q

A company has developed a popular online multiplayer gaming application. How can the company enhance its players’ online experience and improve overall application availability and reduce in-game latency?

A

Global Accelerator

Global Accelerator can improve the experience by routing player traffic along with the private AWS global network to the fastest instance of your application. Player traffic is not negatively impacted by internet congestion and local outages.

157
Q

An organization needs to run a MySQL relational database on AWS. They plan to hire their own database administrators to manage their databases, including taking backups, using replication, and clustering. Which option provides the customer the control and flexibility needed?

A

Install the MySQL database directly on an EC2 instance.

Installing the database directly to EC2 gives the customer complete control over the database and its management.

158
Q

What AWS Services are global?

A

The following services are global:

  • IAM
  • Organizations
  • CloudFront
  • Route53
  • Global Accelerator
  • Direct Connect
  • WAF
  • AWS Shield
159
Q

Does RDS provide DB patching?

A

Amazon RDS handles routine database tasks, such as provisioning, patching, backup, recovery, failure detection, and repair.

160
Q

A solutions architect is designing a new web application to be highly available. There are regulatory requirements that require multiple EC2 instances to be provisioned in the same geographic location. Where should the EC2 instances be placed?

A

Multiple Availability Zones

This solves the requirement for high availability and in the same geographic location.

161
Q

When you pay a subscription fee to a hosting company to serve your website on an instance you manage, which cloud computing model are you using?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

IaaS offers building blocks that can be rented. When you pay a web hosting fee, you’re using IaaS.

162
Q

Which of the following AWS services allows you to run complex analytic queries against petabytes of structured data, use sophisticated query optimization, has columnar storage on high-performance local disks, and has massively parallel query execution?

A

Redshift

Redshift allows you to run complex analytic queries against petabytes of structured data, using sophisticated query optimization, columnar storage on high-performance local disks, and massively parallel query execution.

163
Q

A development team wants to gain full observability into the health of their applications and instances in order to provide the best service level to users of their applications. Which services can help them monitor the health of their applications and instances?

A

Elastic Beanstalk

Elastic Beanstalk monitors application health via a health dashboard.

Elastic Load Balancing

Load balancers monitor the health of EC2 instances and route the traffic to only instances that are in a healthy state.

Route 53

Route 53 can be used to configure DNS health checks to route traffic to healthy endpoints or to monitor the health of your applications.

164
Q

What is the difference IaaS, PaaS and SaaS?

A

See diagram

165
Q

A telecommunications company has hired you as a consultant to develop a business case for moving its IT applications and infrastructure to AWS. The company’s leadership understands the agility value of the cloud, but the finance group is not interested in shifting capital expense to operating expense due to the company’s tax structure. What will you include in the business case to attempt to satisfy everyone at the company?

A

Suggest that the company make Reserved Instance purchases and capitalize them.

Many companies capitalize Reserved Instance purchases, especially those with 3-year terms

166
Q

A developer is trying to programmatically retrieve information from an EC2 instance such as public keys, IP address, and instance ID. From where can this information be retrieved?

A

Instance metadata

This type of data is stored in instance metadata.

167
Q

AWS Trusted Advisor provides checks and recommended actions. Which of the following is not one of those checks?

  • Unrestricted access for specific ports on EC2
  • Checks to determine if an administrative user is used instead of the root account
  • CloudFront content delivery optimization
  • Checks for usage more than 80% of the service limit
A

Checks to determine if an administrative user is used instead of the root account

This is not a check provided in Trusted Advisor.

168
Q

You have been tasked with going into the AWS company account and getting information on saving money, improving system performance and reliability, and closing security gaps. Which tool can you use to get this information?

A

AWS Trusted Advisor

Trusted Advisor provides real-time guidance to help you provision your resources following AWS best practices.

169
Q

You’ve been tasked with assessing your AWS infrastructure in terms of cost optimisation. Which AWS service would help with this task?

A

Trusted Advisor

AWS Trusted Advisor is an online tool that provides you with real-time guidance to help you provision your resources following AWS best practices.

170
Q

You are working with IAM and need to attach policies to users, groups, and roles. Which of the following will you be attaching these policies to?

  • Identities
  • Entities
  • Principals
A

Identities

Identities are the IAM resource objects that are used to identify and group. You can attach a policy to an IAM identity. These include users, groups, and roles.

171
Q

A company has a large number of S3 buckets and needs to manage and automate tasks on these buckets at one time. Which AWS feature can do this?

A

Resource groups

You can use resource groups to organize your AWS resources. Resource groups make it easier to manage and automate tasks on large numbers of resources at one time. This guide shows you how to create and manage AWS resource groups.

172
Q

Which term refers to the Identity and Access Management (IAM) resource objects that AWS uses for authentication?

A

Entities

IAM entities are the users (IAM users and federated users) and roles that are created and used for authentication.

173
Q

What is Outposts?

A

Outposts allows you to run cloud services in your internal data centre.

174
Q

What is Athena?

A

Athena is a query service at scale for Amazon S3.

175
Q

What is Kinesis?

A

Kinesis allows you to analyse data and video streams in real time.

176
Q

What are security groups?

A

Security group controls the traffic that is allowed to reach and leave the resources that it is associated with.

SGs act as virtual firewalls for individual instances, controlling inbound and outbound traffic.

177
Q

What are Network Access Control Lists (NACLs)?

A

Network ACL allows or denies specific inbound or outbound traffic at the subnet level. NACL acts as a firewall for subnets, controlling traffic flow in and out based on a set of rules. Use NACLs as an additional layer of security to your VPC.

178
Q

How can you use NACLs and Security Groups togethers?

A

Use NACLs to define broad traffic rules that you want to apply to every instance within a subnet, and then fine-tune the internet accessibility of specific instances by applying security groups.

179
Q

What are VPC Flow Logs used for?

A

VPC Flow Logs is a feature that enables you to capture information about the IP traffic going to and from network interfaces in your VPC. Use Flow Logs to monitor the IP traffic going to and from a VPC, subnet, or network interface. Flow log data can be published to CloudWatch Logs or S3.

Flow log data is collected outside of the path of your network traffic, and therefore does not affect network throughput or latency.

180
Q

What can VPC Flow Logs help with?

A

Flow logs can help you with:

  • Verify success or failure of the data flow.
  • Verify protocols and ports used to send the data.
  • Diagnosing overly restrictive security group rules.
  • Monitoring the traffic that is reaching your instance.
  • Determining the direction of the traffic to and from the network interfaces.
181
Q

What is a Network Access Analyzer?

A

Network Access Analyzer is a feature that identifies unintended network access to your resources in AWS VPC. Use Network Access Analyzer to specify your network access requirements and to identify potential network paths that do not meet your specified requirements.

182
Q

What is AWS PrivateLink?

A

AWS PrivateLink establishes private connectivity between VPC and supported AWS services, services hosted by other AWS accounts, and supported AWS Marketplace services. You do not need to use an internet gateway, NAT device, Direct Connect connection, or AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection to communicate with the service.

183
Q

How can you use AWS PrivateLink?

A

To use AWS PrivateLink, create a VPC endpoint in your VPC, specifying the name of the service and a subnet. This creates an elastic network interface in the subnet that serves as an entry point for traffic destined to the service.

You can create your own VPC endpoint service, powered by AWS PrivateLink and enable other AWS customers to access your service.

184
Q

What is AWS Web Application Firewall (WAF)?

A

AWS WAF is a managed web application firewall service that helps you protect your web applications at the application layer from common web exploits that could affect application availability, compromise security, and/or consume excessive resources.

Use WAF to filter any part of the web request, such as IP addresses, HTTP headers, HTTP body, or URI strings to block common attack patterns, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting.

AWS Practitioner Exam (5 decks)

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