Technician test 4+ Flashcards

1
Q

What should you do if another operator reports that your station’s 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted?
A. Change the batteries in your radio to a different type
B. Turn on the CTCSS tone
C. Ask the other operator to adjust his squelch control
D. Try moving a few feet or changing the direction of your antenna if possible, as reflections may be causing multi-path distortion
~~

A

D. Try moving a few feet or changing the direction of your antenna if possible, as reflections may be causing multi-path distortion

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2
Q

Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside buildings than VHF signals?
A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance
B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily penetrate the structure of buildings
C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF inside buildings
D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF antennas

A

B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily penetrate the structure of buildings

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3
Q
What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?
A. Flip-flopping
B. Picket fencing
C. Frequency shifting
D. Pulsing
A

B. Picket fencing

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4
Q

Which of the following is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals received by ionospheric reflection?
A. Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation
B. Interference from thunderstorms
C. Random combining of signals arriving via different paths
D. Intermodulation distortion

A

C. Random combining of signals arriving via different paths

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5
Q

What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple paths?
A. Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitting using FM
D. Error rates are likely to increase

A

D. Error rates are likely to increase

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6
Q
Which of the following effects might cause radio signals to be heard despite obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?
A. Knife-edge diffraction
B. Faraday rotation
C. Quantum tunneling 
D. Doppler shift
A

A. Knife-edge diffraction

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7
Q
What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
A. Tropospheric scatter
B. D layer refraction
C. F2 layer refraction
D. Faraday rotation
A

A. Tropospheric scatter

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8
Q

What causes tropospheric ducting?
A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
B. Sunspots and solar flares
C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere

A

D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere

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9
Q

What is the radio horizon?
A. The distance over which two stations can communicate by direct path
B. The distance from the ground to a horizontally mounted antenna
C. The farthest point you can see when standing at the base of your antenna tower
D. The shortest distance between two points on the Earth’s surface
~~

A

A. The distance over which two stations can communicate by direct path

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10
Q

Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations?
A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light
B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles
C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light
D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles

A

C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light

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11
Q
Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
A. The stratosphere
B. The troposphere
C. The ionosphere
D. The magnetosphere
A

C. The ionosphere

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12
Q

Why are direct (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage area?
A. They are too weak to go very far
B. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles
C. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere
D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and fade out
~~

A

C. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere

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13
Q

Which of the following might be happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances?
A. Signals are being reflected from outer space
B. Signals are arriving by sub-surface ducting
C. Signals are being reflected by lightning storms in your area
D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer

A

D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer

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14
Q

What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?
A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are common
B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted
C. These types of signals occur only during winter nighttime hours
D. These types of signals are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west

A

B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted

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15
Q
Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?
A. Backscatter
B. Sporadic E
C. D layer absorption
D. Gray-line propagation
A

B. Sporadic E

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16
Q
What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?
A. 10 meters
B. 6 meters
C. 2 meters
D. 70 cm
A

B. 6 meters

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17
Q

What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F layer?
A. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity
B. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of high sunspot activity
C. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of low sunspot activity
D. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of low sunspot activity

A

A. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity

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18
Q
Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
A. Six or ten meters
B. 23 centimeters
C. 70 centimeters or 1.25 meters
D. All of these choices are correct
A

A. Six or ten meters

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19
Q
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 5 dB
D. 10 dB
A

B. 3 dB

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20
Q
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
A. -1 dB
B. -3 dB
C. -6 dB
D. -9 dB
A

C. -6 dB

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21
Q
What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?
A. 10 dB
B. 12 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 28 dB
A

A. 10 dB

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22
Q

What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?
A. The modulation sidebands might become inverted
B. Signals could be significantly weaker
C. Signals have an echo effect on voices
D. Nothing significant will happen

A

B. Signals could be significantly weaker

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23
Q
What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?
A. Electromagnetic
B. Electrostatic
C. Surface acoustic
D. Magnetostrictive
A

A. Electromagnetic

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24
Q

Which of the following results from the fact that skip signals refracted from the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?
A. Digital modes are unusable
B. Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception
C. FM voice is unusable
D. Both the transmitting and receiving antennas must be of the same polarization

A

B. Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception

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25
Q

What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?
A. The orientation of the electric field
B. The orientation of the magnetic field
C. The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field
D. The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength

A

A. The orientation of the electric field

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26
Q
What are the two components of a radio wave?
A. AC and DC
B. Voltage and current
C. Electric and magnetic fields
D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation
A

C. Electric and magnetic fields

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27
Q
What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space?
A. Gravity waves
B. Sound waves
C. Radio waves
D. Pressure waves
A

C. Radio waves

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28
Q

Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas?
A. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the Earth
B. The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth
C. The phase is inverted
D. The phase is reversed

A

B. The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth

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29
Q

What is meant by the gain of an antenna?
A. The additional power that is added to the transmitter power
B. The additional power that is lost in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
C. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction when compared to a reference antenna
D. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna

A

C. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction when compared to a reference antenna

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30
Q
Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?
A. A VTVM
B. An antenna analyzer
C. A Q meter
D. A frequency counter
A

B. An antenna analyzer

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31
Q

Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable?
A. Carrying dc power from a vehicle battery to a mobile radio
B. Carrying RF signals between a radio and antenna
C. Securing masts, tubing, and other cylindrical objects on towers
D. Connecting data signals from a TNC to a computer

A

B. Carrying RF signals between a radio and antenna

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32
Q
What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations?
A. 8 ohms
B. 50 ohms
C. 600 ohms
D. 12 ohms
A

B. 50 ohms

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33
Q

Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?
A. It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations
B. It has less loss than any other type of feed line
C. It can handle more power than any other type of feed line
D. It is less expensive than any other types of feed line

A

A. It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations

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34
Q

What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?
A. The apparent SWR increases
B. The reflected power increases
C. The characteristic impedance increases
D. The loss increases
~~

A

D. The loss increases

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35
Q
Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?
A. 50-ohm flexible coax
B. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
C. Air-insulated hard line
D. 75-ohm flexible coax
A

C. Air-insulated hard line

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36
Q

What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?
A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line
B. The ratio of high to low impedance in a feed line
C. The transmitter efficiency ratio
D. An indication of the quality of your station’s ground connection

A

A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line

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37
Q
What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?
A. 2 to 1
B. 1 to 3
C. 1 to 1
D. 10 to 1
A

C. 1 to 1

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38
Q
What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?
A. 2 to 1
B. 1 to 2
C. 6 to 1
D. 10 to 1
A

A. 2 to 1

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39
Q
What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?
A. Loss of -4dB
B. Good impedance match
C. Gain of +4dB
D. Impedance mismatch
A

D. Impedance mismatch

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40
Q

Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?
A. To reduce television interference
B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses
C. To prolong antenna life
D. All of these choices are correct

A

B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses

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41
Q

What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings?
A. The transmitter is being modulated
B. A loose connection in an antenna or a feed line
C. The transmitter is being over-modulated
D. Interference from other stations is distorting your signal

A

B. A loose connection in an antenna or a feed line

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42
Q
Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface?
A. A ground wave antenna
B. A horizontally polarized antenna
C. A rhombic antenna
D. A vertically polarized antenna
A

B. A horizontally polarized antenna

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43
Q

What is a disadvantage of the “rubber duck” antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?
A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-sized antenna
B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal
C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will unravel very quickly
D. All of these choices are correct

A

A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-sized antenna

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44
Q

How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?
A. Lengthen it
B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires
C. Shorten it
D. Add capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires

A

C. Shorten it

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45
Q

What is a good reason not to use a “rubber duck” antenna inside your car?
A. Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is outside of the vehicle
B. It might cause your radio to overheat
C. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength
D. All of these choices are correct

A

A. Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is outside of the vehicle

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46
Q
What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?
A. 112
B. 50
C. 19
D. 12
A

C. 19

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47
Q
What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6 meter 1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna?
A. 6
B. 50
C. 112
D. 236
A

C. 112

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48
Q
In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space?
A. Equally in all directions
B. Off the ends of the antenna
C. Broadside to the antenna
D. In the direction of the feed line
A

C. Broadside to the antenna

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49
Q

What is a reason to use a properly mounted 5/8 wavelength antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?
A. It offers a lower angle of radiation and more gain than a 1/4 wavelength antenna and usually provides improved coverage
B. It features a very high angle of radiation and is better for communicating via a repeater
C. The 5/8 wavelength antenna completely eliminates distortion caused by reflected signals
D. The 5/8 wavelength antenna offers a 10-times power gain over a 1/4 wavelength design

A

A. It offers a lower angle of radiation and more gain than a 1/4 wavelength antenna and usually provides improved coverage

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50
Q

Why are VHF or UHF mobile antennas often mounted in the center of the vehicle roof?
A. Roof mounts have the lowest possible SWR of any mounting configuration
B. Only roof mounting can guarantee a vertically polarized signal
C. A roof mounted antenna normally provides the most uniform radiation pattern
D. Roof mounted antennas are always the easiest to install

A

C. A roof mounted antenna normally provides the most uniform radiation pattern

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51
Q

Which of the following terms describes a type of loading when referring to an antenna?
A. Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer
B. Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
C. Installing a spring at the base of the antenna to absorb the effects of collisions with other objects
D. Making the antenna heavier so it will resist wind effects when in motion

A

A. Inserting an inductor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it electrically longer

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52
Q
What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?
A. Right-hand circular
B. Left-hand circular
C. Horizontal
D. Vertical
A

C. Horizontal

53
Q

When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
A. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater
C. Try the long path
D. Increase the antenna SWR

A

B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater

54
Q

What is a beam antenna?
A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam
C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals

A

C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction

55
Q
What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?
A. Non-resonant antennas
B. Loop antennas
C. Directional antennas
D. Isotropic antennas
A

C. Directional antennas

56
Q

Where should an in-line SWR meter be connected to monitor the standing wave ratio of the station antenna system?
A. In series with the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna
B. In series with the station’s ground
C. In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna
D. In series with the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio

A

A. In series with the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna

57
Q
What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feed line and antenna are properly matched?
A. Voltmeter
B. Ohmmeter
C. Iambic pentameter
D. Directional wattmeter
A

D. Directional wattmeter

58
Q
Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables?
A. Moisture contamination
B. Gamma rays
C. The velocity factor exceeds 1.0
D. Overloading
A

A. Moisture contamination

59
Q

Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket
C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing interference
D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable

A

D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable

60
Q

What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
A. It has more loss per foot
B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption
D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures

A

C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption

61
Q
Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?
A. Acid-core solder
B. Silver solder
C. Rosin-core solder
D. Aluminum solder
A

C. Rosin-core solder

62
Q
What is the characteristic appearance of a cold solder joint?
A. Dark black spots
B. A bright or shiny surface
C. A grainy or dull surface
D. A greenish tint
A

C. A grainy or dull surface

63
Q

What does an antenna tuner do?
A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver’s output impedance
B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used

A

A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver’s output impedance

64
Q
Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?
A. A UHF (PL-259/SO-239) connector
B. A Type N connector
C. An RS-213 connector
D. A DB-25 connector
A

B. A Type N connector

65
Q

Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?
A. They are preferred for microwave operation
B. They are water tight
C. They are commonly used at HF frequencies
D. They are a bayonet type connector

A

C. They are commonly used at HF frequencies

66
Q

Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?
A. To prevent an increase in feed line loss
B. To prevent interference to telephones
C. To keep the jacket from becoming loose
D. All of these choices are correct

A

A. To prevent an increase in feed line loss

67
Q

What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?
A. There is no significant difference between the two types
B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given frequency
C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency
D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels

A

C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency

68
Q

How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?
A. For logging contacts and contact information
B. For sending and/or receiving CW
C. For generating and decoding digital signals
D. All of these choices are correct

A

D. All of these choices are correct

69
Q
Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
A. The keypad or VFO knob
B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
C. The Automatic Frequency Control
D. All of these choices are correct
A

A. The keypad or VFO knob

70
Q

What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your transceiver?
A. Enable the CTCSS tones
B. Store the frequency in a memory channel
C. Disable the CTCSS tones
D. Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency

A

B. Store the frequency in a memory channel

71
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur transceivers?
A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector type
B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone
C. All transceivers using the same connector type are wired identically
D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be connected

A

B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone

72
Q

What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
A. The output power might be too high
B. The output signal might become distorted
C. The frequency might vary
D. The SWR might increase

A

B. The output signal might become distorted

73
Q

What is meant by term “PTT”?
A. Pre-transmission tuning to reduce transmitter harmonic emission
B. Precise tone transmissions used to limit repeater access to only certain signals
C. A primary transformer tuner use to match antennas
D. The push to talk function which switches between receive and transmit

A

D. The push to talk function which switches between receive and transmit

74
Q
What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
A. Talk louder into the microphone
B. Let the transceiver cool off
C. Change to a higher power level
D. Talk farther away from the microphone
A

D. Talk farther away from the microphone

75
Q

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests
B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter
C. To improve the radiation from your antenna
D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver

A

A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests

76
Q

What does a dummy load consist of?
A. A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch
B. A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink
C. A low voltage power supply and a DC relay
D. A 50 ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission line

A

B. A non-inductive resistor and a heat sink

77
Q
Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the amateur bands?
A. Straight Key
B. Electronic Keyer
C. Computer Keyboard
D. All of these choices are correct
A

D. All of these choices are correct

78
Q
Which of the following describes the muting of receiver audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an RF signal?
A. Tone squelch
B. Carrier squelch
C. CTCSS
D. Modulated carrier
A

B. Carrier squelch

79
Q

What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?
A. To set the highest level of volume desired
B. To set the transmitter power level
C. To adjust the automatic gain control
D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received

A

D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received

80
Q
Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
A. Change frequency slightly
B. Decrease the squelch setting
C. Turn on the noise blanker
D. Use the RIT control
A

C. Turn on the noise blanker

81
Q
Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low?
A. The AGC or limiter
B. The bandwidth selection
C. The tone squelch
D. The receiver RIT or clarifier
A

D. The receiver RIT or clarifier

82
Q
What does the term “RIT” mean?
A. Receiver Input Tone
B. Receiver Incremental Tuning
C. Rectifier Inverter Test
D. Remote Input Transmitter
A

B. Receiver Incremental Tuning

83
Q

What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies

A

B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode

84
Q
Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 2400 Hz
D. 5000 Hz
A

C. 2400 Hz

85
Q
Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 2400 Hz
D. 5000 Hz
A

A. 500 Hz

86
Q

What is the function of automatic gain control or AGC?
A. To keep received audio relatively constant
B. To protect an antenna from lightning
C. To eliminate RF on the station cabling
D. An asymmetric goniometer control used for antenna matching

A

A. To keep received audio relatively constant

87
Q
What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver?
A. A voltage divider
B. An RF power amplifier
C. An impedance network
D. All of these choices are correct
A

B. An RF power amplifier

88
Q
Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method?
A. Packet
B. PSK31
C. MFSK
D. All of these choices are correct
A

D. All of these choices are correct

89
Q

Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?
A. A check sum which permits error detection
B. A header which contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
C. Automatic repeat request in case of error
D. All of these choices are correct

A

D. All of these choices are correct

90
Q
What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?
A. Baudot
B. Hamming
C. International Morse
D. Gray
A

C. International Morse

91
Q

What is an ARQ transmission system?
A. A special transmission format limited to video signals
B. A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite
C. A digital scheme whereby the receiving station detects errors and sends a request to the sending station to retransmit the information
D. A method of compressing the data in a message so more information can be sent in a shorter time

A

C. A digital scheme whereby the receiving station detects errors and sends a request to the sending station to retransmit the information

92
Q
Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station?
A. Transmatch
B. Mixer
C. Terminal node controller
D. Antenna
A

C. Terminal node controller

93
Q

How is a computer’s sound card used when conducting digital communications using a computer?
A. The sound card communicates between the computer CPU and the video display
B. The sound card records the audio frequency for video display
C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received audio to digital form
D. All of these choices are correct

A

C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received audio to digital form

94
Q
What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the Internet?
A. A gateway
B. A repeater
C. A digipeater
D. A beacon
A

A. A gateway

95
Q
What does the term “APRS” mean?
A. Automatic Packet Reporting System
B. Associated Public Radio Station
C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up
D. Advanced Polar Radio System
A

A. Automatic Packet Reporting System

96
Q

Which of the following devices provides data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?
A. The vehicle speedometer
B. A WWV receiver
C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver
D. A Global Positioning System receiver

A

D. A Global Positioning System receiver

97
Q

Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?
A. Providing real time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations
B. Showing automatically the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval
C. Providing voice over Internet connection between repeaters
D. Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater

A

A. Providing real time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations

98
Q
What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
A. Pulse Shift Keying
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Packet Short Keying
D. Phased Slide Keying
A

B. Phase Shift Keying

99
Q

What is PSK31?
A. A high-rate data transmission mode
B. A method of reducing noise interference to FM signals
C. A method of compressing digital television signals
D. A low-rate data transmission mode

A

D. A low-rate data transmission mode

100
Q

Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications equipment?
A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits
B. A regulated power supply has FCC approval
C. A fuse or circuit breaker regulates the power
D. Power consumption is independent of load

A

A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits

101
Q
What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver’s receive audio?
A. The ignition system
B. The alternator
C. The electric fuel pump
D. Anti-lock braking system controllers
A

B. The alternator

102
Q

Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver’s power cable be connected?
A. At the battery or engine block ground strap
B. At the antenna mount
C. To any metal part of the vehicle
D. Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket

A

A. At the battery or engine block ground strap

103
Q

What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter?
A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window
B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high
C. You need to adjust your squelch control
D. Noise on the vehicle’s electrical system is being transmitted along with your speech audio

A

D. Noise on the vehicle’s electrical system is being transmitted along with your speech audio

104
Q
How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require?
A. About 12 volts
B. About 30 volts
C. About 120 volts
D. About 240 volts
A

A. About 12 volts

105
Q
What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?
A. Regulator
B. Oscillator
C. Filter
D. Phase inverter
A

A. Regulator

106
Q

What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station battery if the commercial power is out?
A. Cool the battery in ice for several hours
B. Add acid to the battery
C. Connect the battery in parallel with a vehicle’s battery and run the engine
D. All of these choices are correct

A

C. Connect the battery in parallel with a vehicle’s battery and run the engine

107
Q
Which of the following battery types is rechargeable?
A. Nickel-metal hydride
B. Lithium-ion
C. Lead-acid gel-cell
D. All of these choices are correct
A

D. All of these choices are correct

108
Q
Which of the following battery types is not rechargeable?
A. Nickel-cadmium
B. Carbon-zinc
C. Lead-acid 
D. Lithium-ion
A

B. Carbon-zinc

109
Q

What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?
A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere
B. Shock hazard due to high voltage
C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented
D. All of these choices are correct

A

C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented

110
Q

What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?
A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode
B. The voltage can become reversed
C. The memory effect will reduce the capacity of the battery
D. All of these choices are correct

A

A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode

111
Q
Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current flowing on the shield of a microphone cable?
A. Band-pass filter
B. Low-pass filter
C. Preamplifier
D. Ferrite choke
A

D. Ferrite choke

112
Q

Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions from your station?
A. Between the transmitter and the antenna
B. Between the receiver and the transmitter
C. At the station power supply
D. At the microphone

A

A. Between the transmitter and the antenna

113
Q

Which of the following is a common reason to use shielded wire?
A. To decrease the resistance of DC power connections
B. To increase the current carrying capability of the wire
C. To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire
D. To couple the wire to other signals

A

C. To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire

114
Q

What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?
A. The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band
B. The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up too high
C. The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded
D. The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low

A

A. The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band

115
Q
Which of the following may be a cause of radio frequency interference?
A. Fundamental overload
B. Harmonics
C. Spurious emissions
D. All of these choices are correct
A

D. All of these choices are correct

116
Q

Which of the following is a way to reduce or eliminate interference by an amateur transmitter to a nearby telephone?
A. Put a filter on the amateur transmitter
B. Reduce the microphone gain
C. Reduce the SWR on the transmitter transmission line
D. Put a RF filter on the telephone

A

D. Put a RF filter on the telephone

117
Q

How can overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?
A. Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
B. Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter
C. Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
D. Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode

A

A. Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver

118
Q

Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
A. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel
B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance
C. Tell them that your license gives you the right to transmit and nothing can be done to reduce the interference
D. Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated
~~

A

A. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel

119
Q
Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem?
A. Snap-on ferrite chokes
B. Low-pass and high-pass filters
C. Band-reject and band-pass filters
D. All of these choices are correct
A

D. All of these choices are correct

120
Q

What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?
A. Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device
B. Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that prohibit the use of devices which cause interference
C. Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice
D. All of these choices are correct

A

D. All of these choices are correct

121
Q

What is a Part 15 device?
A. An unlicensed device that may emit low powered radio signals on frequencies used by a licensed service
B. A type of amateur radio that can legally be used in the citizen’s band
C. A device for long distance communications using special codes sanctioned by the International Amateur Radio Union
D. A type of test set used to determine whether a transmitter is in compliance with FCC regulation 91.15

A

A. An unlicensed device that may emit low powered radio signals on frequencies used by a licensed service

122
Q

What might be the first step to resolve cable TV interference from your ham radio transmission?
A. Add a low pass filter to the TV antenna input
B. Add a high pass filter to the TV antenna input
C. Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input
D. Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly

A

D. Be sure all TV coaxial connectors are installed properly

123
Q
Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
A. Round stranded wire 
B. Round copper-clad steel wire
C. Twisted-pair cable
D. Flat strap
A

D. Flat strap

124
Q

What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?
A. Excessive SWR at the antenna connection
B. The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency
C. Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible transmissions
D. Frequent blowing of power supply fuses

A

C. Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible transmissions

125
Q
Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?
A. QRM
B. QRN
C. QTH
D. QSB
A

A. QRM

126
Q
Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?
A. QRU
B. QSY
C. QSL
D. QRZ
A

B. QSY

127
Q

What is a grid locator?
A. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location
B. A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation
C. An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier
D. An instrument for radio direction finding

A

A. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location

128
Q
What is the term used to describe an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?
A. Full duplex communication
B. Diplex communication
C. Simplex communication
D. Multiplex communication
A

C. Simplex communication

129
Q

Which of the following is true of the use of SSB phone in amateur bands above 50 MHz?
A. It is permitted only by holders of a General Class or higher license
B. It is permitted only on repeaters
C. It is permitted in at least some portion of all the amateur bands above 50 MHz
D. It is permitted only on when power is limited to no more than 100 watts

A

C. It is permitted in at least some portion of all the amateur bands above 50 MHz