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Technical Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What color are taxiway lead off lights?

A
  • alternating yellow and green
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2
Q

What color are the runway edge lights?

A
  • white, except on instrument runways in which the last 2,000 ft or half (whichever is less) are yellow
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3
Q

What are the standard minimum weather requirements for an alternate with a precision approach?

A
  • 600’ ceilings and 2 SM visibility
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4
Q

What are the IFR Fuel Requirements?

A
  • enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, an alternate, plus 45 minutes at normal cruise
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5
Q

In RVSM airspace how much space is required between aircraft?

A
  • 1,000 ft
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6
Q

When would you not need to file an alternate?

A
  • if the destination airport has an IAP and 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA the ceilings are forecast to be at least 2,000’ and the ceilings are at least 3 SM
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7
Q

What is LGTICCG on a METAR?

A
  • lightning in the cloud and cloud to ground
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8
Q

What protections do the MSA provide?

A
  • (minimum sector altitude) 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance for emergencies
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9
Q

What are non standard alternate weather minimums?

A
  • they are non-standard and are published in the alternate mins booklet
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10
Q

What are the speed limits for Class B, C, and D and their radius?

A
  • w/in B is 250 knots and under B is 200 knots
  • C/D is 200 knots when at/below 2,500’ AGL w/in 4 NM of the airport
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11
Q

What is mach tuck?

A
  • while the plane is flying level while at speeds in the transonic range, the nose of the airplane pitches down due to shockwaves forming over the wing
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12
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds?

A
  • from MHA through 6,000’ MSL is 200 knots, from 6,001’ MSL through 14,000’ MSL is 230 knots, and from 14,001’ MSL and above is 265 knots
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13
Q

What is the speed limit below 10 thousand feet?

A
  • 250 knots
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14
Q

What are Class A airspace dimensions?

A
  • FL180 up to FL600
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15
Q

You descend to DA , see the first two lights of ASLF2 lighting can you continue?

A
  • yes, but only down to 100’ above TDZE
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16
Q

Define CRM.

A
  • the effective use of all available resources to the flight crew to create a safe environment to operate the aircraft
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17
Q

What color are threshold lights?

A
  • green when landing, red when taking off
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18
Q

What if we arrived at our DH and only saw approach lights?

A
  • cannot descent below 100ft above TDZE unless have red terminating bars/ side bars in sight
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19
Q

What do the centerline lights on the runway look like at 3000, 2000, and 1000 ft remaining?

A
  • from 3,000’ to 1,000’ remaining they alternate red and white, the final 1,000’ are red
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20
Q

What airspace is above Class A?

A
  • E
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21
Q

What is Republic’s mission statement?

A
  • to provide a safe, clean, and reliable flying experience
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22
Q

What are Republic’s core values?

A
  • “BEST”
  • Be good stewards of your resources
  • Encourage a culture of fun and action
  • Strive for excellence in everything you do
  • Trust, respect, and care for eachother
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23
Q

If the weather falls below minimums before crossing the FAF, can you continue on the approach?

A
  • no
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24
Q

What color are high speed taxi-off lights?

A
  • green and yellow
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25
Q

When would you turn off autopilot while flying an approach?

A
  • no lower than 50 feet below the DH or MDA
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26
Q

What are stable approach criteria?

A
  • normal approach using normal maneuvers on the intended runway while maintaining a normal decent rate
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27
Q

What are the standard minimum weather requirements for an alternate with a non-precision approach?

A
  • 800’ ceilings and 2 SM visibility
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28
Q

What does UUA mean on a PIREP?

A
  • Urgent
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29
Q

Can we land at an airport with two whites and a green beacon?

A
  • if its an emergency, you get a clearance from tower, or if it’s a joint military/civilian base
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30
Q

What are the airport beacon colors?

A
  • white/green = civilian airport
  • white/yellow = seaport
  • white/white/green = military
  • white/yellow/green = heliport
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30
Q

Define an MEL.

A
  • a list of equipment submitted by the company and approved by the FAA
  • has all the equipment that can be inoperative before you initiate your flight if the item is properly differed; with the placards and all the appropriated procedures
  • Any item not mentioned on the MEL can not be deferred
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31
Q

How do you calculate VDP if its not depicted on chart?

A
  • HAT/300
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32
Q

What altitude is RVSM airspace?

A
  • FL290 through FL410
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33
Q

What does a distance remaining sign look like?

A
  • white numbers on a black background
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34
Q

What is the coffin corner?

A
  • while operating at a jet’s operating ceiling, the region where the stall speed and critical mach number are very close together
  • if you get too slow you will stall, if you get too fast you will overspeed the airframe
  • happens b/c when you gain altitude your true stall speed increases and your true airspeed to MMO decreases
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35
Q

What is the FAF on a precision approach?

A
  • glide slope intercept at the lowest published intercept altitude
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36
Q

What is induced drag?

A
  • a byproduct of lift due to an area of low pressure on top of the wing
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37
Q

You are inbound for an approach at 8,000 ft MSL and the approach starts at 2,000 ft MSL, when can you descend?

A
  • when cleared for the approach and established on a published portion of the approach.
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38
Q

If you’re rolling down the runway and edge lights become yellow, what does that mean?

A
  • caution, you are approaching the end of the runway
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39
Q

How do you pick an alternate?

A
  • close enough to be within range of fuel capacity after attempting to land at destination, has appropriate instrument approach options, yet far enough away to not be experiencing the same weather as the destination.
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40
Q

If the weather drops below minimums outside the fix can you continue?

A
  • no
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41
Q

If nothing is stated in the MEL, can we do the flight?

A
  • no
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42
Q

What are the differences between DA, DH, and MDA?

A
  • decision altitude (DA) is the lowest altitude (MSL) on an instrument approach where you decide whether to continue the approach or go missed
  • decision height (DH) is height above TDZE in AGL
  • minimum decent altitude (MDA) is the lowest altitude to which you are able to descend on a non precision approach if you have the requirements to land
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43
Q

If the weather at the departure airport is below landing minimums what do you need?

A
  • must have an alternate takeoff airport
  • aircraft having two engines. Not more than ONE hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
  • aircraft having three or more engines. Not more than TWO hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
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44
Q

Can you cross a runway without clearance from ground?

A
  • yes, if the tower is closed
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45
Q

What are enhanced centerline markings?

A
  • parallel line of yellow dashes on either side of the normal taxiway centerline for a maximum of 150 feet prior to a runway holding position marking
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46
Q

What are the different standard de-ice/anti-ice fluid types?

A
  • type 1: thinnest, orange color, shortest HOT due to blowing off at low airspeeds, no minimum rotation speed
  • type 2: added thickening agent allowing it to stick to the airplane for longer, clear color, 100 knot minimum rotation speed
  • type 3: added thickening agent but can blow off at a lower airspeed, yellow color, 60 knot minimum rotation speed
  • type 4: added thickening agent allowing it to stick to the airplane for longer, green color, longest HOT, 100 knot minimum rotation speed
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47
Q

What is a HOT?

A
  • the estimated time that deicing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the critical surfaces of an aircraft.
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48
Q

At what altitude do jet routes start?

A
  • FL180
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49
Q

What is V1?

A
  • critical engine failure speed or takeoff decision speed. It is the speed at which the pilot is to continue the takeoff in the event of an engine failure or other serious emergency.
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50
Q

If weather drops below mins when you’re inside the FAF can you continue?

A
  • yes
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51
Q

Where does the stall start on a swept back wing?

A
  • wing tips
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52
Q

What is required to enter class A?

A
  • two way radio communication, IFR flight plan, ADB-out XPDR
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53
Q

Can we stay at the MDA after the VDP to try to land?

A
  • yes, you can stay at MDA until MAP, If you see the runway environment after the VDP and are still in a safe position to land you can continue to land
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54
Q

How do you make a plane stall without changing your airspeed/power setting?

A
  • accelerated stall
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55
Q

What does ARP stand for when referenced in MSA?

A
  • aerodrome reference point
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56
Q

What are localizer coverage limits?

A
  • 18nm within 10degrees of centerline, 10nm within 35 degrees of centerline
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57
Q

What is mach buffet?

A
  • it’s a vibration caused by reaching the critical mach number and it’s caused by the formation of a shockwave over the wings
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58
Q

When would a rotating beacon be on during the day?

A
  • visibility less than 3 SM and ceilings less than 1000’
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59
Q

What are the dangers associated with virga?

A
  • turbulence
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60
Q

Engine failure after V1 but before V2 what do you do?

A
  • continue the takeoff
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61
Q

What is a blast pad?

A
  • you may not taxi, take off or land on a blast pad unless it is an emergency, marked with yellow chevrons
  • protects area behind runway from jet blast
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62
Q

What equipment do you need for RVSM airspace?

A
  • two independent altitude measurement systems; an altitude alerting system and an automatic altitude control system
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63
Q

What is advection fog?

A
  • forms when moist air moves over an already cold surface. The air cools quickly at the surface, and the temperature reaches its dew point. As the air becomes saturated, it condenses into a low-lying cloud layer.
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64
Q

What is the max speed above 10,000ft?

A
  • mach 1
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65
Q

What class medical do you need?

A
  • 1st class medical
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66
Q

Where is the end of the touchdown zone on a runway?

A
  • after the first third or 3000 feet whichever is less.
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67
Q

What side do you deviate around a thunderstorm?

A
  • upwind side
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68
Q

What is the temp above if there are ice pellets on the surface?

A
  • freezing rain results from a temperature inversion. The temperature above is warmer than the temperature below. Ice pellets indicate freezing rain above
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69
Q

When does an aircraft provide the most wake turbulence?

A
  • heavy, clean, and slow
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70
Q

What wind conditions can influence wake turbulence the most?

A
  • slight quartering tailwind because it can push the vortices down the runway
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71
Q

What converts AC current to DC?

A
  • transformer rectifier unit (TRU)
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72
Q

What effects would moving weight out of the aft cargo to the forward cargo have on performance?

A
  • increased longitudinal stability, lower cruise speed, higher stall speed, better stall recovery
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73
Q

What rate of decent is required to maintain a 3 degree glide-slope if your ground-speed is 160KIAS?

A
  • 800 (GS x 5)
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74
Q

When will you see straight in mins for the LDA?

A
  • 30 degrees or less from the center line, and a descent from the MDA to the MAP using normal maneuvers.
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75
Q

What does A01 mean on a METAR?

A
  • automated station w/out precipitation discriminator
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76
Q

What does A02 mean on a METAR?

A

automated station w/ precipitation discriminator

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77
Q

What does CC mean on a METAR?

A
  • cloud to cloud
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78
Q

What does CA mean on a METAR?

A
  • cloud to air
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79
Q

What does OCLN mean on a METAR?

A
  • occasional
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80
Q

What does FRQ mean on a METAR

A
  • frequent
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81
Q

What does CONS mean on a METAR?

A
  • continuous
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82
Q

What does GR mean on a METAR?

A
  • hail
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83
Q

What does FU mean on a METAR?

A
  • smoke
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84
Q

What does TCU mean on a METAR?

A
  • towering cumulonimbus
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85
Q

What does PXXX (ex. P0003) mean on a METAR?

A
  • hourly precipitation amount in hundredths of inches
86
Q

What does SLPXXX (ex. SLP224) mean on a METAR?

A
  • sea level pressure in hPa, example would read 1,022.4 hPa
87
Q

What does CIG mean on a METAR?

A
  • ceiling
88
Q

What does PROBXX (ex. PROB40) mean on a TAF?

A
  • probability of an event occurring during a period of time
  • read as “a X% chance of”
89
Q

What does FMXXXX (ex. FM1600) mean on a TAF?

A
  • indicates a rapid change in conditions is to be expected, usually less than an hour
  • read as “after”
90
Q

What does BECMG (ex. BECMG 2224) mean on a TAF?

A
  • gradual change in conditions, usually 2 hours
  • read as “gradual change”
91
Q

What does TEMPO (ex. TEMPO 1316) mean on a TAF?

A
  • indicates a condition that will last less than an hour
  • read as “occasionally”
92
Q

Are METAR/TAF winds reported in true or magnetic?

A
  • true
93
Q

What is the coverage area of a TAF?

A
  • 5 SM radius from the center of the airport
94
Q

How often are TAF’s issued?

A
  • every 6 hours (4 times a day) w/ a forecast period of 24 to 30 hours
95
Q

What does 051212 mean on a TAF?

A
  • TAF valid time, it is valid from the 5th at 1200Z through the 6th at 1200Z
96
Q

What does 091050Z mean on a TAF?

A
  • date and time of origin, it was published on the 9th at 1050Z
97
Q

What does BC mean on a TAF?

A
  • patches
98
Q

What does BL mean on a TAF?

A
  • blowing
99
Q

What does FZ mean on a TAF?

A
  • freezing
100
Q

How does icing affect the aircraft, also what might we do on approach if we encounter icing?

A
  • icing changes the shape of the wing which in turn changes the lift and drag characteristics. We might have to fly a faster approach
101
Q

Why do we have a longer takeoff roll with a tail wind?

A
  • since the wind is coming from the tail there is not enough wind flow over the wings, creating a lack of lift, therefore more speed is needed to create the same amount of lift as if you had a headwind
102
Q

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a micro-burst, may expect a total shear across the micro-burst of?

A
  • 90 knots
103
Q

Describe a frontal passage.

A
  • occurs when a front passes over a point on the surface reflected by a change in temp/dew point, wind speed, and atmospheric pressure. Often accompanied by clouds and precipitation
104
Q

Explain density altitude.

A
  • pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature, it is the altitude the plane thinks it’s flying at
105
Q

What is V2?

A
  • takeoff safety speed, lowest airspeed following an engine failure that the plane can still safely climb
106
Q

If your plane doesn’t have V2, what speed do you fly?

A
  • Vyse
107
Q

Explain the different light gun signals.

A
  • steady green: air = cleared to land, ground = cleared for takeoff
  • flashing green: air = return for landing, ground = cleared for taxi
  • steady red: air = give way to other aircraft, ground = stop
  • flashing red: air = airport unsafe, ground = taxi clear of runway in use
  • flashing white: air = N/A, ground = return to starting point
  • alternating red/green: air/ground = exercise extreme caution
108
Q

What is a Lambert Conformal Conic Projection?

A
  • chart which makes a round earth appear flat
109
Q

What is the advantage of swept wing aircraft?

A
  • higher critical mach
110
Q

What is the disadvantage of swept wing aircraft?

A
  • worse low speed/stall handling characteristics
111
Q

What is L/D max?

A
  • greatest lift for least amount of drag
112
Q

In one word describe why you teach chandelles and lazy eights.

A
  • coordination
113
Q

What is the difference between light chop and light turbulence?

A
  • light chop is slight, rapid, rhythmic bumpiness but does not cause large changes in altitude and airspeed
  • light turbulence is a series of slight erratic changes in altitude and airspeed
114
Q

What does zero fuel weight mean, and why is it significant?

A
  • maximum weight of the aircraft w/ no fuel
  • important b/c it is a structural limitation
115
Q

What is PRM?

A
  • precision runway monitoring, allows for simultaneous approaches on parallel runways
116
Q

If ATC tells you to climb but RA says descend what would you do?

A
  • descend
117
Q

What is a Dutch Roll?

A
  • series of out-of-phase turns, the plane rolls in one direction but yaws in the other
118
Q

When is a beacon needed?

A
  • all operations day and night
119
Q

Where should an axe be stored?

A
  • somewhere inaccessible by the passengers
120
Q

If you inadvertently fly into fog, what will be your perception?

A
  • pitch up
121
Q

When you get out of ground effect will you increase parasitic or induced drag?

A
  • induced drag due to higher AOA
122
Q

What is clear air turbulence and where do you find it?

A
  • strong wind shears in the jet stream, found at altitude above 15,000’ MSL
123
Q

Define angle of attack.

A
  • angle between chord line and relative wind
124
Q

Explain the benefits of the dihedral wing design.

A
  • makes the airplane more laterally stable due to lower wing flying at a higher AOA
125
Q

What impact does using anti-ice/de-ice have on performance?

A
  • decreases performance
126
Q

When are shoulder straps required to be worn?

A
  • taxi, takeoffs, and landings
127
Q

What is virga?

A
  • precipitation that falls from a cloud but evaporates prior to reaching the ground
128
Q

How far out is local altimeter useable?

A
  • 100 NM
129
Q

What is the horizontal stabilizer for?

A
  • tail down force
130
Q

How far out is a localizer usable?

A
  • 18 NM
130
Q

What are the different intensities of turbulence?

A
  • light, moderate, severe, extreme
131
Q

How are minimums affected if we have lights inoperable?

A
  • higher
132
Q

What is critical mach?

A
  • the lowest airspeed at which the airflow over some part of the wing reaches the speed of sound but does not exceed it
133
Q

Where do jet engines perform best?

A
  • high altitudes
134
Q

What are a few reasons why you wouldn’t have to preform the Procedure Turn?

A
  • SHARPTT (Straight in, Hold, Arc, Radar Vectors, No PT, Teardrop, Timed Approach.
135
Q

What does an (R) mean next to approach frequency on a plate?

A
  • radar available
136
Q

What does a (D) mean next to ATIS, on an approach plate?

A
  • digital atis
137
Q

What is the standard temperature lapse rate?

A
  • standard is 2 °C per 1,000’
  • dry is 3 °C per 1,000’
138
Q

On Jepp approach plates are obstructions in AGL or MSL?

A
  • MSL
139
Q

How does colder temperature affect altitude?

A
  • “hot to cold, look out below”, altitude will be lower than indicated
140
Q

What does it mean on IAP when it says “coupled approach NA?

A
  • the approach cannot be flown with autopilot.
141
Q

When must you disconnect the autopilot if coupled approach is NA?

A
  • before the FAF
142
Q

In METAR remarks, what is “PLE06”

A
  • ice pellets ended at 0600Z
143
Q

What are the three types of AIRMETS and why each one is issued?

A
  • sierra = IFR or mountain obscurations
  • tango = moderate turbulence, surface winds greater than 30 knots, or low-level windshear
  • zulu = moderate icing
144
Q

What do you do (speed) if you start to experience turbulence?

A
  • reduce speed to below Va
145
Q

How does dihedral increase longitudinal stability?

A
  • causing the lower wing to fly at a higher angle of attack than the higher wing, which raises it back to level
146
Q

Which way does the horizontal stab produce lift?

A
  • down
147
Q

What is dihedral?

A
  • upward angle of the aircraft’s wings, the wind tips are higher than the wing roots
148
Q

What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?

A
  • dynamic, reverse rubber, viscous
149
Q

What is the solid black arrow on the plan view of the approach plate mean?

A
  • highest obstacle
150
Q

What would you need to do when descending from FL180 to 8,000ft?

A
  • set local altimeter setting, slow to below 250 knots
151
Q

Do we need an alternate if the ceiling is exactly 2000ft and visibility is 3sm?

A
  • no
152
Q

What is the purpose of leading edge slats?

A
  • reduces stall speed and improves handling at low airspeeds
153
Q

What is Vyse?

A
  • best rate of climb single engine
154
Q

Would you rather fly in a high pressure system or a low pressure system?

A
  • high
155
Q

How do you escape coffin corner?

A
  • descend to a lower altitude
156
Q

What is 121 max instruction time?

A
  • 8 hours
157
Q

What are 121 duty restrictions?

A
  • 8 hours per rest periods
  • 32 hours per 7 days
  • 100 hours per month
  • 1,000 hours in a calendar year
158
Q

What are the different approach categories?

A
  • category A = 90 knots or less
  • category B = 91 knots through 120 knots
  • category C = 121 knots through 140 knots
  • category D = 141 knots through 165 knots
  • category E = 166 knots or more
159
Q

If a pilot is flying a flying a plan that certified for category A, but is flying the approach at 130 knots, what category minimums should they use?

A
  • category C
160
Q

Explain how a turbofan engine works.

A
  1. a fan sucks air into the engine, this air is then directed into 2 parts of the engine: the core where combustion occurs and around the outside of the core through a duct called “bypass air”
  2. the compressor is the first part of the engine and compresses the air through a process called “axial flow”
  3. the compresses air is then mixed w/ fuel before entering the combuster
  4. the air then passes through the turbine, the hot high-speed air spins the turbine which spins the turbine
  5. the air exits the engine through the nozzle, by forcing high-speed air out the back this is what creates thrust (Newton’s 3rd law of motion)
161
Q

Explain how a piston engine works.

A
  1. intake - the engine mixes fuel/air in the intake manifold as the piston moves down
  2. compression - after the intake valve closes, the piston moves back up and compresses the mixture
  3. power - the spark plugs ignite the mixture, forcing the piston back down
  4. exhaust - as the piston moves back up, the exhaust valve opens and the exhaust gas exits the cylinder
162
Q

What does a “*” mean next to a ground frequency?

A
  • ground frequency operates part-time
163
Q

What does “BR” mean on a METAR?

A
  • mist
164
Q

What does “DU” mean on a METAR?

A
  • dust
165
Q

What does “PL” mean on a METAR?

A
  • ice pellets
166
Q

What does “SS” mean on a METAR?

A
  • sandstorm
167
Q

What does “VC” mean on a METAR?

A
  • in the vicinity
168
Q

What does “SP” mean on a METAR?

A
  • snow pellets
169
Q

What does “TCU” mean on a METAR?

A
  • towering cumulonimbus
170
Q

What does “TSNO” mean on a METAR?

A
  • thunderstorm information not available
171
Q

What does “VA” mean on a METAR?

A
  • volcanic ash
172
Q

What does “SW” mean on a METAR?

A
  • snow shower or southwest
173
Q

When can you descend below minimums on an approach?

A
  • if you see the white approach lighting system and nothing else = 100’ above TDZE
  • if you see the red terminating bars/red side bars or the runway environment = wheels on the pavement
174
Q

What is the difference between precision approach lighting and non-precision approach lighting?

A
  • precision = 2,400’ to 3,000’
  • non-precision = 1,400’ to 1,500’
175
Q

What are the takeoff minimums for part 121?

A
  • if 2 or less engines = 1 SM
  • if 3 or more engines = 1/2 SM
176
Q

What does “-RASN” mean on a TAF?

A
  • light rain and snow
177
Q

Explain RVR.

A
  • runway visual range, horizontal distance you can expect to see down the runway
  • when converting RVR values that fall between listed values, use higher value
178
Q

What is the transition altitude?

A
  • FL180, set altimeter to 29.92
179
Q

What does ALSF1 mean?

A
  • approach lighting system w/ sequenced flashing for CAT I ILS
180
Q

What does ALSF2 mean?

A
  • approach lighting system w/ sequenced flashing for CAT II ILS
181
Q

What does SSALR mean?

A
  • simplified short approach lighting system w/ runway alignment indicator lights
182
Q

What does SSALF mean?

A
  • simplified short approach lighting system w/ sequenced flashing lights
183
Q

What does MALSR mean?

A
  • medium intensity approach lighting system w/ runway alignment indicator lights
184
Q

How far are runway centerline lights spaced?

A
  • 50 feet
185
Q

Explain VASI.

A
  • visual approach slope indicator
  • visible from 3-5 NM out during the day and 20 NM out during night
  • provides safe obstruction clearance w/in 10° of centerline and 4 NM from the threshold, usually a 3° glideslope
186
Q

Explain PAPI.

A
  • precision approach path indicator
  • visible from 5 NM out during day and 20 NM out during night
  • provides safe obstruction clearance w/in 10° of centerline and 3.4 NM from the threshold, usually a 3° glideslope
187
Q

How far are runway edge lights spaced?

A
  • 200 feet
188
Q

Explain touchdown zone lights (TDZL).

A
  • solid white
  • 2 rows of light bars that run parallel to the runway centerline
  • start 100’ past the threshold to 3,000’ or halfway down the runway (whichever is less)
189
Q

Explain LAHSO lights.

A
  • row a pulsing white lights
  • installed at the “hold short” point on the runway
190
Q

What color are taxiway centerline lights?

A
  • steady green
191
Q

What color are clearance bar lights?

A
  • steady yellow
192
Q

What color are runway guard lights?

A
  • flashing yellow
193
Q

What color are stop bar lights?

A
  • solid red
194
Q

How far apart are runway centerline stripes?

A
  • 80 feet
195
Q

How long are centerline stripes?

A
  • 120 feet
196
Q

How long are the numbers?

A
  • 60 feet
197
Q

How long are the 1,000’ foot markers (aim point markers)?

A
  • 150 feet
198
Q

What do the dashed yellow lines mean on the sides of a taxiway centerline?

A
  • Enhanced centerline markings. Alert you that you are approaching a hold short line.
199
Q

What is the difference between a turbojet and a turbofan?

A
  • turbojet = all air goes that goes into the engine also goes through the combustion chamber
  • turbofan = some of the air that goes through the engine also goes into the combustion chamber, while the rest goes around the engine (by-pass air)
200
Q

What are the cons of dihedral wings?

A
  • increased drag and decreased roll rate
201
Q

Prior to every flight, the PIC must be familiar w/ what?

A
  • NWKRAFT
  • NOTAM’s
  • weather
  • known ATC delays
  • runway lengths
  • alternates
  • fuel requirements
  • takeoff and landing distances
202
Q

How far are touchdown zone markings spaced?

A
  • 500 feet
203
Q

When is an ILS critical area active?

A
  • wx is below 800’ ceilings or 2 SM visibility
204
Q

What is Vmc?

A
  • minimum controllable airspeed w/ the critical engine inoperative
205
Q

What is a compressor stall and when does happen?

A
  • type of stall on a turbine aircraft due to a disruption of airflow through the turbine
  • most often occurs due to a foreign object, icing, or operating outside the envelope
206
Q

What happens to the mach number as you climb?

A
  • the true airspeed to mach decreases
207
Q

When is a flight attendant required?

A
  • 20 or more passengers
208
Q

How would you recover from a compressor stall?

A
  • reduce throttle on the affected engine and reduce the AOA
209
Q

What determine the optimal cruising altitude for a jet aircraft?

A
  • OAT
210
Q

How wide is a localizer at the runway threshold?

A
  • 700’
211
Q

How early can you call clearance for a PDC?

A
  • 10 minutes

Republic (1 decks)

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