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Envoy Interview Prep > Technical Questions > Flashcards

Technical Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does the $ sign mean?

A

At end of weather sequence, $ maintenance required

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2
Q

What are the three types of icing?

A

Rime, clear and mixed - but also frost

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3
Q

What is required for a thunderstorm to form?

A
  1. Unstable air
  2. Moisture
  3. Lifting Action
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4
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A
  1. Cumulus
  2. Mature
  3. Dissipating
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5
Q

What is a critical engine?

A

The engine that when failed, most adversely affects the airplane.

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6
Q

What is V1?

A

“Decision Speed” - Speed where you decide if flight is to be continue if there’s an engine failure.

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7
Q

What is accelerate stop distance?

A

Distance required to accelerate to V1 with all engines at takeoff power, experience an engine failure at V1, and abort the takeoff and bring the airplane to a stop using only braking action without the use of reverse thrust. (If you say the definition of what V1 means, that will also be acceptable)

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8
Q

What are the dimensions of class D airspace?

A

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower

The FAA now only specifies an altitude limit on Class D airspace of 2,500 feet above the surface. The following is cut and pasted directly from the FAA AIM. 3-2-5. Class D Airspace a. Definition. Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures.

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9
Q

What are the dimensions of Class C?

A

5 NM radius core extends SFC-4,000AGL
10NM radius shelf extends 1,200-4,000AGL

Class C airspace is generally airspace from the surface to
4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL)
surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a surface area with a five NM radius, an outer circle with a ten NM radius that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.

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10
Q

What are the cloud clearances in B, C, D, and E airspace?

A

B - clear of clouds
C /D/E (below 10,000 MSL) - 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal
Remember “152”

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11
Q

What is the speed limit below 10,000’?

A

250 KIAS

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12
Q

Speed restriction in class B airspace?

A

There is NO speed restriction inside class B airspace, the only limitation is the 250KIAS restriction below 10,000MSL. At airports where the class B goes above 10,000, there is no speed restriction above 10,000 within the class B. Reference FAR 91.117

200 kts max in a VFR corridor through class B and below it’s lateral limits

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13
Q

Speed restriction in Class C airspace?

A

At or below 2,500 feet above the surface, within 4 nautical miles of the primary Class C or Class D airport, the speed limit is 200KIAS

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14
Q

Speed restriction in Class D airspace?

A

At or below 2,500 feet above the surface, within 4 nautical miles of the primary Class C or Class D airport, the speed limit is 200KIAS

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15
Q

What is the speed limit under class B or within 4nm and below 2500 in C or D airspace?

A

200 KIAS

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16
Q

IF you are in bravo airspace at 10,000 ft do you have to slow to 250kts?

A

Nope

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17
Q

What are the speed restrictions in Class B , under Class B , and at exactly 10,000’ msl ?

A 
In class B no speed restriction except for 250 under 10,000. 
Under Class B and Vfr corridor thru class b max speed 200 
At exactly 10000 no speed restriction other than below mach 1
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18
Q

What are the holding speeds at different altitudes?

A

At or below 6,000’ MSL - 200 KIAS
6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL - 230 KIAS
Above 14,001’ MSL - 265 KIAS

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19
Q

When is it required to have an FCC license?

A

When flying internationally

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20
Q

When must you notify the FAA of an address change?

A

30 days

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21
Q

What does ARROW stand for?

A

Airworthiness Certificate, Radio Station License, Registration Certificate, Operating Limitations, Weight and Balance (documents required to be in an aircraft by the FAA)

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22
Q

What are IFR fuel requirements?

A

Enough fuel to fly to the destination then to alternate then thereafter for 45 mins at normal cruise

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23
Q

How long do you have to notify the FAA if you move?

A

30 days

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24
Q

Where’s the airport beacon?

A

circle with a star in it on airport diagram

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25
Q

What is the black arrow mark on the airport diagram?

A

Tallest obstacle in the area

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26
Q

LAHSO on Jepps Airport Diagram

A

Solid black line perpendicular to runway where it wants you to hold short. LAHSO text in box

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27
Q

On a low-altitude enroute chart: If you are on V123 (on the 250 radial) what radial would you be on if you crossed over the VOR?

A

070

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28
Q

Identify and explain restricted areas

A

Identified as a blue (brown on Jepp charts) hatched area labeled with R before a number.

Often contain unusual and hazardous operations, like missile launches, air combat training, and artillery firing

You need permission from the controlling agency ahead of time before flying through it. On IFR flight plan, if the airspace is released to the FAA, ATC may vector you through it.

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29
Q

How can you tell if VOR has DME?

A

Indicated by small D to left of the frequency

Also, will be a scalloped circle inside compass rose

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30
Q

How wide is a Victor airway?

A

8nm - 4nm on either side of the airway

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31
Q

What is a green airport?

A

On Jepp charts - VFR only airports

On FAA charts - blue and green airports have an approved Low Altitude Instrument Approach Procedure published

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32
Q

What is a blue airport?

A

On Jepp Charts - IFR airports with published instrument approaches

On FAA Charts - specifically have a DOD Low Altitude Instrument Approach Procedure

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33
Q

What does CL RCLM mean?

A

CL = centerline lights; RCLM = runway centerline markings

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34
Q

What are MALSRs?

What lighting is associated with a MALSR?

A

medium intensity approach light system with runway alignment indicator lights

consisting of a combination of:

  1. threshold lamps
  2. steady burning light bars
  3. flashers

provides visual information to pilots on:

  1. runway alignment,
  2. height perception,
  3. roll guidance, and
  4. horizontal references for Category I Precision Approaches
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35
Q

This was coupled with 91.175. Showed me some white lights of an approach chart while covering up the rest, asked what I could do If I saw these.

A

When you’re flying an instrument approach, if you can see the white approach light system and nothing else, you can descend down to 100’ above touchdown zone elevation, regardless of the type of approach you’re flying (even if it’s a non-precision approach)

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36
Q

When do the runway edge lights change? What color are they?

A

The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

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37
Q

How is a displaced threshold depicted?

A

White arrows and followed by arrow head just prior to the solid white threshold bar

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38
Q

On an Jepp enroute chart what is the number before the T, example 2500T on an airway?

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.

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39
Q

What is the MOCA?

What do they look like on a chart?

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

Altitude followed by a T

The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.

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40
Q

3000T on a V airway in altitude what does the T mean?

A

MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude

The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.

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41
Q

What is the definition of a mountainous area?

A

Area of changing terrain profile where the changes of terrain elevation exceed 3000 ft within a distance of 10.0 NM

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42
Q

What is MORA?

What clearance does it provide?

A

Minimum Off Route Altitudes

Within 10nm on either side of airway, 1000ft clearance for altitudes below 5000ft, 2000ft for all terrain and obstacles > 5000ft

On Jeppesen charts, all MORA altitudes which are
6,000 feet or lower have an obstacle clearance of
1,000 feet. If the MORA altitudes are 7,000 feet
or greater, the obstacle clearance is 2,000 feet

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43
Q

What are the two types of MORA

A

Route MORA - 10nm on either side of airway

Grid MORA - provide obstacle clearance altitude within lat and long grid block (usually 1 degree x 1 degree)

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44
Q

If a MORA on a Jeppesen chart is 8000ft, how much terrain clearance does it provide?

A

2000ft

On Jeppesen charts, all MORA altitudes which are
6,000 feet or lower have an obstacle clearance of
1,000 feet. If the MORA altitudes are 7,000 feet
or greater, the obstacle clearance is 2,000 feet

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45
Q

What altitude are you guaranteed by MSA?

A

1000ft terrain clearance within 25nm of navaid

Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) is the lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 300 m (1 000 ft) above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (25 NM) radius centred on a radio aid to navigation

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46
Q

What is the LOC freq range?

A

108.10 to 111.95 (40 channels)

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47
Q

What is the VDP?

A

Visual Descent Point

Point at which normal descent can be made on non precision approach.

AIM definition: The VDP is a defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced

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48
Q

Rule of thumb for calculating VDP when one is not published

A

Take the AGL value of the MDA and divide it by 300.

For example, on the Crookston (KCKN) VOR/DME Approach to Runway 13, the lowest MDA takes you to 344 feet above the TDZE. Divide this by 300, and you’ll get 1.15, which is the approximate distance from the runway where you can start a 3-degree descent to the runway.

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49
Q

What is MAA?

How is it depicted on a chart?

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude

An MAA is a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment.

It is the highest altitude on a Federal airway, jet route, RNAV low or high route, or other direct route for which an MEA is designated. Adequate reception of navigation signals is assured.

Depiction: MAA-15000

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50
Q

Formula to convert celsius to fahrenheit

Fahrenheit to celsius

A

C * 1.8 +32 = F

(F-32) / 1.8 = C

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51
Q

How does radiation fog form?

What are the best conditions for it to form?

A

forms when the ground cools, subsequently cooling surrounding air to its dew-point. Tends to burn off in the morning as sun reheats the ground and air

clear skies, little to no wind, and high relative humidity

https://www.boldmethod.com/blog/lists/2021/03/these-six-types-of-fog-that-could-ruin-your-next-flight/

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52
Q
  1. How does advection fog form?

2. Where is it most commonly found?

A
  1. When moist air moves over cooler ground or water
  2. Along the coast, as sea breeze blows moist air over land.

This type of fog is very common in the Pacific Northwest, and is usually much more persistent than radiation fog

https://www.boldmethod.com/blog/lists/2021/03/these-six-types-of-fog-that-could-ruin-your-next-flight/

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53
Q
  1. How does upslope fog form?

2. What type of Airmet may be issued for this

A
  1. Moist, stable air moving up along terrain and cooling. Can extended hundreds of feet above surrounding terrain.
  2. It’s one common reason that an AIRMET Sierra may be issued.
    https: //www.boldmethod.com/blog/lists/2021/03/these-six-types-of-fog-that-could-ruin-your-next-flight/
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54
Q

How does evaporation fog form?

A

cold, stable air moves over a much warmer body of water. Evaporation from the warm body of water saturates the cold air above; water vapour condenses in the cold air producing “steam fog”

https://cloudatlas.wmo.int/en/evaporation-fog.html

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55
Q

How does frontal fog form?

A

Forms in frontal zones when rain falls from warm air into cold, stable air below.

In conditions of light wind, fog may form through evaporation of the raindrops saturating air near the ground.

https://cloudatlas.wmo.int/en/frontal-fog.html

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56
Q

Current aircraft systems

What type of engine

How does it work?

A

Pratt and Whitney PT6A-67P

Compressor section: draws air into the engine and compresses it before delivery to the
combustion chamber, supplying the required mass of air at the right pressure.

Compressed air and fuel are ignited and burned in the combustion chamber.

The power turbines turn the propeller shaft

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57
Q

Current aircraft systems

How does the gear work?

A 
Hydraulic: •Down:
•Main gear: pin locking mechanism inside the
hydraulic actuator for the main gear,
•Nose hear: over-center joint
•Up: hydraulic pressure

Electro-mechanical:
Locked down with over-center joints for ALL gear
• Held in the up position by a mechanical brake inside the
actuators

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58
Q

What is V2?

A

Takeoff safety speed

Minimum speed that needs to be maintained up to acceleration altitude, in the event of an engine failure after V1.

In case of engine failure, need to maintain V2 to ensure to pass the departure end of runway at 35ft and maintain V2 to ensure you are clear of obstacles in the departure sector

Flight at V2 ensures that the minimum required
climb gradient is achieved, and that the aircraft is controllable.

V2 speed is always greater than VMCA, and facilitates control of the aircraft in flight.

https: //skybrary.aero/bookshelf/books/493.pdf
https: //www.youtube.com/watch?v=7p8Pqna4t7c

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59
Q

What type of flaps on PC-12?

How do the flaps work on your current aircraft and how many degrees?

A

Slotted fowler flaps

Controlled by FCWU which also monitors for abnormalities. PDU (power drive unit) is a single motor that drives two flexible shafts out to the jack screws

0, 15, 30, 40

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60
Q

Define Altitudes of Class B airspace.

A

Class B airspace Altitude varies from one airport to another, but 10,000 msl and 20 NM are generally correct with a 30 mi mode C vail

61
Q

What’s the top altitude in the DFW Bravo?

A

10,000 in some places and 11,000 in others

62
Q

What is the speed limit below 10,000 in Mexico?

A

250 KIAS Below 10,000 AGL

https://www.ivao.aero/flightops/divprocedures.php?id=MX#:~:text=%EF%BF%BD%20Maximum%20speed
%20for%20VFR,KIAS%20within%20ALL%20Mexican%20Airspace.

63
Q

Brief this departure (NEYLN.5) using 36R

A

Make sure you read the text in the bottom of the departure first. I initially just looked at the plan view and used the furthest right runway (35R) which brought me around the opposite side of the airport. Take your time

64
Q

Departing Runway 36L using the NELYN FIVE departure what are the maximum altitudes and airspeeds you can fly until reach NELYN.

A

Climb heading 356 to intercept course 340 to GVINE then on course 262 to cross KMART at or above 5500 and at or below 240K, then on depicted route to NELYN, thence… Top Alt 10,000 ft max speed 250K.

Max altitude of 10,000’ until advised by ATC. Max speed of 240 KIAS until reaching KMART, then max speed of 250 KIAS until reaching 10,000’. Speed restriction of 250 KIAS applies BELOW 10,000’.

65
Q

How long are pilot certificates valid for?

A

Pilot certificates do not expire, and are valid if flight currency is maintained along with a current and appropriate medical certificate.

66
Q

Part 121 - when is a second alternate required?

What is the FAR?

A

A second alternate is required (FAR 121.619) when the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate are “marginal”

67
Q

What regulation determines the limitations between flying and alcohol consumption?

A

FAR 91.17

  1. Cannot be under the influence of alcohol
  2. taken a drink in 8 hours
  3. Or have a BAC of .04.
68
Q

What are flight time limitations for part 121 per day per week per month per year?

What is the FAR for this?

A

Day: 8
Week: 30
Month: 100
Year: 1000

FAR 121.471

69
Q

What are the crew rest requirements?

A 
121.471 (a): Flight Time Limitations
Day: 8 
Week: 30
Month: 100
Year: 1000

121.471(b): Rest Requirements in the preceding 24 hours:
9 hours for less than 8 hours of flight time
10 hours for 8.01-8.99 hours of scheduled flight time
11 hours for 9+ hours of scheduled flight time

70
Q

How long is a temporary FAA Certificate good for?

A

120 days (61.17)

Unless you lost your certificate and are requesting a new one. Then the temporary certificate issued is only good for 60 days (61.29)

71
Q

How long do you have to notify the FAA if you lose your certificates?

How long is that temporary certificate good for?

A

Immediately

Good for 60 days (61.29)

72
Q

Oxygen requirements for Part 91 unpressurized aircraft

A

91.211(a)
At or above (cabin pressure alt) 12500 - req min flight crew needs oxygen if flying for 30+ min

Above 14000 - req min crew needs to be on oxygen the entire duration

Above 15000 - Crew must be on oxygen and must provide pax with oxygen

73
Q

Oxygen requirements for Part 91 pressurized aircraft

A

91.211(b)
Above FL250: 10 min supply for everyone on board

Above FL350: At least one pilot wearing mask unless both pilots have quick donning masks that can be put on in less than 5 seconds

Above FL410: On pilot needs to don a mask

74
Q

If I leave the cockpit, and the flight attendant is occupying my seat, do you have to be on oxygen?

A

121.333(c)

If above FL410

75
Q

What is the 1-2-3 rule?

A

Requirements for filing an alternate. 1-2-3: 1hr before to 1hr after estimated time of arrival, the weather must be forecast to be 2000’ ceiling and 3SM vis.

This question was asked as when do you need an alternate using 1-2-3 rule.

76
Q

When is an alternate landing airport required? What is the FAR?

A

91.167

123 Rule

77
Q

When do you need a second alternate?

A

When the weather at the destination and first alternate are forecast to be marginal.

Also: if dispatched under OpsSpec Exemption 3585

78
Q

What is required for 5/5/5 at DFW

A

Review DFW takeoff mins

(2) DFW Airport info: For 5/5/5 you need CL and HIRL to be operative
(1) SMGS Chart and takeoff alternate. RVR reported as described in ops specs. Lighting as described in ops specs and as required by the 10-9 chart.
(1) Must have received special training also.

79
Q

When do you need a takeoff alternate? What is the FAR?

A

121.617

When weather at the airport is below landing mins. Must have alternate no more than 1 hour away based on cruising speed in still air with one engine inop

80
Q

Airport diagram

A

They asked me about the DFW diagram, asked another applicant about SFO. find them, print them off, study them. They asked me how I would taxi from point A to B with a certain wingspan(what frequencies, taxi ways, etc) they want you to read the diagram and figure out which ramp entires you can use. Just take your time.

81
Q

Height of the control tower?

A

Found this on airport diagram for SFO

82
Q

What is the zipper line on the airport diagram?

A

Boundary between the ground frequencies when you switch between them

Depict frequency change. In larger airports, they may use one frequency on the west side of the airport and a different frequency for the east side.

83
Q

Runway remaining after taxiway/intersection on Airport Diagram?

A

Back of airport diagram has distances for intersection departures.

Listed on taxi diagram for DFW

84
Q

KDFW 18R takeoff distance available

A

13,400’ is the full length available for takeoff.

85
Q

KDFW 18R landing distance available

A

13,400

86
Q

Soft field symbol on Jepp charts. It will be the letter (s) after the rwy length.

A

It says S next to rwy designator (?)

Could not verify this information

87
Q

Identify Class B, C, D airspace on the low enroute chart

A

On Jepp they are labeled - look at the altitude box

88
Q

Fly-over vs. fly-by waypoints

How is flyover depicted on chart?

A

Fly-over - you actually pass over waypoint before turning - circle around the waypoint

Fly-by - turn anticipation so you don’t the flightpath

89
Q

Tell me about Centerline Lights, and Standard Runway Lights.

A

Runway centerline lights are installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions.
Located along the runway centerline and spaced at 50-foot intervals.
When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway > alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet > the last 1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red.

Runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings

90
Q

When can you descend below the MDA on non-precision?

What is the FAR?

A
  1. 175 (1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing; (
    2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and
    (3) Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. (ii) The threshold. (iii) The threshold markings. (iv) The threshold lights. (v) The runway end identifier lights. (vi) The visual glideslope indicator. (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. (viii) The touchdown zone lights. (ix) The runway or runway markings. (x) The runway lights.
91
Q

What would you do if the Captain has passed out and is unresponsive at flight level 350?

A

Check if he just fell a sleep. Then put on an oxygen mask on myself, put one on him and have the passengers wear an oxygen mask, and declare an Emergency ( that is the answer the recruiter wanted)

I agree with all but, Why have passengers wear O2 masks? The plane is still pressurized. The captain is the only person that is unconscious. I would wear a mask per regulation because I am the only crew member at the controls at that time. Declare and emergency and descend to land as soon as practicable with EMS standing by. (June 19, 2021 - Justin Y.)

92
Q

You’re flying at FL210, then you have to descend to 11000 feet MSL within 25 NM. Now, you have to maintain ground speed 300 kts. How many feet per minute do you have to descend?

A

2000 ft/min

300kt / 60 = 5 nm per minute 5 mins to go 25nm 10,000 / 5 = 2000fpm

93
Q

How would you enter a hold given a specific scenario? (Make sure you specify Left or Right turns, How long of legs, and speed!)

How long are legs below 14000? Above 14000?

A

Left or right turns depending on their scenario, if they do not specify, then right turns.

1min legs below 14,000msl and 1min 30sec legs above 14,001msl.

Could also be 4nm legs if it’s a GPS hold.

And speeds are as follows (200kts below 6000ft, 230kts 6001ft to 14000ft, and 265kts 14001ft and above)

94
Q

What’s the lowest we can go to on a VOR approach? and what do we need to continue to land.

A

To MDA. Then you must have the three items listed under 91.175 to continue to descend.

95
Q

When are you established indbound?

A

(10) When the cdi come alive

(2) When you are part of an approach segment of the instrument procedure

96
Q

What happens if the RVR drops below mins inside the FAF?

A

You may continue the approach unless told not to do so

97
Q

What is more controlling, RVR or Vis in SM?

A

RVR

98
Q

You are at 21000 feet and ATC wants you to be at 11000 feet on Jacob Fix. Your Ground speed 300kt and you have to keep 2000 fpm rate. When you have to start to descend and how long it would take ?

A

10,000 feet to lose at 2,000 fpm is 5 minutes in the descent.
You’re covering 5 miles per minute. 5x5=25 miles out I’d start the descent.
I’d probably roll that VS at 25.5NM just to be safe though

99
Q

You are at FL350. Captain passes out, what do you do?

A

First and foremost, nudge the other pilot to see if there is a response. Secondly, since we are at FL35, I would don my oxygen as a precautionary measure. Continue to fly the aircraft and utilize my flight attendants to attend to the other pilot. You can also see if there is a medical professional on board to assist. Declare and emergency and divert to the closest place that can provide medical attention.

100
Q

What does Grid MORA Ensure?

A

1,000 feet of obstacle clearance was provided for the lower altitudes.

For all terrain and obstacles greater than 5,000 feet, an obstacle clearance of 2,000 feet

101
Q

What does MCA Ensure?

A

It ensures you are at a safe altitude before continuing on the airway. It is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA).

Will show a flag with an X at the waypoint

https://www.boldmethod.com/blog/lists/2021/02/you-should-know-these-ten-minimum-ifr-altitudes/

102
Q

When you get out to the plane, what five documents do you need?

A

ARROW

103
Q

What is the FAR for lost comm procedures?

A

91.185

104
Q

What is RVSM airspace? What does it give you?

A

(RVSM) is the reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying between FL290 (29,000 ft) and FL410 (41,000 ft) inclusive, from 2,000 feet to 1,000 feet. This therefore increases the number of aircraft that can safely fly in a particular volume of airspace.

105
Q

On a STAR are “expected altitudes, mandatory?

A

No. They are for planning purposes and are nt considered mandatory unless given in a clearance.

106
Q

How do you know how much runway is left during landing rollout?

A

Runway distance remaining signs

107
Q

Definition of mountainous terrain?

A

Area where terrain changes in excess of 3000ft within distance of 10nm.

https://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Flight_in_Mountainous_Terrain

108
Q

If you descend from FL290 to 11,000’ but don’t reset your altimeter how far off will it be?

A

Depends on the pressure, it would be 100 ft higher or lower by each .1 hg of difference.

109
Q

What is the difference between solid and dashed lines on a STAR?

How is MSA depicted?

A

Dashed lines depict the transition track

Red radius around the navaid on the plan view

110
Q

Identify change over point

A

The Z shape symbol in the middle of an airway that shows you when to switch navaids

111
Q

What is an MEA? Obstruction clearance?

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude. Guarantees 1000 ft obstacle clearance or 2000 ft in mountainous areas and adequate signal reception.

112
Q

What is Grid MORA? Obstruction clearance?

A

MORA stands for Minumum Off Route Altitude. It will provide 1000 feet of obstacle clearance in non-mountainess area, and 2000 feet obstacle clearance in mountainess area.

113
Q

How do you know? What if RVR is reported as 6-6-6, can we depart? What if it drops to 5-6-6? What if an RVR value isn’t reported put the others are 6 and 6, can we depart? If visibility is 1 mile and RVR is 1200 can we depart?

A

General rule for this one I learned from the interviewer. depending on the chart but most are: 2 RVR reporting is mandatory if you have all three, they are controlling. So if you need 6 -6 -6 and its 7-7-6 you’re ok. If it were 6 - 6 - 4, the 4 makes it unavailable. also if you have for example 6 -6- m, you’re still ok.

114
Q

The tire is damaged and thread is showing, the MEL says that you may still fly if the damage is within limits and it is just within limits. The Captain has an A&P and says it’s ok but is not in AE maintenance. Can we fly?

A

I said we should call maintenance and stood my ground on that answer. I think they’re looking for you to stand your ground with a decision because he kept pushing for me to change it.

115
Q

Is visibility or ceiling controlling for whether or not we can shoot an approach?

A

Visibility

116
Q

What would you do if you are at an outstation and the aircraft breaks an item on the MEL and the captain insists that it will be ok and just wants to get home and wants to continue the flight.

A

Look at MEL item together, determine is it A B C MEL item and what is needed to depart. Call maintenance because many MEL items must be signed off. If Captain still insists ask captain “Am I reading this wrong “ If so, best call Maintrol and ask them the question, advise ops of the delay. Captain can’t leave without you so stand your ground.

117
Q

How long is a first class medical good for?

A

12 calendar months < 40yrs 6 calendar months >40 yrs

118
Q

What equipment is required in RVSM?

A
  1. two independent altitude measurement systems (with ice protection),
  2. one transponder (with mode C),
  3. an altitude alerting system, and
  4. an automatic altitude control system.
  5. Altimeter error tolerance is 200ft apart.
119
Q

You are at 24000 and you need to be at 18000 by a certain waypoint. You are cruising at 400 kts. When do you need to start down and how fast is your vertical speed.

A

And its called the three two one rule because you times the altitude by three and divide airspeed by two and add one zero. Making it 18 miles and 2000 ft/min descent.

120
Q

Wx is reported 100’ OVC is that a problem?

A

no. Ceiling is not controlling.

121
Q

What is the Maltese Cross?

A

final approach fix for a non-precision approach

122
Q

Pointed to the beacon, windsock. What color would this beacon flash?

A

White then green

123
Q

What can you expect during departure at an airport with high density altitude?

A
  1. Reduced available thrust
  2. Longer takeoff roll
  3. Degraded climb performance
124
Q

How does density altitude affect your landing distance/airspeed?

A

Increases landing distance and TAS.

125
Q

Does high humidity help or hurt take-off performance?

A

Hurt
At high ambient temperatures, the atmosphere can retain a high water vapor content.

https://www.faasafety.gov/files/gslac/library/
documents/2011/Aug/56396/FAA%20P-8740-02%20DensityAltitude[hi-res]%20branded.pdf

126
Q

What is an MEL?

A

MEL stands for Minimum equipment list. It is a list designated to a company approved by the FAA listing equipment that is OK to be inoperative to continue a flight. Usually including steps to ensure safety and steps to ensure it is fixed in the near future.

127
Q

Interviewer pointed to the ARP on the airport diagram and asked what it was?

A

Airport reference point. It is the center point of an airport, where the GPS will take you if you go “Direct To” that airport

It’ll look like a circle with a cross or a black bar with ARP labeled above it.

128
Q

What color are the nav lights.

A

red located on the left and Green located on the right wing

129
Q

Pointed to point on the STAR and asked if I’m approaching … to cross at 20,000ft and you’re currently at 35,000ft at 300kts. What will your descent rate and distance be for descent?

A

3:1 means 15,000 ft X 3 = 45nm for a 3 degree descent angle. 300 kts (ground speed) means 5 nm per minute, so 9 minutes in the descent. 15,000 / 9 = 1666 ft/min. That’s low, since your ground speed is likely much higher than 300 kts at 35,000 ft. It doesn’t really matter though. If you have the correct descent angle and constant airspeed, the descent rate will take care of itself.

130
Q

Where can you find the distances between navaids on an enroute chart?

A

It will be the boxed number in the middle of the airway between navaids

131
Q

Are thrust reversers calculated into your stopping distance before V1?

A

No, since V1 assumes an engine failure most of the time, you cannot assume you have thrust reversers because the thrust would be assymetric and lead to control issues.

132
Q

What does a communication change over point look like on airport diagram?

A

It will be the line in the middle of the airport diagram that looks like a zipper. It will also be bold.

133
Q

On a Jepp enroute chart what is the number before the G ,example 2500G on an airway?

A

MEA on a gps only route

134
Q

If you want to descend from FL370 down to FL220 how far out do you start your descent?

A

3:1 rule, you have 15,000 feet to lose 15x3=45 so you would start your decent 45 miles from the waypoint

135
Q

With a 500knot GS what rate of descent do you use?

A

Gs(500)/2= 250 add a 0 to the end and you get 2500 fpm

136
Q

What is the star without a circle on a taxi diagram?

A

Obstacle beacon

137
Q

What are the three types of structural icing? Which one is the most dangerous?

A

Clear, Rime and Mixed Ice.

Clear is the most dangerous not only because is hard to see but because it can change the shape of airfoil

138
Q

What is a CDL?

A

Configuration Deviation List - Identifies any external part of an aircraft type that can be missing at the commence of a flight and the aircraft remains airworthy.

is a list, established by the organization responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Design, which identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction.

https://www.skybrary.aero/index.php/Configuration_Deviation_List

139
Q

Can a low visibility take-off be preformed with various RVR missing or below minima?

A

With 3, you can take off with one not reporting or missing and the other 2 become controlling. You are not legal to take off with any of them reporting below minimums

140
Q

Is an alternate required if the weather is forecasted to be exactly 2000’ ovc and 3sm vis?

A

No, only if less than

141
Q

Where are the nav lights?

A

Wings tips and Tail. Red on left wing, green on right wing. On the tail it’s a steady white light.

https://mediawiki.ivao.aero/index.php?title=Aeroplane_lights

142
Q

What does the T group mean on a METAR?

A

Specific temperature. T0032300103 temp 32.3 dew point 10.3

143
Q

If you do not have DME on a non precision approach, how do you determine when you have arrived at your MAP?

A

Use the timing method chart on the approach plate.

144
Q

Where is field elevation measured from?

A

The highest point of an airport’s usable RWY and is measured in height above MSL.

https://expertaviator.com/2011/05/20/what-is-field-elevation/

145
Q

What is FAR 91.175?

A

Refers to takeoff and landing under IFR conditions

146
Q

What is the 5** group on a METAR?

A

What is the 5** group on a METAR?

147
Q

What are the effects of icing?

A
  1. Reduces lift,
  2. increases drag,
  3. increases stall speed, and
  4. reduces control effectiveness
148
Q

How does an airfoil generate lift

A

high static pressure under wing than above

149
Q

What are the fuel requirements if a second alternate is required?

A

Fuel to destination, then to furthest alternate, then 45 min at cruise.

Envoy Interview Prep (3 decks)

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