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Ground school > Technical > Flashcards

Technical Flashcards

1
Q

‘TA Only’ mode is enabled automatically:

A

below 1,000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected.

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2
Q

A fast realignment should be complete in:

A

30 seconds

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3
Q

A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and prepares to return to the departure airfield. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew must:

A

take no action - the auto abort capability programs cabin to land at takeoff field elevation

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4
Q

A fluid leak develops in System A electric pump.

A

Fluid quantity in System A reservoir decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.

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5
Q

A fuel CONFIG alert is extinguished if:

A

Centre tank quantity less than 363kgs

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6
Q

A fuel CONFIG Alert remains displayed until:

A

Centre fuel tank quantity less than 363 kgs

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7
Q

A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed air ducting. This is indicated on the forward overhead panel by

A

left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light

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8
Q

A leak develops in the System A electric-driven pump; how does this affect the operation of the PTU?

A

The PTU will not function as all system pressure is lost

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9
Q

A leak in standby hydraulic system will cause system B fluid indication decrease, to approximately:

A

0.72

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10
Q

A leak occurs in the standby system - which statement is correct?

A

The LOW QUANTITY light will illuminate when the standby reservoir is approx half empty, the standby reservoir quantity will decrease to zero and the system B reservoir level will decrease to approx 72%

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11
Q

A Mach Trim System provides speed stability at airspeeds above:

A

Mach .615

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12
Q

A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display on the PFD indicates:

A

the speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged

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13
Q

A pack light illuminates, it does not extinguish on reset of the master caution recall. What could have been the cause of the alert?

A

A dual pack failure in which the pack will continue to operate until excessive temperature is sensed.

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14
Q

A single detector loop for an engine fails and the related OVHT/DET switch in the aft electronic panel is in the NORMAL position. What flight indications can you expect?

A

There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure with the OVHT/DET switch in NORMAL.

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15
Q

A TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND) has, alongside it, a down arrow and ‘- 07’. This means:

A

The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.

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16
Q

A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and ‘- 07’. This means:

A

The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm

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17
Q

Above 37,000 feet the pressurization controller maintains a pressure differential of:

A

8.35psid

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18
Q

Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage:

A

Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.

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19
Q

AFDS is engaged in Altitude hold and heading select. If the heading select switch on the MCP was pushed what would the FMAs d isplay?

A

MCP SPD/CWS R (in amber, below the FMA)/ALT HOLD.

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20
Q

After a flight director take off in TO/GA mode, using LNAV, what FMAs occur if the autopilot is engaged during the climb and above thrust reduction altitude?

A

N1/LNAV/MCP SPD

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21
Q

After a normal takeoff which F/D pitch command can you expect?

A

V2 plus 20kts

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22
Q

After a normal takeoff which pitch command can you expect?

A

V2 to V2+20kts

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23
Q

After a steady cruise at FL 370 you climb to FL 390 and reset the FLT ALT in the pressurization panel accordingly. What would you expect the cabin rate of climb indicator to indicate during the climb?

A

It will indicate a descent due to a scheduled change in differential pressure from 7.8 psi to 8.35 psi when selecting a FLT ALT above FL 370.

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24
Q

After autobraking has started, what pilot actions disarm the autobrake system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light?:

A

All of the above.

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25
Q

After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until

A

800 feet above field elevation

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26
Q

After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?

A

800 feet above Field Elevation.

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27
Q

After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?

A

60 seconds

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28
Q

After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change?

A

Blank, requiring reloading

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29
Q

After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?

A

Blank, requiring reloading

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30
Q

After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?

A

Blank, requiring reloading.

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31
Q

After the loss of all generators, two fully charghed batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of:

A

60 minutes

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32
Q

Air from the preconditioned ground source enters the air conditioning system through

A

The Mix Manifold

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33
Q

Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kg, of fuel in the No. 1 main tank and 3060 kg, of fuel in the No. 2 main tank. You will see:

A

an amber IMBAL indication below main tank No 1, fuel quantity arc and digits on tank also turn amber

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34
Q

Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No. 2. You will see:

A

An amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber

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35
Q

All TCAS alerts are inhibited:

A

By GPWS and windshear warnings.

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36
Q

All window heat switches are selected to the ON position. The green window heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. The most likely reason is:

A

The window is at the correct temperature

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37
Q

Alternate brakes are operated by:

A

system A

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38
Q

amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:

A

91 kgs

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39
Q

Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates

A

Failure of either primary or standby pack controller.

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40
Q

An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is and indication of:

A

The captain’s and first officer’s altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds.

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41
Q

An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates:

A

A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine.

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42
Q

An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicates:

A

The captains and first officer’s airspeeds disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 seconds.

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43
Q

An amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE annunciation on the ND indicates:

A

The selected range on the EFIS control panel is different from the map display range

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44
Q

An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD means:

A

The captains and first officers attitude display differ by more than 5 degrees in roll

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45
Q

An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ____ times the flow rate of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump.

A

6 times

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46
Q

An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:

A

Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve has closed

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47
Q

An OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the Navigation Display (ND). To view the TA or RA an appropriate action would be:

A

increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel

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48
Q

An OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic panel illuminates inflight - what does this mean?

A

The hydraulic fluid used to cool & lubricate the related electric-driven pump has overheated or the pump itself has overheated

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49
Q

Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport on the DEP/ARR page:

A

both origin and destination airport are available

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50
Q

As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?

A

GA : (blank) : TO/GA

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51
Q

At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout is:

A

PLUS HUNDRED

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52
Q

At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:

A

and the BUS TRANSFER switch returns to OFF (spring loaded).to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.

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53
Q

At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:

A

to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.

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54
Q

At the end of the start cycle the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates:

A

when the APU is ready to accept a bleed air or electrical load.

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55
Q

At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?

A

350 feet RA

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56
Q

At what approximate altitude will both A/P’s automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?

A

350 feet RA

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57
Q

At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?

A

Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40

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58
Q

ATT:RST displayed in amber on an ISFD means

A

Attitude must be reset using the ATTITUDE RESET switch

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59
Q

Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate?

A

Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM

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60
Q

Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when:

A

The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips

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61
Q

Autoslat operation is:

A

normally powered by hydraulic system B

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62
Q

Battery power is provided by:

A

Two 24 volt nickel–cadmium batteries, main and auxiliary, which are located in the electronics compartment.

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63
Q

Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until:

A

Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel.

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64
Q

Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:

A

DC bus 1 and DC bus 2

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65
Q

Choose the answer which best describes the operation of the engine bleed air valve when the engine bleed air switch is in the ON position.

A

The valve is DC activated and pressure operated.

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66
Q

Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft climbs to:

A

within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT

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67
Q

Current Mach number at the bottom of the airspeed indications tape on the PFD is displayed:

A

when airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above

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68
Q

Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within:

A

7.4M of the nose

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69
Q

Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:

A

Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane’s current altitude.

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70
Q

Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:

A

Terrain more than 2,000 Ft. above airplane altitude.

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71
Q

Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?

A

The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost.

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72
Q

During ‘TO/GA - Takeoff’ pitch mode, the AFDS commands

A

10 degrees nose down until 60kts IAS

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73
Q

During a battery start, when does the EEC become energised?

A

At 15% N2

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74
Q

During a normal engine start, which of the following statement is true?

A

only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD

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75
Q

During a single engine go-around, one push of a TO/GA switch

A

F/D roll commands hold current ground track

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76
Q

During alternate brake operation, the following protection is provided:

A

Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.

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77
Q

During an autopilot ILS approach:

A

at glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other

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78
Q

During an engine start , when the engine start lever is positioned to IDLE detent, which of the following statements is correct?

A

The SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes

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79
Q

During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means:

A

The aircraft has descended below the Captain’s selected minimum altitude (DA)

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80
Q

During an ILS approach, when the Radio Altimeter indication turns amber, this means

A

The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude minimums

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81
Q

During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?

A

50 feet.

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82
Q

During automatic landing the FLARE manoeuvre starts at approximately

A

50 feet RA

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83
Q

During cruise both centre tank fuel pumps have failed. There is still 460 kg in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit will show:

A

There will be no indication on CDS

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84
Q

During cruise the FMC Alerting Message ‘VERIFY POSITION’ indicates

A

position information is contradictory

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85
Q

During cruise you note both center tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. You will see:

A

There will be no indication on CDS

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86
Q

During descent, with engines at a low thrust setting

A

the high stage valve modulates open to maintain adequate bleed air pressure

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87
Q

During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE?

A

15 seconds

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88
Q

During engine start, if the EGT exceeds the starting limit, in what circumstances would the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?

A

on the ground only

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89
Q

During engine start, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?

A

When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only

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90
Q

During flight you get MASTER CAUTION > AIR COND > WING-BODY OVERHEAT. Is this resettable?

A

No

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91
Q

During gear retraction, if loose tread on a spinning main gear tyre impacts a fitting in the wheel well opening:

A

that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position. The affected gear cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced.

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92
Q

During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if:

A

both loop A and B are sensing a FIRE or OVHT

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93
Q

During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?

A

Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.

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94
Q

During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?

A

Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.

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95
Q

During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as

A

30 volts

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96
Q

During single pack operation with TRIM AIR selected OFF:

A

the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average demands of all three zones

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97
Q

During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, what should you do?

A

position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not takeoff if light remains illuminated

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98
Q

During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from

A

0° to 1100° C

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99
Q

During undercarriage retraction:

A

the brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels; snubbers stop rotation of the nose wheels.

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100
Q

During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:

A

The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF-INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate

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101
Q

During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:

A

VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots

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102
Q

During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:

A

VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots

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103
Q

Electrical power to start the APU comes from:-

A

No. 1 transfer bus or the airplane main battery.

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104
Q

Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:

A

airspeed and stabilizer position

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105
Q

Engaging LVL CHG descent mode

A

automatically engages the A/T in RETARD, and then ARM when thrust is at idle

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106
Q

Engine number 1 bleed switch is in the ON position but the engine is not running. Will the number 1 bleed air valve be open?

A

No

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107
Q

Engine oil pressure is in the amber band at take-off thrust. Which of the following is true?

A

Do not take-off

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108
Q

Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds:

A

40kt

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109
Q

Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds:

A

40 knots

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110
Q

Extending the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:

A

by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits

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111
Q

Extinguisher continuity can be tested by pushing and holding the

A

EXT TEST switch

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112
Q

F/D Go-around. If both autopilots are not engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is available under which of the following conditions?

A

Inflight below 2000ft RA, Inflight above 2000ft RA with flaps not up or G/S captured and not in takeoff mode

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113
Q

Failure of one temperature controller will be annunicated to the crew by

A

“Zone Temp” On Master Caution recall

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114
Q

Failure of two temperature controllers will be annunicated to the crew by

A

Illumination of the Master Caution

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115
Q

Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing:

A

only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires

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116
Q

Flight spoiler deflection is initiated on the down going wing when the control wheel is displaced more than approximately:

A

10 degrees

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117
Q

Flight spoilers are operated:

A

2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B

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118
Q

For ground service, a GROUND SERVICE SWITCH is located:

A

on forward attendant´s panel.

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119
Q

For ground servicing, a GROUND SERVICE Switch is placed:

A

on the Forward Attendant ́s panel

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120
Q

For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks?

A

453 Kgs.

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121
Q

For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?

A

453 Kgs

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122
Q

For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O’s on the ground is?

A

50 feet

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123
Q

From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs?

A

From the ADIRUs.

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124
Q

Fuel for the APU is normally (AC fuel pumps operating) supplied from:

A

The left side of the fuel manifold

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125
Q

Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:

A

Left side of the fuel manifold.

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126
Q

Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:

A

7 degrees.

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127
Q

How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?

A

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set.

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128
Q

How can TOGA be selected for takeoff if both flight directors are OFF?

A

Pressing TOGA after 80 knots and before 150 seconds after lift off.

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129
Q

How can VNAV be terminated?

A

selecting a different pitch mode

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130
Q

How do you activate the APU fire extinguisher from the wheel well?

A

Pull the T-handle down to arm the system, then move the discharge switch to the left position to fire the squib.

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131
Q

How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?

A

Set the Filter Switch to B (Both)

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132
Q

How is an APU bleed air duct leak annunciated in the flight deck?

A

By the MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights

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133
Q

How is the accessory gearbox connected to the engine?

A

It is mechanically linked to the N2 rotor

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134
Q

How is the cabin altitude warning horn silenced?

A

By pushing the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch on the forward overhead panel.

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135
Q

How is the hard alternate mode entered?

A

When in Soft Alternate mode, retard the thrust lever or push the EEC switch

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136
Q

How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?

A

120 minutes

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137
Q

How long should a fast realignment take to complete?

A

30 seconds

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138
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the APU FIRE protection system?

A

1

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139
Q

How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?

A

16

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140
Q

How many modes of control does the outflow valve have on the 737-800?

A

Three. One manual and two automatic - ‘AUTO - ALTN - MAN’

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141
Q

How many positive pressure relief valves are on the 737-800?

A

2

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142
Q

How many pressure relief valves are fitted to provide safety pressure relief?

A

2

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143
Q

How many spark igniters are there on each engine?

A

2

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144
Q

How many times can the TRIP RESET button be used to reset a related system?

A

Unlimited number of times

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145
Q

How much greater is the fluid volume supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump, compared to the related electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?

A

6 times greater.

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146
Q

Hydraulic system pressure indication on the lower DU is derived from:

A

combined engine and electric pump outputs.

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147
Q

If ‘ON DC’ on left IRS Mode Selector Unit comes ON steady it means:

A

the related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus

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148
Q

If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position:

A

the COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue

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149
Q

If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, where is the Magenta “X-BLD” Indication displayed?

A

above the N2 dial

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150
Q

If a fire extinguisher is to be discharged on the flight deck:

A

all crewmembers to wear oxygen masks with ‘EMERG’ selected

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151
Q

If a landing is made with RTO selected:

A

AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown

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152
Q

If a leak develops in the supply line to System A engine-driven hydraulic pump, what approximate reservoir quantity would you expect?

A

20% full

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153
Q

If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?

A

15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts

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154
Q

If a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing and the speed brake is ARMED, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:

A

When the Air/Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses).

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155
Q

if a Wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what indications will the crew see?

A

The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT will illuminate bright blue

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156
Q

If aiplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:

A

will display box prompts

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157
Q

If airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:

A

will display box prompts

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158
Q

If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF:

A

the left pack maintains a fixed temperature 24°C and the right pack maintains 18°C as measured at the pack temperature sensor

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159
Q

If an engine fails in flight:

A

The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is information only and the execution light will not illuminate.

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160
Q

If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:

A

on the inboard display unit

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161
Q

If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:

A

Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.

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162
Q

If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:

A

The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.

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163
Q

If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:

A

The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.

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164
Q

If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset.

A

A single GPS sensor unit has failed

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165
Q

If during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:

A

the flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid

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166
Q

If GROSS WT is not available from the FMC, the APPROACH REF page will be:

A

box prompts

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167
Q

If one cargo fire detector loop loses power:

A

the system automatically converts to a single loop detection system

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168
Q

If one of the two engine fire detection loops A or B fails, how will you notice this?

A

It will be noticed when performing the OVHT/FIRE test

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169
Q

If the aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer buses:

A

The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses if the APU is shut down.

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170
Q

If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indicaton:

A

Stick shaker activates for existing flight conditions.

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171
Q

If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator:

A

Stick shaker activates for existing flight condition.

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172
Q

If the amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates, what will the QRH direct you do?

A

position the pump switch to OFF

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173
Q

If the ambient temperature is below -35C how many minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust position?

A

2Min

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174
Q

If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown below the roll section of the FMAs?

A

CWS R in amber

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175
Q

If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown in the roll section of the FMAs?

A

CWS R in amber below the roll FMA.

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176
Q

If the forward thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown:

A

the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate

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177
Q

If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:

A

System A hydraulic pumps must be switched off.

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178
Q

If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power from:

A

the switched on battery bus

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179
Q

If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?

A

The switched hot battery bus.

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180
Q

If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illumunates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power from:

A

the switched hot battery bus

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181
Q

If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, what mode will the EEC automatically change to?

A

Soft alternate mode.

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182
Q

If the spoilers become jammed:

A

The captain’s control wheel operates the ailerons

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183
Q

If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:

A

after 3 seconds in the advanced position, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate

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184
Q

If windshear is encountered during F/D take-off or go-around, and vertical speed is less than +600fpm, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain

A

15 degrees nose up

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185
Q

If you switch off both ENGINE ANTI ICE switches in flight

A

The engine anti ice valves will shut and the stick shaker logic returns to normal.

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186
Q

Illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light in flight indicates:

A

This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.

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187
Q

Illumination (blue) of a Generator Off Bus (GEN OFF BUS) Light indicates:

A

the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus

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188
Q

Illumination (blue) of the APU GEN OFF BUS Light means the:

A

APU is running and not powering a bus

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189
Q

Illumination (blue) of the Ground Power Available (GRD POWER AVAILABLE) Light indicates:

A

ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards

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190
Q

Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates:

A

Both detector loops for an engine have failed.

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191
Q

Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:

A

An over pressure in the duct between the engine anti ice valve and the engine cowl lip

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192
Q

Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:

A

An over pressure in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.

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193
Q

Illumination of the ‘APU DET INOP’ Light will cause following lights to illuminate:

A

both ‘MASTER CAUTION’ and ‘OVHT/DET’

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194
Q

Illumination of the ‘BAT DISCHARGE’ light indicates:

A

excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.

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195
Q

Illumination of the ‘GND POWER AVAILABLE’ light indicates:

A

ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards.

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196
Q

Illumination of the amber ‘DRIVE’ light on the overhead panel indicates:

A

IDG low oil pressure.

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197
Q

Illumination of the blue ‘APU GEN OFF BUS’ means:

A

APU is running and not powering a bus.

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198
Q

Illumination of the blue ‘GEN OFF BUS’ light indicates:

A

the IDG is not supplying power to it’s associated transfer bus.

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199
Q

Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicates:

A

possible backpressure of the APU

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200
Q

In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?

A

Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer - VHF-1

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201
Q

In case of an engine overheat:

A

Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate.

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202
Q

In case of cargo compartment fire:

A

select the FWD ARMED or AFT ARMED switch then press the DISCH button

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203
Q

In degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?

A

Capt. VHF 1, F.O VHF 2, Observer VHF 1.

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204
Q

In flight A Predictive Windshear Warning Alert:

A

Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft

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205
Q

In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:

A

all galley busses are automatically shed

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206
Q

In flight if the APU is the only source of electrical power:

A

Automatic Load Shedding will disconnect all Main and Galley Busses.

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207
Q

In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning Alert system:

A

will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft

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208
Q

In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH:

A

None of RECIRC fans will operate.

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209
Q

In flight with the ‘STANDBY POWER’ switch in the AUTO position, loss of all AC generators Will result in:

A

AC Standby Bus is supplied by the static: inverter and DC Standby Bus is supplied by battery.

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210
Q

In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power:

A

All galley busses and main busses are automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both IFE busses are also automatically shed.

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211
Q

In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master Fire Warn Lights, silences the fire warning bell, and:

A

resets the system for additional warnings

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212
Q

In flight, when does the EEC automatically select approach idle?

A

flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine

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213
Q

In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow valve is driven by?

A

a motor supplied from DC standby bus

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214
Q

In normal operation, engine overheat and fire detection alerts are triggered when

A

Both loops sense an overheat or fire

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215
Q

In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values?

A

FMC

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216
Q

In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?

A

System A

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217
Q

In order to extend the life of the APU, & stabilization time of ____ is recommended before using it as & bleed air source:

A

1 minute

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218
Q

In the event of an elevator control column jam, an override mechanism allows:

A

The control columns to be physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.

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219
Q

In the event of an elevator jam, an override mechanism allows:

A

The control columns to be physically separated.

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220
Q

In the PACK fail non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:

A

reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack

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221
Q

In the remote situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why?

A

The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause an accumulation of dissolved air to obstruct the suction feed line.

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222
Q

In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert automatically show the TCAS Traffic Alert message if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?

A

In MAP, centre MAP, VOR or APP modes

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223
Q

In what mode willa TCAStraffic alert messageautomatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?

A

In MAP, centre MAP, PLAN or APP modes

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224
Q

In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC be displayed whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?

A

All modes

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225
Q

In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?

A

on the ground or in flight

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226
Q

In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?

A

It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps

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227
Q

In-flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?

A

it receives fuel by suction feed via the bypass valve in tank No.1

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228
Q

Is automatic shutdown protection provided for the APU in the event of an APU fire if the APU fire detection system is inoperative?

A

No

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229
Q

Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:

A

prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed

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230
Q

Landing gear uplock is released when:

A

manual gear extension handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24inches (61cm).

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231
Q

LNAV will automatically disengage:

A

Reaching a route discontinuity.

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232
Q

Logo lights are installed on:

A

top of both horizontal stabilizers

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233
Q

Logo lights are installed on:

A

top of each horizontal stabilizer

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234
Q

Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is:

A

3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43 degrees, whichever is higher.

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235
Q

Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU:

A

on the ground or in flight

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236
Q

Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:

A

3000psi.

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237
Q

Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?

A

MAINT

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238
Q

On aircraft from EI-DPY there are new annunciators installed. Which?

A

Takeoff Config light and Cabin Altitude light

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239
Q

On selection of FAULT/INOP we would expect to see

A

Both Master Caution, OVHT/DET system annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights illuminate

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240
Q

On take off the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?

A

Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition

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241
Q

On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?

A

Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition

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242
Q

On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi:

A

As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.

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243
Q

On the FMC FIX INFO page the RAD/DIS FR indicates:

A

the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position

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244
Q

On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?

A

The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position

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245
Q

On the ground, for primary ATC communication:

A

Always use No.1 VHF radio.

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246
Q

On the ground, the TR UNIT Light illuminates (amber) if:

A

Any TR has failed.

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247
Q

On the ground, with both Air Conditioning PACK Switches positioned to HIGH (and both packs operating) and both Recirculation RECIRC FAN Switches positioned to AUTO:

A

Only the Right recirculation fan will operate

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248
Q

On the ground, with both pack switches set to HIGH and both RECIRC FANs selected to AUTO:

A

the left recirculation fan will shut down

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249
Q

On the ground, with the Battery (BAT) Switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:

A

not powered

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250
Q

On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:

A

not powered

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251
Q

Once activated, a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen supply:

A

flows for approximately 12 minutes

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252
Q

Once activated, a PSU oxygen supply:

A

flows for approximately 12 minutes

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253
Q

One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:

A

there is no paralleling of the AC power sources.

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254
Q

Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch set to STANDBY:

A

does not require the BAT switch to be ON

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255
Q

Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY:

A

does not require the BAT switch to be ON

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256
Q

Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:-

A

results in the total discharge of the cargo compartment fire extinguisher bottle contents into the cargo hold selected by the cargo fire ARMED switch

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257
Q

Operating the EXT TEST Switch:

A

to position 1 or 2 tests bottle discharge circuits for all three extinguisher bottles

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258
Q

Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on:

A

engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power

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259
Q

Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on:

A

engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door status

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260
Q

Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependent on:

A

engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door door open/closed status, DC power

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261
Q

Overheat detection is available for

A

Engines

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262
Q

Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to OVHT/FIRE position:

A

tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engines and APU, and wheel well fire detector

263
Q

Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests:

A

The fault detection circuit for both engines and APU.

264
Q

Positioning an engine-driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF:

A

Isolates the hydraulic fluid flow from the system components, but the pump keeps rotating as long as the engine is running

265
Q

Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:

A

Adjusts stick shaker logic and minimum maneuver speed bars whilst the switch is in the ON position

266
Q

Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight:

A

Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on the airspeed indications and remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.

267
Q

Predictive windshear alerts are issued when:

A

below 1,200 feet RA

268
Q

Prior to returning to the oil tank, what does engine oil pass through?

A

the scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler

269
Q

Pulling an engine fire-warning switch up:

A

closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve

270
Q

Pulling the APU Fire switch up

A

Provides backup for the automatic shutdown feature

271
Q

Pulling the engine fire switch up will

A

Close both the engine fuel shutoff and spar shutoff valves

272
Q

Pulling the number 2 engine fire switch up will

A

isolate the System B engine driven Hydraulic pump but the electric motor driven pump maintains System B pressure.

273
Q

Pushing the ATTEND call switch:

A

sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights

274
Q

Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel:

A

improves reception of weak signals

275
Q

Reference to Overheat/Fire Protection Panel. FAULT light illuminated amber, choose the correct answer:

A

With the overheat detector switch in NORMAL - indicates both detector loops for an engine have failed.

276
Q

Retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:

A

by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits

277
Q

Select the correct statement:

A

The correct answer is: The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.

278
Q

Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to:

A

ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.

279
Q

Selecting the APU switch to OFF position trips the APU generator, closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguishes the APU GEN OFF BUS light. To allow for a cooling period, APU shutdown will occur automatically after a delay of _____ seconds:

A

60

280
Q

Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:

A

energizes the blocking valve to block pump output.

281
Q

Switching the CAB/UTIL Switch to the OFF position removes electrical power from all 115v AC galley busses and also from the:

A

left and right recirculation fans

282
Q

The ‘GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:

A

the AC ground power cart has been disconnected.

283
Q

The ‘TR UNIT’ light Will illuminate in flight if:

A

TR1 fails.

284
Q

The accessories gearbox receives drive from:

A

the N2 rotor

285
Q

The aircraft is not certified for operations:

A

above 82N or below 82S

286
Q

The aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer busses:

A

the generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.

287
Q

The airspeed range for fully enabled speed trim operation is:

A

100 KIAS - Mach 0.60

288
Q

The alpha vanes provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, auto throttle, autopilot, auto slats and are anti-iced:

A

By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches.

289
Q

The ALTERNATE FLAP Master Switch in ARM position:

A

arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and closes the TE Flap Bypass Valve.

290
Q

The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch selected to ARM:

A

Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve

291
Q

The amber ‘ELEC’ light will illuminate on the ground if:

A

a fault exists in the DC power or standby power system.

292
Q

The amber ‘STANDBY POWER OFF’ light will illuminate if:

A

AC standby bus unpowered.

293
Q

The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:

A

Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.

294
Q

The amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:

A

91 kgs

295
Q

The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT Light

A

is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight

296
Q

The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed:

A

Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.

297
Q

The APU can supply both bleed air and electrical load up to an altitude of:

A

10,000 feet

298
Q

The APU can supply both transfer buses:

A

On the ground or in the air.

299
Q

The APU can supply electrical load only up to an altitude of:

A

41,000 feet

300
Q

The APU generator can supply both transfer busses:

A

on the ground or in flight

301
Q

The APU start cycle may take as long as ____ seconds.

A

120 seconds

302
Q

The aural alert for excessive bank angle is:

A

BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE

303
Q

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely cause is:

A

RTO mode selected on the ground.

304
Q

The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch:

A

when set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above 90kts during takeoff.

305
Q

The AUTO FAIL light is illuminated together with ALTN light. What does it indicate?

A

This indicates a single controller failure.

306
Q

The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin pressurisation panel is illuminated alone.

A

This indicates a dual controller failure.

307
Q

The Auto position of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) On/Auto switch:

A

Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.

308
Q

The AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall. The light extinguishes when master caustion system is reset. This indicates:

A

failure of a single Stall Management/Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.

309
Q

The autoslat system:

A

drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approaches a stall.

310
Q

The bleed air pressure indicator has L and R pointers. These pointers:

A

may indicate a L/R duct pressure difference which is considered normal as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurisation

311
Q

The BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates an

A

Overpressure or Overheat in the bleed air duct system

312
Q

The BLEED TRIP OFF light:

A

Indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure or temperature.

313
Q

The blue ‘APU GEN OFF BUS’ light will illuminate:

A

when the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC transfer bus

314
Q

The brake accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:

A

parking brake system

315
Q

The Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings:

A

both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated

316
Q

The cabin begins to pressurize

A

on the ground at high power settings

317
Q

The call system from flight deck to an attendant station in the passenger cabin operates:

A

pink master call lights and a two-tone chime

318
Q

The call system from flight deck to cabin operates:

A

pink call lights and a two-tone chime

319
Q

The cargo compartment fire detection system has dual detection loops and in normal operation:

A

both loops must detect the presence of smoke to cause an alert.

320
Q

The cargo compartment fire protection system includes:

A

A single fire extinguisher bottle

321
Q

The cargo compartments have

A

Smoke detection powered by DC Bus 1 and DC bus 2

322
Q

The center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operates when:

A

the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full

323
Q

The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:

A

the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full

324
Q

The cockpit voice decorrer records audio for:

A

120 minutes

325
Q

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased by:

A

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set

326
Q

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:

A

Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft on ground with parking brake ON

327
Q

The cockpit voice recorder records audio for:

A

120 minutes

328
Q

The columns and wheels are connected through transfer mechanisms which allow the pilots to bypass a jammed control or surface. If the ailerons control system is jammed, force applied to:

A

force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers. The ailerons and the Captain’s control wheel are inoperative.

329
Q

The controller programs the cabin to land slightly pressurized. After landing to depressurize the aircraft:

A

while taxiing in, the controller slowly drives the outflow valve fully open.

330
Q

The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber:

A

to indicate an overpressure condition in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve

331
Q

The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber:

A

to indicate excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip

332
Q

The Cross Bus Tie relay:

A

opens if the BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF.

333
Q

The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents:

A

predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals

334
Q

The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:

A

independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel

335
Q

The display selector on the IRS Display Unit ( ISDU ) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is shown in the right window:

A

right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete

336
Q

The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right window?

A

Minutes remaining until alignment is complete

337
Q

The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated amber. This indicates:

A

Eng No 1 BLEED air switch ON and APU bleed air valve open

338
Q

The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode?

A

Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel.

339
Q

The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode?

A

Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel

340
Q

The Electrical (ELEC) Light will illuminate in flight if:

A

the ELEC light only operates on the ground

341
Q

The Emergency Exit Lights switch, when placed in the ARMED position:

A

illuminates all emergency lights automatically if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off

342
Q

The ENG ANTI-ICE switch are positioned to ON in flight. The stall warning logic:

A

Adjusts stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the airspeed indicator.

343
Q

The engine and APU fire detection systems are run from the

A

Battery Bus

344
Q

The engine bleed air valve acts as:

A

a pressure regulator and shutoff valve

345
Q

The equipment cooling system comprises:

A

4 fans

346
Q

The equipment cooling system comprises:

A

4 fans - 2 supply duct and 2 exhaust duct

347
Q

The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?

A

the Captain’s and First Officer’s pitch angle displays differ by more than 5 degrees

348
Q

The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?

A

the Captain’s and First Officer’s pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more

349
Q

The flap load relief system is operational at (assume for aircraft YC496 through YW097):

A

flaps 30 and 40

350
Q

The Flap Load Relief system:

A

will retract the TE Flaps from 40 to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots.

351
Q

The flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provides:

A

protection for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position

352
Q

The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector rotated to the EMERGENCY position:

A

supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude

353
Q

The flight crew oxygen system pressure may be as high as:

A

1850psi

354
Q

The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks/regulators with pressure breathing starting at:

A

27,000 feet

355
Q

The flight directors must be ON to engage the AFDS in Go around mode?

A

FALSE

356
Q

The FMC advisory message “BUFFET ALERT” indicates:

A

Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than required.

357
Q

The FMC alerting message ‘RESET MCP ALT’ means:

A

aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP

358
Q

The FMC Alerting Message ‘VERIFY POSITION’ indicates:

A

position information is contradictory on the ground only

359
Q

The FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT means:

A

The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP

360
Q

The FMC alerting message VERIFY GW AND FUEL is shown in the CDU scratchpad:

A

When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually

361
Q

The forward cabin temperature control fails.

A

FWD CAB Temperature selector works normally, but the cabin temperature is maintained at the average of the FWD and AFT CAB temperature selector settings.

362
Q

The FSEU (flap/slat electronic unit) provides:

A

protection and indication for TE Flap asymmetry, skew and uncommanded motion.

363
Q

The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1 is:

A

present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system

364
Q

The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page is:

A

total fuel onboard, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system

365
Q

The FWD and AFT cargo compartments each have smoke detectors

A

In a dual loop configuration. Normally, both detection loops must sense smoke to cause an alert

366
Q

The FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates amber. This indicates duct temperature overheat.

A

The system may be reset by pushing the TRIP RESET switch

367
Q

The Galley busses are powered from:

A

the AC Transfer busses.

368
Q

The green LE FLAPS EXT light:

A

illuminates for all LE devices fully extended (TE flap positions 10 - 40).

369
Q

The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?

A

To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver.

370
Q

The indications for the Cargo Fire test

A

Fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate, the extinguisher test lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate, and the cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates

371
Q

The indications of an engine overheat are:

A

Both MASTER CAUTION lights, the related ENG OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminate.

372
Q

The isolation valve is _____ operated?

A

AC

373
Q

The ISOLATION VALVE switch is in the AUTO position, both engine bleed switches are ON, the L PACK switch is in the AUTO position and the R PACK switch is in the HIGH position. What is the position of the isolation valve?

A

Closed

374
Q

The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked:

A

with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees)

375
Q

The Landing Gear Transfer Unit:

A

Ensures System B can assist raising the gear on loss of System A

376
Q

The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft’s condition (both engines are operating)?

A

On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flaps 30 with any gear not down and locked

377
Q

The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced. What is the aircraft’s condition?

A

On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flap 30 with any gear not down and locked

378
Q

The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC’s alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?

A

The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters

379
Q

The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:

A

yes

380
Q

The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning:

A

a clacker

381
Q

The main wheel well has

A

Fire detection only

382
Q

The maximum differential pressure is:

A

9.10 psi

383
Q

The minimum equipment requirement for RAs to be generated is if the other airplane has a working:

A

Mode C transponder.

384
Q

The Navigation Display (ND) wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:

A

Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots

385
Q

The number of flight spoilers located on each wing are:

A

4

386
Q

The number of ground spoilers on each wing are:

A

2

387
Q

The number of slats located on each wing are:

A

Four outboard of each engine

388
Q

The outflow valve position indicator indicates the position of the outflow valve:

A

in all modes

389
Q

The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?

A

Passenger oxygen system is activated

390
Q

The position trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on the ND in modes MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents:

A

predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals

391
Q

The power source for Fire Extinguishing is:

A

the Hot Battery Bus

392
Q

The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:

A

Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.

393
Q

The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides an alternative source of power for the Autoslat system if:

A

A loss of pressure from Hydraulic System B engine driven pump is sensed

394
Q

The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which of the following items?

A

autoslats

395
Q

The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of hydraulic power for the Autoslat System if:

A

a loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine-driven pump is sensed.

396
Q

The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light is inhibited:

A

at all times in flight, when the thrust levers are advanced toward takeoff power at any time and for 30 seconds after landing.

397
Q

The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors:

A

takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors

398
Q

The purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit is to:

A

automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No.1 engine is lost and the landing gear lever is positioned up

399
Q

The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and both PROBE HEAT switches are in the ON position. What does this indicate?

A

The right elevator pitot is not heated

400
Q

The RA aural alert ‘CLIMB’ CLIMB NOW’ means:

A

Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA.

401
Q

The Recirculation Fan:

A

reduces air conditioning pack load and the engine bleed air demand

402
Q

The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?

A

Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position OR the landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).

403
Q

The right IRS is electrically powered from:

A

normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes

404
Q

The right primary pack control fails. The right pack:

A

is controlled by the left pack standby control

405
Q

The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND FUEL appears:

A

When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be entered manually.

406
Q

The SMYD computers receive inputs from:

A

anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs

407
Q

The Stabilizer Trim Override Switch on the Aft Electronic Panel, when set to OVERRIDE:

A

Bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches on each control wheel

408
Q

The supplemental and temporary data bases have storage capacity for:

A

40 navaids and 6 airports

409
Q

The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:

A

stabilizer trim is not in the green band

410
Q

The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:

A

A solid white diamond

411
Q

The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:

A

A white solid diamond

412
Q

The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from

A

EGPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position

413
Q

The Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each N1 indicator:

A

if green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON

414
Q

The thrust mode display on the upper DU shows A/T LIM in white. This means

A

the FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values, the A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC

415
Q

The TR ́s ( Transformer Rectifier Units ) convert:

A

115 volts AC to 28 volts DC

416
Q

The TR UNIT light will illuminate (amber) in flight if:

A

TR1 has failed

417
Q

The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is:

A

all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.

418
Q

The trailing edge flaps are set to position 15. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is (assume for non-Short Field Performance aircraft YC496 through YW097):

A

all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated green

419
Q

The vertical speed in white shown at the bottom of the vertical speed indication will show when the vertical speed exceeds:

A

400 feet per minute

420
Q

The wheel well is

A

Monitored by a single fire detector loop. As the temperature of the detector increases above a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition

421
Q

The window heat PWR TEST switch

A

provides a confidence test

422
Q

The wing anti-ice system provides protection for:

A

the three inboard leading edge slats on each wing

423
Q

The wing ANTI-ICE:

A

Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist.

424
Q

The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?

A

AIR COND

425
Q

The yaw damper indicator:

A

indicates main yaw damper movement of rudder; pilot rudder pedal inputs are not indicated.

426
Q

To extend the Fwd Airstair from outside the aircraft

A

The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open

427
Q

To receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio:

A

set the Filter Switch to BOTH

428
Q

To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select:

A

POS REF page 2/3

429
Q

To silence the fire bell you can press either of the twoMaster Fire Warning (FIRE WARN) lights on the glareshield. There is another switch which will also silence the fire bell. Where is it located?

A

On the fire protection panel

430
Q

Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC’s. What affect will one radio altimeter becoming inoperative have on the Autopilot?

A

the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture

431
Q

Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio altimeter inoperative, how long after LOC and GS capture will the autopilot disconnect?

A

2 seconds

432
Q

Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to op erate specific equipment. The PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?

A

Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine–driven hydraulic pump drops below limits

433
Q

Under normal conditions the AC Standby Bus is powered from:

A

AC Transfer Bus No 1.

434
Q

Under normal operation the packs will produce an air temperature to satisfy

A

the zone that requires the most cooling.

435
Q

Under what circumstances will the V Speed be removed from the FMC, the No V Speed Flag reappear on tthe PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEED DELETED appear?

A

After the first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page

436
Q

Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?

A

After first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

437
Q

Up to how long might the APU start cycle take?

A

120 seconds

438
Q

Up to what altitude may the APU be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously?

A

10,000 ft.

439
Q

VNAV is terminated by:

A

selecting a different pitch mode

440
Q

Warm air from the E & E bay is:

A

diffused to the lining of the forward cargo compartment in flight at high cabin differential pressures

441
Q

What abnormal start protection is available?

A

On the ground only and for hot, wet, stall and EGT exceedances

442
Q

What additional engine fire indication is shown or heard on the flight deck of later aircraft (from registration EI-FIV through EI-GXN) in the event of engine fire or during an engine fire test?

A

The engine start lever will illuminate red.

443
Q

What additional items are detected on the LHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” alert light that are not the RHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” system?

A

Bleed duct from APU and Keel Beam

444
Q

What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?

A

Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.

445
Q

What are the indications of a cargo fire?

A

The fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate and the FWD/AFT cargo fire warning light(s) illuminates.

446
Q

What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?

A

The Engine Start Switch returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes

447
Q

What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:

A

airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked.

448
Q

What do the 3 green lights indicate, when the EXT TEST switch is moved to either 1 or 2 position?

A

That the circuit continuity from the squib to the engine and APU fire switch is checked.

449
Q

What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?

A

POS REF page 2/3

450
Q

What does a flashing RED autopilot indicator light mean?

A

Autopilot has disconnected

451
Q

What does BOV stand for and what will be the effect of it on the flight directors?

A

BOV: Bias out of view, removes either the pitch or roll flight director depending on the event causing the bias out of view.

452
Q

What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?

A

Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified.

453
Q

What does the FMC Alerting Message ‘VERIFY POSITION’ indicate?

A

Position information is contradictory on the ground only.

454
Q

What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?

A

The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP

455
Q

What does the illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light indicate, during climb?

A

This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.

456
Q

What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD)?

A

hydraulic pressure and quantity only

457
Q

What fault indications can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch?

A

ZONE TEMP, PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF

458
Q

What fixed temperature will the left pack maintain If all the temperature selectors are positioned OFF?

A

24°C

459
Q

What FMAs would be expected on selection of HEADING SELECT and VERTICAL SPEED?

A

MCP SPD / HDG SEL / VS

460
Q

What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?

A

Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.

461
Q

What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO?

A

maximum braking is applied automatically when the forward thrust levers are retarded to idle

462
Q

What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?

A

the display opens up and shows FMC target speed

463
Q

What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?

A

only attitude and heading information

464
Q

What is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?

A

Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active

465
Q

What is correct about the colour on the terrain display?

A

Solid red - look ahead terrain warning is active

466
Q

What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?

A

The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP.

467
Q

What is one indication of a leak in the Standby Hydraulic System?

A

decrease in System B quantity

468
Q

What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?.

A

56% N2

469
Q

What is the cause of a wing-body overheat?

A

A bleed air duct leak

470
Q

What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN Light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?

A

illuminated bright blue

471
Q

What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?

A

Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim

472
Q

What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?

A

Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes

473
Q

What is the effect on the spark igniters if the start switches are position to FLT?

A

Both igniters operate with the start lever in idle regardless of the position of the ignition select switch

474
Q

What is the EGT limit for engine starting on the ground?

A

725°C

475
Q

What is the electrical power source of the APU fire detection system?

A

the Battery Bus

476
Q

What is the electrical power source of the engine overheat and fire detection system?

A

the battery bus

477
Q

What is the electrical source of power for the cargo compartment smoke

A

the DC bus 1 and the DC bus 2

478
Q

What is the electrical source of power for the engine fire extinguishing system?

A

The Hot battery bus

479
Q

What is the flight deck annunciation if one cargo smoke detector in a loop fails?

A

The DETECTOR FAULT light will illuminate, but only when a cargo fire test is manually initiated.

480
Q

What is the function of the TRIP RESET switch on the overhead pressurization panel?

A

To reset a bleed trip off, pack trip off and zone temp malfunction

481
Q

What is the hydraulic sysytem maximum pressure indication, and what colour is it displayed?

A

3500 psi in white

482
Q

What is the indication of Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?

A

Illuminated bright blue

483
Q

What is the indication of the Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?

A

illuminated bright blue

484
Q

What is the maximum authorized thrust reduction below any certified rating?

A

25,00%

485
Q

What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS) A

A

+- 0.1

486
Q

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

A

20,000 feet

487
Q

What is the maximum permitted lever position of the speed brake lever in flight?

A

FLIGHT DETENT

488
Q

What is the maximum thrust reduction authorized below any certified rating?

A

25%

489
Q

What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?

A

800 feet

490
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?

A

760 Kgs in the related main tank.

491
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

A

24.3M

492
Q

What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?

A

24.3 Meters

493
Q

What is the number of the extinguisher bottles fitted for the cargo compartment fire suppression system?

A

1 bottle

494
Q

What is the purpose of the isolation valve?

A

To Isolate the left and the right sides of the bleed air duct.

495
Q

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

A

Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient

496
Q

What is the purpose of the ram air system?

A

To provide cooling for the heat exchangers

497
Q

What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?

A

To reduce the workload on the PACKs

498
Q

What is the range of the individual temperature selectors?

A

Approximately 18°C to 30°C

499
Q

What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?

A

Blue call light illuminates and a single chime is heard.

500
Q

What is the result of a fluid leak in the System A electric motor-driven pump?

A

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.

501
Q

What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?

A

Sounds a two-tone chime in the passenger cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights.

502
Q

What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?

A

Improves reception of weak signals.

503
Q

What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?

A

the Battery Bus

504
Q

What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?

A

35.79 Meters

505
Q

What is the wingspan of a wingleted aircraft?

A

35.79M

506
Q

What is the wingtip height of a blended wing aircraft?

A

6.4 M.

507
Q

What is the wingtip height of a blended wing aircraft?

A

6.42M

508
Q

What items make up the Automatic Flight System (AFS)?

A

the autopilot, flight directors (AFDS) and the autothrottles (A/T)

509
Q

What modes can the EECs operate in?

A

Normal, Soft Alternate and Hard Alternate

510
Q

What must be sensed by the detector loops to cause an engine overheat/fire alert?

A

Temperature

511
Q

What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?

A

DC from Hot Battery Bus

512
Q

What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?

A

MCP SPD

513
Q

What position should the ignition select switch be in for operations from a manned maintenance station?

A

Right

514
Q

What powers the AUTOSLAT system?

A

is normally powered by Hydraulic System B

515
Q

What systems can the Standby Hydraulic System power when activated?

A

Standby yaw damper, LE Flaps and Slats (extend only), Thrust Reversers and the Rudder

516
Q

What systems need pneumatic power for operation?

A

Engine starting, Air conditioning/Pressurization, wing and engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization

517
Q

What will be displayed in the FMAs if in level flight on a radar heading and APP mode is selected prior to LQG/GS capture?

A

MCP SPD / HDG SEL (VORLOC below in white) /ALT HOLD (GS below in white)

518
Q

What will be displayed in the FMAs if LVL change is selected in descent? (LNAV selected as the roll mode)

A

RETARD then ARM / LNAV / MCP SPD

519
Q

What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?

A

GROSS WT will display box prompts

520
Q

What would system B hydraulic fluid indication decrease to, if there was a leak in the standby hydraulic system?

A

Approximately 72%

521
Q

When a lavatory fire is detected:

A

the fire extinguisher operates automatically

522
Q

When an active database expires in flight:

A

The expired data base continues to be used until the data base is changed after landing.

523
Q

When an active navigation database expires in flight:

A

The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing.

524
Q

When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?

A

The NO SMOKING Signs are illuminated at all times

525
Q

When Auto is selected, FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs:

A

illuminate when flap or gear are extended

526
Q

When below radio altitude minimums, the Rad Alt display on the PFD:

A

dial perimeter and pointer turn amber and flash for 3 seconds

527
Q

When both hydraulic pumps for a system are off, the indicated system pressure may read system reservoir pressure, this is normally?

A

less than 100psi

528
Q

When can you expect the EGPWS ‘five hundred’ call?

A

When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ

529
Q

When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle has not exceeded what angle?

A

6 degrees

530
Q

When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle is:

A

6 degrees or less

531
Q

When does a magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display show?

A

The speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged

532
Q

When does the Rad Alt display a digital readout only?

A

Between 2,500ft AGL and 1,000ft AGL

533
Q

When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing “A”) appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?

A

The highest of the other three answers

534
Q

When extending or retracting the TE Flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow 15 seconds to elapse between consecutive selections:

A

to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.

535
Q

When is a resolution advisory generated?

A

When the other aircraft is approx 25 seconds from point of closest approach

536
Q

When is the “RF” Indication dispayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?

A

When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engine shutdown.

537
Q

When is the current Mach numberdisplayed at the bottom of the airspeed indications tapeon the PFD?

A

When airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above

538
Q

When is the descent mode activated if the pressurization mode selector is in the AUTO position?

A

When the aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT.

539
Q

When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?

A

The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips

540
Q

When operating on standby power only:

A

the Captain’s PFD and ND will operate

541
Q

When operating on standby power:

A

only the CAPT’s pitot probe is heated

542
Q

When operating on standby power:

A

Only the captain’s pitot probe is heated and the CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure.

543
Q

When operating on standby power:

A

Only the captain’s pitot probe is heated. The CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure.

544
Q

When operating with normal power sources available, placing the Battery (BAT) Switch to OFF will remove power from:

A

The battery bus and switched hot battery bus.

545
Q

When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane’s capabilities:

A

Select TA

546
Q

When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct?

A

Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the backup system has occurred.

547
Q

When selecting reverse thrust, when can the reverse thrust levers be increased beyond the idle detent?

A

Once the reverser sleeves approach the fully deployed position

548
Q

When the aircraft batteries are the only source of power:

A

The Captain’s inboard and outboard DUs operate until the battery is discharged.

549
Q

When the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:

A

The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.

550
Q

When the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch is selected DOWN:

A

this fully extends LE devices using standby hydraulic pressure, electrically extends TE flaps.

551
Q

When the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode:

A

First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF 2

552
Q

When the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF:

A

The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close.

553
Q

When the gear is down with 3 greens showing on the centre panel:

A

the gear is down and locked, even if a corresponding landing gear indicator light on the overhead panel is NOT illuminated.

554
Q

When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, under normal circumstances the landing gear extends by:

A

all of the above.

555
Q

When the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open:

A

manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.

556
Q

When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly:

A

there will be a GPWS ‘minimums’ callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector

557
Q

When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF (the center position):

A

The ‘STANDBY PWR OFF’ light will illuminate (amber)

558
Q

Umiesz? :*

A
559
Q

When the STANDBY POWER switch is selected OFF:

A

AC standby bus, static inverter, and DC standby bus are not powered.

560
Q

When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?

A

The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet

561
Q

When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?

A

after failure of the number 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up

562
Q

When will LNAV automatically disengage?

A

Reaching a route discontinuity.

563
Q

When will the deflector doors extend?

A

On the ground prior to liftoff and after touchdown.

564
Q

When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?

A

When descending 0.25psi below the selected altitude

565
Q

When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?

A

When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually.

566
Q

When will the fuel LOW alert be display?

A

When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank

567
Q

When will the low fuel warning be activated?

A

When the fuel tank quantity is below 453kgs in related main tank

568
Q

Where are the “Bleed Air” trip sensors located?

A

Before and after the bleed air valve

569
Q

Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?

A

Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.

570
Q

Where does air for APU cooling enter?

A

enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet

571
Q

Where is the Air Driven Starter fitted?

A

On the front of the accessory gearbox

572
Q

Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?

A

after passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve

573
Q

Where is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed on the flight deck?

A

On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel

574
Q

Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located?

A

In main fuel tank No.1.

575
Q

Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?

A

Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes

576
Q

Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?

A

THR HLD and ARM

577
Q

Which are the correct FMA modes, during NADP 2, A/P engaged, before flaps up (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?

A

N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD

578
Q

Which are the indication of an engine FIRE?

A

The Fire Warning Bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN illuminate and the related Engine Fire switch illuminates.

579
Q

Which bus is always connected to the main battery?

A

Hot Battery Bus

580
Q

Which bus powers the auxiliary battery charger?

A

AC ground service bus 1

581
Q

Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?

A

AC ground service bus 2

582
Q

Which engines power the Boeing 737-800?

A

CFM56-7 dual-rotor axial-flow turbofans

583
Q

Which flight instrument displays are available when the batteries are the only source of power:

A

Captain’s inboard ND and Captain’s outboard PFD.

584
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?

A

System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2

585
Q

Which is the ND symbol for a traffic advisory?

A

Solid amber circle

586
Q

Which light will illuminate if the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle?

A

the FAULT light illuminates

587
Q

Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?

A

EMER

588
Q

Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected during a dual channel A/P approach?

A

APP

589
Q

Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?

A

APP

590
Q

Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?

A

closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves

591
Q

Which of the following actions would terminate VNAV?

A

selecting a different pitch mode

592
Q

Which of the following annunciators areNOT fitted on the flight deck?

A

Lavatory Fire warning light

593
Q

Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?

A

Lavatory Fire warning light

594
Q

which of the following anunciator are NOT fitted on the flight deck?

A

Lavatory Fire warning ligth

595
Q

Which of the following are not heated?

A

Static ports

596
Q

Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?

A

Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.

597
Q

Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?

A

Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.

598
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause the AUTOFAIL light to illuminate?

A

Excessive differential pressure (> 8.75 psi)

599
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?

A

It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to OFF.

600
Q

Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO

A

Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.

601
Q

Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?

A

the thrust reverser is deployed

602
Q

Which of the following statements would cause the EEC to automatically turn off ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when the EGT display box and dial turn red?

A

the EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts

603
Q

Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?

A

Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the down position.

604
Q

Which of these conditions would cause FCCs to control their respective flight director modes (neither autopilot engaged in command)?

A

GA mode engaged and below 400ft RA

605
Q

Which of these could cause a steady RED AUTOPILOT indicator light?

A

ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go–around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation

606
Q

Which of these is an AFDS status mode?

A

FD

607
Q

Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?

A

Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.

608
Q

Which one of these will cause the autopilot to disconnect?

A

All of the other answers are correct

609
Q

Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?

A

Always use the VHF-1 radio.

610
Q

Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain’s ACP operating in degraded mode?

A

Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.

611
Q

Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?

A

Displays present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system

612
Q

Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?

A

The engine out cruise (ENG OUT CRZ) page is information only and the EXEC light will not illuminate.

613
Q

Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?

A

A single GPS sensor unit has failed

614
Q

Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?

A

The flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid.

615
Q

Which statement is correct in relation to the APU fuel supply:

A

If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from the No. 1 tank. During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing.

616
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ground operations of the electric-driven hydraulic pumps?

A

A minimum of 760kg of fuel must be present in the related main tank

617
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the APU Bleed Air Valve:

A

The APU bleed air valve is DC controlled and pressure operated

618
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the supply of bleed air from the APU:

A

The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground, or one pack in flight

619
Q

Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?

A

The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing

620
Q

Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?

A

Both the origin and destination airport are available.

621
Q

Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?

A

The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.

622
Q

Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?

A

First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF-2.

623
Q

Which statement is NOT true with regard to the lavatory smoke detection system?

A

If the lavatory smoke detection system is actiated, lavatory fire extinguisher system activates automatically.

624
Q

Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?

A

If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.

625
Q

Which statement is true?

A

rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends

626
Q

Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?

A

System A.

627
Q

Which systems use engine bleed air for operation?

A

Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks pressurization.

628
Q

Which turbine stages supply air to the bleed air systems?

A

5th and 9th stages

629
Q

Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?

A

L1 only

630
Q

While flying an ILS approach, to inhibit a BELOW G/S alert:

A

Push the BELOW G/S light (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1,000 feet radio altimeter).

631
Q

While making a no engine bleed takeoff with the APU operating, an engine failure occurs. When should the engine BLEED Air Switches be positioned to ON?

A

When reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached.

632
Q

While performing the APPROACH checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall, this indicates:

A

a problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight

633
Q

Whilst on the ground with WING ANTI-ICE selected ON, advancing the thrust levers to the take-off setting will cause:

A

both wing anti-ice control valves close and the WING ANTI-ICE switch remains in the ON position

634
Q

Whilst on the ground with wing anti-ice selected ON, advancing the thrust levers To the take-off setting will cause:

A

both wing anti-ice valves to close and the WING ANTI-ICE switches remain set at ON

635
Q

Whith the Captain’s ACP operating is in degraded mode, at that station:

A

Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard

636
Q

Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit?

A

To hinder inadvertent flap lever movement beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-around

637
Q

Will the APU automatic shutdown protection occur with an APU Fire and the APU Detection Inoperative?

A

No

638
Q

With a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around, what are the correct FMAs (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)? Note: assume for aircraft Tab numbers YA573 through YW058

A

G/A : (blank) : TO/GA

639
Q

With command A engage and FMAs displaying MCP SPD/LNAV/ALT HOLD, which FCC is the master?

A

FCC A

640
Q

With ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when would automatic ignition will occur?

A

rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM and engine start lever isin IDLE

641
Q

With loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally):

A

Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available.

642
Q

With pack switches set to AUTO, if one pack fails, when does the remaining pack provide high air flow:

A

when the aircraft is in flight with flaps retracted

643
Q

With TCAS, proximate traffic:

A

is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically

644
Q

With the AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to RTO, autobraking is initiated:

A

when wheel speed is 90 knots or more and the thrust levers are retarded to IDLE

645
Q

With the Captain’s ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:

A

Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.

646
Q

With the engine running at stabilised idle, what drives the accessory gearbox?

A

the N2 rotor

647
Q

With the Manual Extension Access Door open:

A

manual landing gear extension is possible with the Landing Gear Lever in any position.

648
Q

With the Multifunction Display Switch (MFD) in SYS, the lower DU shows:

A

hydraulic pressure and quantity only

649
Q

With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?

A

Pump continues to run, but output is isolated from system components

650
Q

With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power will cause the AC standby bus to be powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus to be powered directly from the batteries:

A

both in the air and on the ground

651
Q

With the temperature control placed in the “OFF” position, the pack controls maintain a fixed temperature of:

A

Left pack 24 – Right pack 18

652
Q

With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?

A

the isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position

653
Q

Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:

A

by either trim or rudder pedals inputs

654
Q

ZONE TEMP amber light illumination for CONT CAB indicates:

A

A duct temperature overheat or failure of both flight deck primary and standby temperature controlle

Ground school (2 decks)

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