Technical Flashcards
1
Q
‘TA Only’ mode is enabled automatically:
A
below 1,000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected.
2
Q
A fast realignment should be complete in:
A
30 seconds
3
Q
A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and prepares to return to the departure airfield. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew must:
A
take no action - the auto abort capability programs cabin to land at takeoff field elevation
4
Q
A fluid leak develops in System A electric pump.
A
Fluid quantity in System A reservoir decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
5
Q
A fuel CONFIG alert is extinguished if:
A
Centre tank quantity less than 363kgs
6
Q
A fuel CONFIG Alert remains displayed until:
A
Centre fuel tank quantity less than 363 kgs
7
Q
A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed air ducting. This is indicated on the forward overhead panel by
A
left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light
8
Q
A leak develops in the System A electric-driven pump; how does this affect the operation of the PTU?
A
The PTU will not function as all system pressure is lost
9
Q
A leak in standby hydraulic system will cause system B fluid indication decrease, to approximately:
A
0.72
10
Q
A leak occurs in the standby system - which statement is correct?
A
The LOW QUANTITY light will illuminate when the standby reservoir is approx half empty, the standby reservoir quantity will decrease to zero and the system B reservoir level will decrease to approx 72%
11
Q
A Mach Trim System provides speed stability at airspeeds above:
A
Mach .615
12
Q
A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display on the PFD indicates:
A
the speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged
13
Q
A pack light illuminates, it does not extinguish on reset of the master caution recall. What could have been the cause of the alert?
A
A dual pack failure in which the pack will continue to operate until excessive temperature is sensed.
14
Q
A single detector loop for an engine fails and the related OVHT/DET switch in the aft electronic panel is in the NORMAL position. What flight indications can you expect?
A
There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure with the OVHT/DET switch in NORMAL.
15
Q
A TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND) has, alongside it, a down arrow and ‘- 07’. This means:
A
The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.
16
Q
A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and ‘- 07’. This means:
A
The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm
17
Q
Above 37,000 feet the pressurization controller maintains a pressure differential of:
A
8.35psid
18
Q
Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage:
A
Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.
19
Q
AFDS is engaged in Altitude hold and heading select. If the heading select switch on the MCP was pushed what would the FMAs d isplay?
A
MCP SPD/CWS R (in amber, below the FMA)/ALT HOLD.
20
Q
After a flight director take off in TO/GA mode, using LNAV, what FMAs occur if the autopilot is engaged during the climb and above thrust reduction altitude?
A
N1/LNAV/MCP SPD
21
Q
After a normal takeoff which F/D pitch command can you expect?
A
V2 plus 20kts
22
Q
After a normal takeoff which pitch command can you expect?
A
V2 to V2+20kts
23
Q
After a steady cruise at FL 370 you climb to FL 390 and reset the FLT ALT in the pressurization panel accordingly. What would you expect the cabin rate of climb indicator to indicate during the climb?
A
It will indicate a descent due to a scheduled change in differential pressure from 7.8 psi to 8.35 psi when selecting a FLT ALT above FL 370.
24
Q
After autobraking has started, what pilot actions disarm the autobrake system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light?:
A
All of the above.
25
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until
800 feet above field elevation
26
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
800 feet above Field Elevation.
27
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
60 seconds
28
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change?
Blank, requiring reloading
29
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
Blank, requiring reloading
30
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
Blank, requiring reloading.
31
After the loss of all generators, two fully charghed batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of:
60 minutes
32
Air from the preconditioned ground source enters the air conditioning system through
The Mix Manifold
33
Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kg, of fuel in the No. 1 main tank and 3060 kg, of fuel in the No. 2 main tank. You will see:
an amber IMBAL indication below main tank No 1, fuel quantity arc and digits on tank also turn amber
34
Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No. 2. You will see:
An amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber
35
All TCAS alerts are inhibited:
By GPWS and windshear warnings.
36
All window heat switches are selected to the ON position. The green window heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. The most likely reason is:
The window is at the correct temperature
37
Alternate brakes are operated by:
system A
38
amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:
91 kgs
39
Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates
Failure of either primary or standby pack controller.
40
An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is and indication of:
The captain's and first officer's altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds.
41
An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates:
A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine.
42
An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicates:
The captains and first officer's airspeeds disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 seconds.
43
An amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE annunciation on the ND indicates:
The selected range on the EFIS control panel is different from the map display range
44
An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD means:
The captains and first officers attitude display differ by more than 5 degrees in roll
45
An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ____ times the flow rate of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump.
6 times
46
An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:
Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve has closed
47
An OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the Navigation Display (ND). To view the TA or RA an appropriate action would be:
increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel
48
An OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic panel illuminates inflight - what does this mean?
The hydraulic fluid used to cool & lubricate the related electric-driven pump has overheated or the pump itself has overheated
49
Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport on the DEP/ARR page:
both origin and destination airport are available
50
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
GA : (blank) : TO/GA
51
At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout is:
PLUS HUNDRED
52
At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:
and the BUS TRANSFER switch returns to OFF (spring loaded).to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.
53
At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:
to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.
54
At the end of the start cycle the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates:
when the APU is ready to accept a bleed air or electrical load.
55
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
350 feet RA
56
At what approximate altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
350 feet RA
57
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40
58
ATT:RST displayed in amber on an ISFD means
Attitude must be reset using the ATTITUDE RESET switch
59
Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate?
Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM
60
Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when:
The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
61
Autoslat operation is:
normally powered by hydraulic system B
62
Battery power is provided by:
Two 24 volt nickel–cadmium batteries, main and auxiliary, which are located in the electronics compartment.
63
Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until:
Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel.
64
Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:
DC bus 1 and DC bus 2
65
Choose the answer which best describes the operation of the engine bleed air valve when the engine bleed air switch is in the ON position.
The valve is DC activated and pressure operated.
66
Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft climbs to:
within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT
67
Current Mach number at the bottom of the airspeed indications tape on the PFD is displayed:
when airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above
68
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within:
7.4M of the nose
69
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:
Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's current altitude.
70
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:
Terrain more than 2,000 Ft. above airplane altitude.
71
Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost.
72
During 'TO/GA - Takeoff' pitch mode, the AFDS commands
10 degrees nose down until 60kts IAS
73
During a battery start, when does the EEC become energised?
At 15% N2
74
During a normal engine start, which of the following statement is true?
only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD
75
During a single engine go-around, one push of a TO/GA switch
F/D roll commands hold current ground track
76
During alternate brake operation, the following protection is provided:
Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.
77
During an autopilot ILS approach:
at glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other
78
During an engine start , when the engine start lever is positioned to IDLE detent, which of the following statements is correct?
The SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes
79
During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means:
The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
80
During an ILS approach, when the Radio Altimeter indication turns amber, this means
The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude minimums
81
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
50 feet.
82
During automatic landing the FLARE manoeuvre starts at approximately
50 feet RA
83
During cruise both centre tank fuel pumps have failed. There is still 460 kg in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit will show:
There will be no indication on CDS
84
During cruise the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates
position information is contradictory
85
During cruise you note both center tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. You will see:
There will be no indication on CDS
86
During descent, with engines at a low thrust setting
the high stage valve modulates open to maintain adequate bleed air pressure
87
During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE?
15 seconds
88
During engine start, if the EGT exceeds the starting limit, in what circumstances would the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
on the ground only
89
During engine start, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?
When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only
90
During flight you get MASTER CAUTION > AIR COND > WING-BODY OVERHEAT. Is this resettable?
No
91
During gear retraction, if loose tread on a spinning main gear tyre impacts a fitting in the wheel well opening:
that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position. The affected gear cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced.
92
During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if:
both loop A and B are sensing a FIRE or OVHT
93
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.
94
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.
95
During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as
30 volts
96
During single pack operation with TRIM AIR selected OFF:
the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average demands of all three zones
97
During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, what should you do?
position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not takeoff if light remains illuminated
98
During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from
0° to 1100° C
99
During undercarriage retraction:
the brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels; snubbers stop rotation of the nose wheels.
100
During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:
The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF-INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate
101
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots
102
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots
103
Electrical power to start the APU comes from:-
No. 1 transfer bus or the airplane main battery.
104
Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:
airspeed and stabilizer position
105
Engaging LVL CHG descent mode
automatically engages the A/T in RETARD, and then ARM when thrust is at idle
106
Engine number 1 bleed switch is in the ON position but the engine is not running. Will the number 1 bleed air valve be open?
No
107
Engine oil pressure is in the amber band at take-off thrust. Which of the following is true?
Do not take-off
108
Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds:
40kt
109
Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds:
40 knots
110
Extending the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:
by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits
111
Extinguisher continuity can be tested by pushing and holding the
EXT TEST switch
112
F/D Go-around. If both autopilots are not engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is available under which of the following conditions?
Inflight below 2000ft RA, Inflight above 2000ft RA with flaps not up or G/S captured and not in takeoff mode
113
Failure of one temperature controller will be annunicated to the crew by
“Zone Temp” On Master Caution recall
114
Failure of two temperature controllers will be annunicated to the crew by
Illumination of the Master Caution
115
Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing:
only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires
116
Flight spoiler deflection is initiated on the down going wing when the control wheel is displaced more than approximately:
10 degrees
117
Flight spoilers are operated:
2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B
118
For ground service, a GROUND SERVICE SWITCH is located:
on forward attendant´s panel.
119
For ground servicing, a GROUND SERVICE Switch is placed:
on the Forward Attendant ́s panel
120
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
453 Kgs.
121
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
453 Kgs
122
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
50 feet
123
From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs?
From the ADIRUs.
124
Fuel for the APU is normally (AC fuel pumps operating) supplied from:
The left side of the fuel manifold
125
Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:
Left side of the fuel manifold.
126
Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:
7 degrees.
127
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set.
128
How can TOGA be selected for takeoff if both flight directors are OFF?
Pressing TOGA after 80 knots and before 150 seconds after lift off.
129
How can VNAV be terminated?
selecting a different pitch mode
130
How do you activate the APU fire extinguisher from the wheel well?
Pull the T-handle down to arm the system, then move the discharge switch to the left position to fire the squib.
131
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Set the Filter Switch to B (Both)
132
How is an APU bleed air duct leak annunciated in the flight deck?
By the MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights
133
How is the accessory gearbox connected to the engine?
It is mechanically linked to the N2 rotor
134
How is the cabin altitude warning horn silenced?
By pushing the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch on the forward overhead panel.
135
How is the hard alternate mode entered?
When in Soft Alternate mode, retard the thrust lever or push the EEC switch
136
How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?
120 minutes
137
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
30 seconds
138
How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the APU FIRE protection system?
1
139
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
16
140
How many modes of control does the outflow valve have on the 737-800?
Three. One manual and two automatic - 'AUTO - ALTN - MAN'
141
How many positive pressure relief valves are on the 737-800?
2
142
How many pressure relief valves are fitted to provide safety pressure relief?
2
143
How many spark igniters are there on each engine?
2
144
How many times can the TRIP RESET button be used to reset a related system?
Unlimited number of times
145
How much greater is the fluid volume supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump, compared to the related electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
6 times greater.
146
Hydraulic system pressure indication on the lower DU is derived from:
combined engine and electric pump outputs.
147
If 'ON DC' on left IRS Mode Selector Unit comes ON steady it means:
the related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus
148
If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position:
the COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue
149
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, where is the Magenta "X-BLD" Indication displayed?
above the N2 dial
150
If a fire extinguisher is to be discharged on the flight deck:
all crewmembers to wear oxygen masks with 'EMERG' selected
151
If a landing is made with RTO selected:
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown
152
If a leak develops in the supply line to System A engine-driven hydraulic pump, what approximate reservoir quantity would you expect?
20% full
153
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts
154
If a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing and the speed brake is ARMED, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:
When the Air/Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses).
155
if a Wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what indications will the crew see?
The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT will illuminate bright blue
156
If aiplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:
will display box prompts
157
If airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:
will display box prompts
158
If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF:
the left pack maintains a fixed temperature 24°C and the right pack maintains 18°C as measured at the pack temperature sensor
159
If an engine fails in flight:
The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is information only and the execution light will not illuminate.
160
If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:
on the inboard display unit
161
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:
Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.
162
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:
The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
163
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:
The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
164
If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset.
A single GPS sensor unit has failed
165
If during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:
the flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid
166
If GROSS WT is not available from the FMC, the APPROACH REF page will be:
box prompts
167
If one cargo fire detector loop loses power:
the system automatically converts to a single loop detection system
168
If one of the two engine fire detection loops A or B fails, how will you notice this?
It will be noticed when performing the OVHT/FIRE test
169
If the aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer buses:
The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses if the APU is shut down.
170
If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indicaton:
Stick shaker activates for existing flight conditions.
171
If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator:
Stick shaker activates for existing flight condition.
172
If the amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates, what will the QRH direct you do?
position the pump switch to OFF
173
If the ambient temperature is below -35C how many minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust position?
2Min
174
If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown below the roll section of the FMAs?
CWS R in amber
175
If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown in the roll section of the FMAs?
CWS R in amber below the roll FMA.
176
If the forward thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown:
the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate
177
If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:
System A hydraulic pumps must be switched off.
178
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power from:
the switched on battery bus
179
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
The switched hot battery bus.
180
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illumunates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power from:
the switched hot battery bus
181
If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, what mode will the EEC automatically change to?
Soft alternate mode.
182
If the spoilers become jammed:
The captain's control wheel operates the ailerons
183
If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:
after 3 seconds in the advanced position, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
184
If windshear is encountered during F/D take-off or go-around, and vertical speed is less than +600fpm, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain
15 degrees nose up
185
If you switch off both ENGINE ANTI ICE switches in flight
The engine anti ice valves will shut and the stick shaker logic returns to normal.
186
Illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light in flight indicates:
This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.
187
Illumination (blue) of a Generator Off Bus (GEN OFF BUS) Light indicates:
the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus
188
Illumination (blue) of the APU GEN OFF BUS Light means the:
APU is running and not powering a bus
189
Illumination (blue) of the Ground Power Available (GRD POWER AVAILABLE) Light indicates:
ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards
190
Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates:
Both detector loops for an engine have failed.
191
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:
An over pressure in the duct between the engine anti ice valve and the engine cowl lip
192
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:
An over pressure in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.
193
Illumination of the 'APU DET INOP' Light will cause following lights to illuminate:
both 'MASTER CAUTION' and 'OVHT/DET'
194
Illumination of the 'BAT DISCHARGE' light indicates:
excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.
195
Illumination of the 'GND POWER AVAILABLE' light indicates:
ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards.
196
Illumination of the amber ‘DRIVE’ light on the overhead panel indicates:
IDG low oil pressure.
197
Illumination of the blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' means:
APU is running and not powering a bus.
198
Illumination of the blue 'GEN OFF BUS' light indicates:
the IDG is not supplying power to it's associated transfer bus.
199
Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicates:
possible backpressure of the APU
200
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer - VHF-1
201
In case of an engine overheat:
Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate.
202
In case of cargo compartment fire:
select the FWD ARMED or AFT ARMED switch then press the DISCH button
203
In degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Capt. VHF 1, F.O VHF 2, Observer VHF 1.
204
In flight A Predictive Windshear Warning Alert:
Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft
205
In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:
all galley busses are automatically shed
206
In flight if the APU is the only source of electrical power:
Automatic Load Shedding will disconnect all Main and Galley Busses.
207
In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning Alert system:
will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft
208
In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH:
None of RECIRC fans will operate.
209
In flight with the 'STANDBY POWER' switch in the AUTO position, loss of all AC generators Will result in:
AC Standby Bus is supplied by the static: inverter and DC Standby Bus is supplied by battery.
210
In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power:
All galley busses and main busses are automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both IFE busses are also automatically shed.
211
In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master Fire Warn Lights, silences the fire warning bell, and:
resets the system for additional warnings
212
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select approach idle?
flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
213
In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow valve is driven by?
a motor supplied from DC standby bus
214
In normal operation, engine overheat and fire detection alerts are triggered when
Both loops sense an overheat or fire
215
In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values?
FMC
216
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
System A
217
In order to extend the life of the APU, & stabilization time of ____ is recommended before using it as & bleed air source:
1 minute
218
In the event of an elevator control column jam, an override mechanism allows:
The control columns to be physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.
219
In the event of an elevator jam, an override mechanism allows:
The control columns to be physically separated.
220
In the PACK fail non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
221
In the remote situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause an accumulation of dissolved air to obstruct the suction feed line.
222
In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert automatically show the TCAS Traffic Alert message if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?
In MAP, centre MAP, VOR or APP modes
223
In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert message automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?
In MAP, centre MAP, PLAN or APP modes
224
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC be displayed whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
All modes
225
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
on the ground or in flight
226
In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
227
In-flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
it receives fuel by suction feed via the bypass valve in tank No.1
228
Is automatic shutdown protection provided for the APU in the event of an APU fire if the APU fire detection system is inoperative?
No
229
Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:
prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed
230
Landing gear uplock is released when:
manual gear extension handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24inches (61cm).
231
LNAV will automatically disengage:
Reaching a route discontinuity.
232
Logo lights are installed on:
top of both horizontal stabilizers
233
Logo lights are installed on:
top of each horizontal stabilizer
234
Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is:
3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43 degrees, whichever is higher.
235
Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU:
on the ground or in flight
236
Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:
3000psi.
237
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
MAINT
238
On aircraft from EI-DPY there are new annunciators installed. Which?
Takeoff Config light and Cabin Altitude light
239
On selection of FAULT/INOP we would expect to see
Both Master Caution, OVHT/DET system annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights illuminate
240
On take off the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
241
On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
242
On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi:
As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.
243
On the FMC FIX INFO page the RAD/DIS FR indicates:
the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position
244
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position
245
On the ground, for primary ATC communication:
Always use No.1 VHF radio.
246
On the ground, the TR UNIT Light illuminates (amber) if:
Any TR has failed.
247
On the ground, with both Air Conditioning PACK Switches positioned to HIGH (and both packs operating) and both Recirculation RECIRC FAN Switches positioned to AUTO:
Only the Right recirculation fan will operate
248
On the ground, with both pack switches set to HIGH and both RECIRC FANs selected to AUTO:
the left recirculation fan will shut down
249
On the ground, with the Battery (BAT) Switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
not powered
250
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
not powered
251
Once activated, a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen supply:
flows for approximately 12 minutes
252
Once activated, a PSU oxygen supply:
flows for approximately 12 minutes
253
One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:
there is no paralleling of the AC power sources.
254
Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch set to STANDBY:
does not require the BAT switch to be ON
255
Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY:
does not require the BAT switch to be ON
256
Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:-
results in the total discharge of the cargo compartment fire extinguisher bottle contents into the cargo hold selected by the cargo fire ARMED switch
257
Operating the EXT TEST Switch:
to position 1 or 2 tests bottle discharge circuits for all three extinguisher bottles
258
Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on:
engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power
259
Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on:
engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door status
260
Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependent on:
engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door door open/closed status, DC power
261
Overheat detection is available for
Engines
262
Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to OVHT/FIRE position:
tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engines and APU, and wheel well fire detector
263
Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests:
The fault detection circuit for both engines and APU.
264
Positioning an engine-driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF:
Isolates the hydraulic fluid flow from the system components, but the pump keeps rotating as long as the engine is running
265
Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
Adjusts stick shaker logic and minimum maneuver speed bars whilst the switch is in the ON position
266
Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight:
Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on the airspeed indications and remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
267
Predictive windshear alerts are issued when:
below 1,200 feet RA
268
Prior to returning to the oil tank, what does engine oil pass through?
the scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler
269
Pulling an engine fire-warning switch up:
closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve
270
Pulling the APU Fire switch up
Provides backup for the automatic shutdown feature
271
Pulling the engine fire switch up will
Close both the engine fuel shutoff and spar shutoff valves
272
Pulling the number 2 engine fire switch up will
isolate the System B engine driven Hydraulic pump but the electric motor driven pump maintains System B pressure.
273
Pushing the ATTEND call switch:
sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights
274
Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel:
improves reception of weak signals
275
Reference to Overheat/Fire Protection Panel. FAULT light illuminated amber, choose the correct answer:
With the overheat detector switch in NORMAL - indicates both detector loops for an engine have failed.
276
Retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:
by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits
277
Select the correct statement:
The correct answer is: The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.
278
Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to:
ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
279
Selecting the APU switch to OFF position trips the APU generator, closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguishes the APU GEN OFF BUS light. To allow for a cooling period, APU shutdown will occur automatically after a delay of _____ seconds:
60
280
Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:
energizes the blocking valve to block pump output.
281
Switching the CAB/UTIL Switch to the OFF position removes electrical power from all 115v AC galley busses and also from the:
left and right recirculation fans
282
The 'GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:
the AC ground power cart has been disconnected.
283
The 'TR UNIT' light Will illuminate in flight if:
TR1 fails.
284
The accessories gearbox receives drive from:
the N2 rotor
285
The aircraft is not certified for operations:
above 82N or below 82S
286
The aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer busses:
the generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
287
The airspeed range for fully enabled speed trim operation is:
100 KIAS - Mach 0.60
288
The alpha vanes provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, auto throttle, autopilot, auto slats and are anti-iced:
By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches.
289
The ALTERNATE FLAP Master Switch in ARM position:
arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and closes the TE Flap Bypass Valve.
290
The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch selected to ARM:
Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve
291
The amber 'ELEC' light will illuminate on the ground if:
a fault exists in the DC power or standby power system.
292
The amber 'STANDBY POWER OFF' light will illuminate if:
AC standby bus unpowered.
293
The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.
294
The amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:
91 kgs
295
The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT Light
is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight
296
The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed:
Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
297
The APU can supply both bleed air and electrical load up to an altitude of:
10,000 feet
298
The APU can supply both transfer buses:
On the ground or in the air.
299
The APU can supply electrical load only up to an altitude of:
41,000 feet
300
The APU generator can supply both transfer busses:
on the ground or in flight
301
The APU start cycle may take as long as ____ seconds.
120 seconds
302
The aural alert for excessive bank angle is:
BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE
303
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely cause is:
RTO mode selected on the ground.
304
The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch:
when set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above 90kts during takeoff.
305
The AUTO FAIL light is illuminated together with ALTN light. What does it indicate?
This indicates a single controller failure.
306
The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin pressurisation panel is illuminated alone.
This indicates a dual controller failure.
307
The Auto position of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) On/Auto switch:
Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
308
The AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall. The light extinguishes when master caustion system is reset. This indicates:
failure of a single Stall Management/Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.
309
The autoslat system:
drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approaches a stall.
310
The bleed air pressure indicator has L and R pointers. These pointers:
may indicate a L/R duct pressure difference which is considered normal as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurisation
311
The BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates an
Overpressure or Overheat in the bleed air duct system
312
The BLEED TRIP OFF light:
Indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure or temperature.
313
The blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' light will illuminate:
when the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC transfer bus
314
The brake accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:
parking brake system
315
The Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings:
both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated
316
The cabin begins to pressurize
on the ground at high power settings
317
The call system from flight deck to an attendant station in the passenger cabin operates:
pink master call lights and a two-tone chime
318
The call system from flight deck to cabin operates:
pink call lights and a two-tone chime
319
The cargo compartment fire detection system has dual detection loops and in normal operation:
both loops must detect the presence of smoke to cause an alert.
320
The cargo compartment fire protection system includes:
A single fire extinguisher bottle
321
The cargo compartments have
Smoke detection powered by DC Bus 1 and DC bus 2
322
The center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operates when:
the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full
323
The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full
324
The cockpit voice decorrer records audio for:
120 minutes
325
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased by:
Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set
326
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:
Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft on ground with parking brake ON
327
The cockpit voice recorder records audio for:
120 minutes
328
The columns and wheels are connected through transfer mechanisms which allow the pilots to bypass a jammed control or surface. If the ailerons control system is jammed, force applied to:
force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers. The ailerons and the Captain’s control wheel are inoperative.
329
The controller programs the cabin to land slightly pressurized. After landing to depressurize the aircraft:
while taxiing in, the controller slowly drives the outflow valve fully open.
330
The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber:
to indicate an overpressure condition in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve
331
The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber:
to indicate excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip
332
The Cross Bus Tie relay:
opens if the BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF.
333
The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents:
predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals
334
The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:
independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel
335
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit ( ISDU ) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is shown in the right window:
right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete
336
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right window?
Minutes remaining until alignment is complete
337
The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated amber. This indicates:
Eng No 1 BLEED air switch ON and APU bleed air valve open
338
The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode?
Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel.
339
The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode?
Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel
340
The Electrical (ELEC) Light will illuminate in flight if:
the ELEC light only operates on the ground
341
The Emergency Exit Lights switch, when placed in the ARMED position:
illuminates all emergency lights automatically if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off
342
The ENG ANTI-ICE switch are positioned to ON in flight. The stall warning logic:
Adjusts stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the airspeed indicator.
343
The engine and APU fire detection systems are run from the
Battery Bus
344
The engine bleed air valve acts as:
a pressure regulator and shutoff valve
345
The equipment cooling system comprises:
4 fans
346
The equipment cooling system comprises:
4 fans - 2 supply duct and 2 exhaust duct
347
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?
the Captain's and First Officer's pitch angle displays differ by more than 5 degrees
348
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?
the Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
349
The flap load relief system is operational at (assume for aircraft YC496 through YW097):
flaps 30 and 40
350
The Flap Load Relief system:
will retract the TE Flaps from 40 to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots.
351
The flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provides:
protection for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position
352
The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector rotated to the EMERGENCY position:
supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude
353
The flight crew oxygen system pressure may be as high as:
1850psi
354
The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks/regulators with pressure breathing starting at:
27,000 feet
355
The flight directors must be ON to engage the AFDS in Go around mode?
FALSE
356
The FMC advisory message "BUFFET ALERT" indicates:
Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than required.
357
The FMC alerting message 'RESET MCP ALT' means:
aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP
358
The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:
position information is contradictory on the ground only
359
The FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT means:
The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP
360
The FMC alerting message VERIFY GW AND FUEL is shown in the CDU scratchpad:
When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually
361
The forward cabin temperature control fails.
FWD CAB Temperature selector works normally, but the cabin temperature is maintained at the average of the FWD and AFT CAB temperature selector settings.
362
The FSEU (flap/slat electronic unit) provides:
protection and indication for TE Flap asymmetry, skew and uncommanded motion.
363
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1 is:
present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system
364
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page is:
total fuel onboard, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system
365
The FWD and AFT cargo compartments each have smoke detectors
In a dual loop configuration. Normally, both detection loops must sense smoke to cause an alert
366
The FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates amber. This indicates duct temperature overheat.
The system may be reset by pushing the TRIP RESET switch
367
The Galley busses are powered from:
the AC Transfer busses.
368
The green LE FLAPS EXT light:
illuminates for all LE devices fully extended (TE flap positions 10 - 40).
369
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver.
370
The indications for the Cargo Fire test
Fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate, the extinguisher test lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate, and the cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates
371
The indications of an engine overheat are:
Both MASTER CAUTION lights, the related ENG OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminate.
372
The isolation valve is _____ operated?
AC
373
The ISOLATION VALVE switch is in the AUTO position, both engine bleed switches are ON, the L PACK switch is in the AUTO position and the R PACK switch is in the HIGH position. What is the position of the isolation valve?
Closed
374
The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked:
with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees)
375
The Landing Gear Transfer Unit:
Ensures System B can assist raising the gear on loss of System A
376
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?
On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flaps 30 with any gear not down and locked
377
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced. What is the aircraft's condition?
On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flap 30 with any gear not down and locked
378
The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC's alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters
379
The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:
yes
380
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning:
a clacker
381
The main wheel well has
Fire detection only
382
The maximum differential pressure is:
9.10 psi
383
The minimum equipment requirement for RAs to be generated is if the other airplane has a working:
Mode C transponder.
384
The Navigation Display (ND) wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:
Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots
385
The number of flight spoilers located on each wing are:
4
386
The number of ground spoilers on each wing are:
2
387
The number of slats located on each wing are:
Four outboard of each engine
388
The outflow valve position indicator indicates the position of the outflow valve:
in all modes
389
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
Passenger oxygen system is activated
390
The position trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on the ND in modes MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents:
predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals
391
The power source for Fire Extinguishing is:
the Hot Battery Bus
392
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:
Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.
393
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides an alternative source of power for the Autoslat system if:
A loss of pressure from Hydraulic System B engine driven pump is sensed
394
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which of the following items?
autoslats
395
The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of hydraulic power for the Autoslat System if:
a loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine-driven pump is sensed.
396
The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light is inhibited:
at all times in flight, when the thrust levers are advanced toward takeoff power at any time and for 30 seconds after landing.
397
The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors:
takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors
398
The purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit is to:
automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No.1 engine is lost and the landing gear lever is positioned up
399
The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and both PROBE HEAT switches are in the ON position. What does this indicate?
The right elevator pitot is not heated
400
The RA aural alert 'CLIMB' CLIMB NOW' means:
Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA.
401
The Recirculation Fan:
reduces air conditioning pack load and the engine bleed air demand
402
The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?
Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position OR the landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).
403
The right IRS is electrically powered from:
normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes
404
The right primary pack control fails. The right pack:
is controlled by the left pack standby control
405
The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND FUEL appears:
When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be entered manually.
406
The SMYD computers receive inputs from:
anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs
407
The Stabilizer Trim Override Switch on the Aft Electronic Panel, when set to OVERRIDE:
Bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches on each control wheel
408
The supplemental and temporary data bases have storage capacity for:
40 navaids and 6 airports
409
The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:
stabilizer trim is not in the green band
410
The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:
A solid white diamond
411
The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:
A white solid diamond
412
The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from
EGPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position
413
The Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each N1 indicator:
if green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON
414
The thrust mode display on the upper DU shows A/T LIM in white. This means
the FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values, the A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC
415
The TR ́s ( Transformer Rectifier Units ) convert:
115 volts AC to 28 volts DC
416
The TR UNIT light will illuminate (amber) in flight if:
TR1 has failed
417
The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is:
all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.
418
The trailing edge flaps are set to position 15. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is (assume for non-Short Field Performance aircraft YC496 through YW097):
all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated green
419
The vertical speed in white shown at the bottom of the vertical speed indication will show when the vertical speed exceeds:
400 feet per minute
420
The wheel well is
Monitored by a single fire detector loop. As the temperature of the detector increases above a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition
421
The window heat PWR TEST switch
provides a confidence test
422
The wing anti-ice system provides protection for:
the three inboard leading edge slats on each wing
423
The wing ANTI-ICE:
Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist.
424
The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?
AIR COND
425
The yaw damper indicator:
indicates main yaw damper movement of rudder; pilot rudder pedal inputs are not indicated.
426
To extend the Fwd Airstair from outside the aircraft
The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open
427
To receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio:
set the Filter Switch to BOTH
428
To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select:
POS REF page 2/3
429
To silence the fire bell you can press either of the two Master Fire Warning (FIRE WARN) lights on the glareshield. There is another switch which will also silence the fire bell. Where is it located?
On the fire protection panel
430
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. What affect will one radio altimeter becoming inoperative have on the Autopilot?
the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture
431
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio altimeter inoperative, how long after LOC and GS capture will the autopilot disconnect?
2 seconds
432
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to op erate specific equipment. The PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine–driven hydraulic pump drops below limits
433
Under normal conditions the AC Standby Bus is powered from:
AC Transfer Bus No 1.
434
Under normal operation the packs will produce an air temperature to satisfy
the zone that requires the most cooling.
435
Under what circumstances will the V Speed be removed from the FMC, the No V Speed Flag reappear on tthe PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEED DELETED appear?
After the first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page
436
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
After first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
437
Up to how long might the APU start cycle take?
120 seconds
438
Up to what altitude may the APU be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously?
10,000 ft.
439
VNAV is terminated by:
selecting a different pitch mode
440
Warm air from the E & E bay is:
diffused to the lining of the forward cargo compartment in flight at high cabin differential pressures
441
What abnormal start protection is available?
On the ground only and for hot, wet, stall and EGT exceedances
442
What additional engine fire indication is shown or heard on the flight deck of later aircraft (from registration EI-FIV through EI-GXN) in the event of engine fire or during an engine fire test?
The engine start lever will illuminate red.
443
What additional items are detected on the LHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” alert light that are not the RHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” system?
Bleed duct from APU and Keel Beam
444
What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.
445
What are the indications of a cargo fire?
The fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate and the FWD/AFT cargo fire warning light(s) illuminates.
446
What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
The Engine Start Switch returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes
447
What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:
airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
448
What do the 3 green lights indicate, when the EXT TEST switch is moved to either 1 or 2 position?
That the circuit continuity from the squib to the engine and APU fire switch is checked.
449
What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?
POS REF page 2/3
450
What does a flashing RED autopilot indicator light mean?
Autopilot has disconnected
451
What does BOV stand for and what will be the effect of it on the flight directors?
BOV: Bias out of view, removes either the pitch or roll flight director depending on the event causing the bias out of view.
452
What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?
Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified.
453
What does the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicate?
Position information is contradictory on the ground only.
454
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP
455
What does the illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light indicate, during climb?
This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.
456
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD)?
hydraulic pressure and quantity only
457
What fault indications can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch?
ZONE TEMP, PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF
458
What fixed temperature will the left pack maintain If all the temperature selectors are positioned OFF?
24°C
459
What FMAs would be expected on selection of HEADING SELECT and VERTICAL SPEED?
MCP SPD / HDG SEL / VS
460
What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?
Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
461
What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO?
maximum braking is applied automatically when the forward thrust levers are retarded to idle
462
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
the display opens up and shows FMC target speed
463
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
only attitude and heading information
464
What is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active
465
What is correct about the colour on the terrain display?
Solid red - look ahead terrain warning is active
466
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP.
467
What is one indication of a leak in the Standby Hydraulic System?
decrease in System B quantity
468
What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?.
56% N2
469
What is the cause of a wing-body overheat?
A bleed air duct leak
470
What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN Light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
illuminated bright blue
471
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim
472
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes
473
What is the effect on the spark igniters if the start switches are position to FLT?
Both igniters operate with the start lever in idle regardless of the position of the ignition select switch
474
What is the EGT limit for engine starting on the ground?
725°C
475
What is the electrical power source of the APU fire detection system?
the Battery Bus
476
What is the electrical power source of the engine overheat and fire detection system?
the battery bus
477
What is the electrical source of power for the cargo compartment smoke
the DC bus 1 and the DC bus 2
478
What is the electrical source of power for the engine fire extinguishing system?
The Hot battery bus
479
What is the flight deck annunciation if one cargo smoke detector in a loop fails?
The DETECTOR FAULT light will illuminate, but only when a cargo fire test is manually initiated.
480
What is the function of the TRIP RESET switch on the overhead pressurization panel?
To reset a bleed trip off, pack trip off and zone temp malfunction
481
What is the hydraulic sysytem maximum pressure indication, and what colour is it displayed?
3500 psi in white
482
What is the indication of Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
Illuminated bright blue
483
What is the indication of the Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
illuminated bright blue
484
What is the maximum authorized thrust reduction below any certified rating?
25,00%
485
What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS) A
+\- 0.1
486
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
20,000 feet
487
What is the maximum permitted lever position of the speed brake lever in flight?
FLIGHT DETENT
488
What is the maximum thrust reduction authorized below any certified rating?
25%
489
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
800 feet
490
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
760 Kgs in the related main tank.
491
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
24.3M
492
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
24.3 Meters
493
What is the number of the extinguisher bottles fitted for the cargo compartment fire suppression system?
1 bottle
494
What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
To Isolate the left and the right sides of the bleed air duct.
495
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient
496
What is the purpose of the ram air system?
To provide cooling for the heat exchangers
497
What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?
To reduce the workload on the PACKs
498
What is the range of the individual temperature selectors?
Approximately 18°C to 30°C
499
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Blue call light illuminates and a single chime is heard.
500
What is the result of a fluid leak in the System A electric motor-driven pump?
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
501
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
Sounds a two-tone chime in the passenger cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights.
502
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
Improves reception of weak signals.
503
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
the Battery Bus
504
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?
35.79 Meters
505
What is the wingspan of a wingleted aircraft?
35.79M
506
What is the wingtip height of a blended wing aircraft?
6.4 M.
507
What is the wingtip height of a blended wing aircraft?
6.42M
508
What items make up the Automatic Flight System (AFS)?
the autopilot, flight directors (AFDS) and the autothrottles (A/T)
509
What modes can the EECs operate in?
Normal, Soft Alternate and Hard Alternate
510
What must be sensed by the detector loops to cause an engine overheat/fire alert?
Temperature
511
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
DC from Hot Battery Bus
512
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
MCP SPD
513
What position should the ignition select switch be in for operations from a manned maintenance station?
Right
514
What powers the AUTOSLAT system?
is normally powered by Hydraulic System B
515
What systems can the Standby Hydraulic System power when activated?
Standby yaw damper, LE Flaps and Slats (extend only), Thrust Reversers and the Rudder
516
What systems need pneumatic power for operation?
Engine starting, Air conditioning/Pressurization, wing and engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization
517
What will be displayed in the FMAs if in level flight on a radar heading and APP mode is selected prior to LQG/GS capture?
MCP SPD / HDG SEL (VORLOC below in white) /ALT HOLD (GS below in white)
518
What will be displayed in the FMAs if LVL change is selected in descent? (LNAV selected as the roll mode)
RETARD then ARM / LNAV / MCP SPD
519
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
GROSS WT will display box prompts
520
What would system B hydraulic fluid indication decrease to, if there was a leak in the standby hydraulic system?
Approximately 72%
521
When a lavatory fire is detected:
the fire extinguisher operates automatically
522
When an active database expires in flight:
The expired data base continues to be used until the data base is changed after landing.
523
When an active navigation database expires in flight:
The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing.
524
When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?
The NO SMOKING Signs are illuminated at all times
525
When Auto is selected, FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs:
illuminate when flap or gear are extended
526
When below radio altitude minimums, the Rad Alt display on the PFD:
dial perimeter and pointer turn amber and flash for 3 seconds
527
When both hydraulic pumps for a system are off, the indicated system pressure may read system reservoir pressure, this is normally?
less than 100psi
528
When can you expect the EGPWS 'five hundred' call?
When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
529
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle has not exceeded what angle?
6 degrees
530
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle is:
6 degrees or less
531
When does a magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display show?
The speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged
532
When does the Rad Alt display a digital readout only?
Between 2,500ft AGL and 1,000ft AGL
533
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
The highest of the other three answers
534
When extending or retracting the TE Flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow 15 seconds to elapse between consecutive selections:
to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.
535
When is a resolution advisory generated?
When the other aircraft is approx 25 seconds from point of closest approach
536
When is the "RF" Indication dispayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engine shutdown.
537
When is the current Mach numberdisplayed at the bottom of the airspeed indications tapeon the PFD?
When airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above
538
When is the descent mode activated if the pressurization mode selector is in the AUTO position?
When the aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT.
539
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
540
When operating on standby power only:
the Captain's PFD and ND will operate
541
When operating on standby power:
only the CAPT's pitot probe is heated
542
When operating on standby power:
Only the captain's pitot probe is heated and the CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure.
543
When operating on standby power:
Only the captain's pitot probe is heated. The CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure.
544
When operating with normal power sources available, placing the Battery (BAT) Switch to OFF will remove power from:
The battery bus and switched hot battery bus.
545
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities:
Select TA
546
When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct?
Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the backup system has occurred.
547
When selecting reverse thrust, when can the reverse thrust levers be increased beyond the idle detent?
Once the reverser sleeves approach the fully deployed position
548
When the aircraft batteries are the only source of power:
The Captain's inboard and outboard DUs operate until the battery is discharged.
549
When the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
550
When the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch is selected DOWN:
this fully extends LE devices using standby hydraulic pressure, electrically extends TE flaps.
551
When the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode:
First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF 2
552
When the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF:
The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close.
553
When the gear is down with 3 greens showing on the centre panel:
the gear is down and locked, even if a corresponding landing gear indicator light on the overhead panel is NOT illuminated.
554
When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, under normal circumstances the landing gear extends by:
all of the above.
555
When the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open:
manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.
556
When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly:
there will be a GPWS 'minimums' callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector
557
When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF (the center position):
The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will illuminate (amber)
558
Umiesz? :*
559
When the STANDBY POWER switch is selected OFF:
AC standby bus, static inverter, and DC standby bus are not powered.
560
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet
561
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
after failure of the number 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up
562
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
Reaching a route discontinuity.
563
When will the deflector doors extend?
On the ground prior to liftoff and after touchdown.
564
When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?
When descending 0.25psi below the selected altitude
565
When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?
When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually.
566
When will the fuel LOW alert be display?
When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank
567
When will the low fuel warning be activated?
When the fuel tank quantity is below 453kgs in related main tank
568
Where are the “Bleed Air” trip sensors located?
Before and after the bleed air valve
569
Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?
Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.
570
Where does air for APU cooling enter?
enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet
571
Where is the Air Driven Starter fitted?
On the front of the accessory gearbox
572
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
after passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve
573
Where is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed on the flight deck?
On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel
574
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located?
In main fuel tank No.1.
575
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes
576
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
THR HLD and ARM
577
Which are the correct FMA modes, during NADP 2, A/P engaged, before flaps up (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD
578
Which are the indication of an engine FIRE?
The Fire Warning Bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN illuminate and the related Engine Fire switch illuminates.
579
Which bus is always connected to the main battery?
Hot Battery Bus
580
Which bus powers the auxiliary battery charger?
AC ground service bus 1
581
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
AC ground service bus 2
582
Which engines power the Boeing 737-800?
CFM56-7 dual-rotor axial-flow turbofans
583
Which flight instrument displays are available when the batteries are the only source of power:
Captain's inboard ND and Captain's outboard PFD.
584
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2
585
Which is the ND symbol for a traffic advisory?
Solid amber circle
586
Which light will illuminate if the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle?
the FAULT light illuminates
587
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
EMER
588
Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected during a dual channel A/P approach?
APP
589
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
APP
590
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves
591
Which of the following actions would terminate VNAV?
selecting a different pitch mode
592
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
Lavatory Fire warning light
593
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
Lavatory Fire warning light
594
which of the following anunciator are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
Lavatory Fire warning ligth
595
Which of the following are not heated?
Static ports
596
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.
597
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.
598
Which of the following conditions will cause the AUTOFAIL light to illuminate?
Excessive differential pressure (> 8.75 psi)
599
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?
It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to OFF.
600
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
601
Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?
the thrust reverser is deployed
602
Which of the following statements would cause the EEC to automatically turn off ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when the EGT display box and dial turn red?
the EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts
603
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the down position.
604
Which of these conditions would cause FCCs to control their respective flight director modes (neither autopilot engaged in command)?
GA mode engaged and below 400ft RA
605
Which of these could cause a steady RED AUTOPILOT indicator light?
ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go–around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation
606
Which of these is an AFDS status mode?
FD
607
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
608
Which one of these will cause the autopilot to disconnect?
All of the other answers are correct
609
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
Always use the VHF-1 radio.
610
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.
611
Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?
Displays present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system
612
Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?
The engine out cruise (ENG OUT CRZ) page is information only and the EXEC light will not illuminate.
613
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
A single GPS sensor unit has failed
614
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
The flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid.
615
Which statement is correct in relation to the APU fuel supply:
If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from the No. 1 tank. During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing.
616
Which statement is correct regarding ground operations of the electric-driven hydraulic pumps?
A minimum of 760kg of fuel must be present in the related main tank
617
Which statement is correct regarding the APU Bleed Air Valve:
The APU bleed air valve is DC controlled and pressure operated
618
Which statement is correct regarding the supply of bleed air from the APU:
The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground, or one pack in flight
619
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing
620
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
Both the origin and destination airport are available.
621
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
622
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF-2.
623
Which statement is NOT true with regard to the lavatory smoke detection system?
If the lavatory smoke detection system is actiated, lavatory fire extinguisher system activates automatically.
624
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.
625
Which statement is true?
rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends
626
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
System A.
627
Which systems use engine bleed air for operation?
Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks pressurization.
628
Which turbine stages supply air to the bleed air systems?
5th and 9th stages
629
Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
L1 only
630
While flying an ILS approach, to inhibit a BELOW G/S alert:
Push the BELOW G/S light (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1,000 feet radio altimeter).
631
While making a no engine bleed takeoff with the APU operating, an engine failure occurs. When should the engine BLEED Air Switches be positioned to ON?
When reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached.
632
While performing the APPROACH checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall, this indicates:
a problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight
633
Whilst on the ground with WING ANTI-ICE selected ON, advancing the thrust levers to the take-off setting will cause:
both wing anti-ice control valves close and the WING ANTI-ICE switch remains in the ON position
634
Whilst on the ground with wing anti-ice selected ON, advancing the thrust levers To the take-off setting will cause:
both wing anti-ice valves to close and the WING ANTI-ICE switches remain set at ON
635
Whith the Captain's ACP operating is in degraded mode, at that station:
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard
636
Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit?
To hinder inadvertent flap lever movement beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-around
637
Will the APU automatic shutdown protection occur with an APU Fire and the APU Detection Inoperative?
No
638
With a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around, what are the correct FMAs (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)? Note: assume for aircraft Tab numbers YA573 through YW058
G/A : (blank) : TO/GA
639
With command A engage and FMAs displaying MCP SPD/LNAV/ALT HOLD, which FCC is the master?
FCC A
640
With ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when would automatic ignition will occur?
rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM and engine start lever isin IDLE
641
With loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally):
Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available.
642
With pack switches set to AUTO, if one pack fails, when does the remaining pack provide high air flow:
when the aircraft is in flight with flaps retracted
643
With TCAS, proximate traffic:
is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically
644
With the AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to RTO, autobraking is initiated:
when wheel speed is 90 knots or more and the thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
645
With the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:
Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.
646
With the engine running at stabilised idle, what drives the accessory gearbox?
the N2 rotor
647
With the Manual Extension Access Door open:
manual landing gear extension is possible with the Landing Gear Lever in any position.
648
With the Multifunction Display Switch (MFD) in SYS, the lower DU shows:
hydraulic pressure and quantity only
649
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Pump continues to run, but output is isolated from system components
650
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power will cause the AC standby bus to be powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus to be powered directly from the batteries:
both in the air and on the ground
651
With the temperature control placed in the “OFF” position, the pack controls maintain a fixed temperature of:
Left pack 24 – Right pack 18
652
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
the isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position
653
Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:
by either trim or rudder pedals inputs
654
ZONE TEMP amber light illumination for CONT CAB indicates:
A duct temperature overheat or failure of both flight deck primary and standby temperature controlle
