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Piedmont Techincal > Techincal > Flashcards

Techincal Flashcards

1
Q

what would happen when the temp/dp get close?

A

Clouds forms when temp and dew point are equal. As the temp decrease to the DP the cloud base drops lower

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2
Q

How to circumnavigate TS

A

Upwind by at least 20nm

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3
Q

What WX do you expect when updrafts go into stratisphere?

A 
SuperCell/Steady State TS
       Updrafts up to 9,000 fpm
	Large hail	
	Damaging winds
	Tornadoes 
W/ All TS        
LAD MM HR SET
       Lightning
        Adverse winds
	Downburst 
        Mod to Severe Turb
	Mod to Severe Icing
	Hail 
	Rapid altimeter changes 
	Static Electricity 
        Engine water ingestion
	Tornadoes
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4
Q

What is the characteristics of moisture travel INSIDE a thunderstorm.

A

Initial/cumulus stage: warm air moves upward cools and condenses. The water vapor condenses into water droplets or ice.

Mature stage: The water droplets become heavy enough and fall to the ground creating downdrafts. The downdraft hits the ground and begins to spread out.

Dissipating stage: the downdraft overtakes updraft.

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5
Q

What’s the difference between an Airmass thunderstorm and a Steady State thunderstorm?

A

Airmass TS
generally Last 1 hour or less
Generally weak

SuperCell/Steady State TS
       Last for hours
       Updrafts up to 9,000 fpm
	Large hail	
	Damaging winds
	Tornadoes
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6
Q

What power setting would you use to get out of a microburst?

A

Max

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7
Q

What is the most hazardous type of precipitation?

A

Freezing Rain

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8
Q

What does freezing rain at lower altitudes indicate?

A

warmer air above

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9
Q

Convert 12 Celsius to Fahrenheit

F to C calculation

A

Cx2 + 30 = F

(F - 32)/2 = C

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10
Q

Whats an inverter?

A

DC to AC

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11
Q

Describe the anti-ice system on your current aircraft.

A

Pneumatic a/i for the engine cowls and wing slats
Airborne: Ice detectors detected ice and automatically
turn on eng and wing a/i

Ground: selected based on the temperatures and Icing       
               conditions 
    ON:  ENG After Engine Start, WING 40kts
    OFF: 1700' agl or 2 min

Pitots, Static Ports, windshied and water lines are electrically heated

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12
Q

What if there is no TAF at the airport, how will you know if you need an alternate?

A

use area forecast

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13
Q

what are the speed limits for holding

A

6,000 and blw - 200 - 1 min
6,001 to 14,000 - 230 - 1 min
14,001 and abv - 265 - 1.5 min

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14
Q

Seating Capacity of EMB 145 and how many CC are reqd.

A

50 seats

1 CC

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15
Q

An aft CG will bring rise to what characteristic?

A

Higher Cruise speed
Lower Stall speed
less stable, more maneuverable

Due to less tail down force and decreased AOA

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16
Q

How far do the white and red lights extend down the end of the runway?

A

last 1,000’ - red lights

3,000’ - 1,000’ - alt red and white lights

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17
Q

When do runway edge lights change to Amber?

A

last 2,000’

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18
Q

How far do the touchdown markings extend?

A

3,000’ or half the runway whichever is less

Markings are spaced at 500-foot increments

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19
Q

Where do taxiway lead off lights end?

A

The taxiway lights run from the runway centerline to one centerline light position beyond the runway.

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20
Q

What are taxiway light colors?

A

blue

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21
Q

What color are taxiway centerline lights?

A

green

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22
Q

What color lights flash if you are low on approach on a PAPI?

A

red

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23
Q

What is an LDA?

A

Non Prec. app

 Localizer-type Direction Aid: 
comparable to a localizer
Not aligned with the runway
     straight-in min if w/in 30 deg. 
     Circling min if more than 30 deg.
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24
Q

What does the asterisk on Jepp mean above the frequency?

A

part time tower

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25
Q

On an ILS approach plate how is the final approach POINT displayed

A

the final approach POINT is defined as the glide slope intercept at the published altitude while on the localizer

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26
Q

Walk me through how to circle on this approach?

A

1.5 nm downwind, gear down, flaps 3
30 sec after threshold turn final, set landing flaps
adjust descent based on distance vs alt

Adjust time
1 sec less per 10kt tailwind
1 sec more per 10kt headwind

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27
Q

What happens when you lose one engine?

A

lose 50%, 80% performance

Aviate
Navigate
Communicate

Control the airplane with rudder
Advance TL to Toga

Set Driftdown Alt
Set Green Dot Speed
FLCH when on Speed

ID, Memory Items, QRH

Advise ATC

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28
Q

where can you find the MVA

A

published for controllers

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29
Q

calculate a VDP

A

HAT/3

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30
Q

what is wind-shear and how does it affect an a/c

A

any change in speed or direction.

HW to TW - Loss of performance, nose pitches down, IAS decreases, GS increases

TW to HW - increase in performance, nose pitches up, IAS increases, GS Decreases

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31
Q

WWYD if captain wanted to go below minimums on an approach.

A

call GA on radio

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32
Q

What would you do if after being cleared to land on the runway and realizing that you lost comms?

A

land. exit the runway, stop after exiting and look for light gun signals.
Back up radio
QRH - Lost Comm
Call ground on cell phone, request follow me.

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33
Q

How much space do you give a TS, wake, Windshear

A

TS - 20nm upwind

Windshear - 15 min

Wake
        Behind super – 7
	Behind heavy – 5
	Behind 757 – 4
	Behind Large – MRS
	Behind small – MRS
   2 min or appropriate radar separation behind larger 
       aircraft
            3 min from intersection or in opposite direction
    3 min appropriate radar separation behind super
        4 min from intersection or in opposite direction
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34
Q

What color are runway leadoff lights?

A

alt green and white

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35
Q

What are hotspots?

A

Locations on an airport that are particularly conducive to incursions

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36
Q

If you intercept from above the published glide slope, where is the final approach POINT

A

the final approach fix is defined as the glide slope intercept at the published altitude, lower if directed by ATC, while on the localizer

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37
Q

When do you have to hold short of the ILS Critical Area even when not instructed to do so

A

800’ and 2sm

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38
Q

What do you do if you take off and you think the weather is not good

A

Fly the airplane

Call dispatch and ask for company alternates airports: wx, notams, app, performance

FORDEC
Fuel/Time/Wx/Notam/APP/Performace
S/L/C

Advise Dispatch, ATC, CC, Pax

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39
Q

What would you experience if you flew through a microburst?

A

Increase in performance followed by a decrease in performance and downdrafts up to 6,000 fpm

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40
Q

What color are runway edge lights?

A

white until the last 2,000’ they are amber

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41
Q

What is MSA on an approach plate?

A

Minimum Sector Altitude/Minimum Safe Altitude: provide at least 1000ft obstacle clearance within a 25NM (sometimes 30NM)

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42
Q

How do you pick up your clearance in uncontrolled field?

A

calling clearance delivery on the phone, or contacting approach on the ground if the reception is good enough

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43
Q

what is hypoxia, types, symptoms and resolution

A

a lack of oxygen

hypoxic, hypemic, stagnant, and histotoxic

anxiety, confusion, restlessness, blue nails/lips

don oxygen mask, descend

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44
Q

What is load factor. how is it calcuated

A

is the stress on an aircraft

lift/weight

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45
Q

Which phase of flight has the most accidents and which phase has the most fatal?

A

Most accidents are on landing, however most fatal T/O

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46
Q

What is CRM?

A

a tool used to enhance safety where a Crew manages all resources available

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47
Q

What are SOPs

A

a tool used to enhance safety by allowing all crew-members to fly together and know what to expect from each other, it also allows us quickly id mistakes

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48
Q

What do you have to do upon reaching FL 180?

A

STD

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49
Q

How much landing distance do we have if we’re using the glide slope on runway

Distance beyond Threshold

A

10-9

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50
Q

Would you ever break an SOP?

A

yes in an emergency

51
Q

What ways can you identify the missed approach point on a non-precision approach?

A

Navaid, fix, DME, timing

52
Q

How can you tell if the runway has a slope?

A

10-9

53
Q

What is defined as the runway environment?

A 
Approach lights             
Threshold, markings, lights
Runway end identifier lights
Visual glide slope indicator
Touchdown zone, markings, lights 
Runway, markings, lights
54
Q

What are microburst hazards and cockpit indications?

A

WindShear
severe downdrafts
HW - increase in perf
TW - decrease in Per

WSHR alerts

1 dot GS
5 deg pitch
500 fp,
15 kts
TL unusual setting
55
Q

What stage of a thunderstorm is it likely to have wind shear and microburst?

A

Mature

56
Q

What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000ft?

A

250

57
Q

What side of an anvil on? what side should you fly on?

A

Anvil downwind

Fly upwind

58
Q

Why do you stay away from under the anvil top?

A

Turbulence, downdraft, hail

59
Q

How long does a typical microburst last?

A

15 min

60
Q

What is EMAS?

A

Engineered materials arrestor system.

helps quickly stop a/c that overrun the runway

61
Q

What is a displaced threshold?

A

Used for takeoff but not landing. Not for landing due to potential obstacles but obviously will increase your available takeoff distance

62
Q

How many clicks on the mic would you do for low intensity pilot controlled lighting?

A

3

63
Q

When does frost form on wings?

A

on clear nights when temp is at or below freezing

64
Q

Types of TS

A

Air Mass or Single Cell TS
Multi Cell Cluster TS
Multi Cell Line TS
Super Cell TS

65
Q

Explain Air Mass TS/ Single Cell TS

A 
Occur during the summer
     Localized convection, uneven heating
Last 1 hour or less
     DownDrafts overtake Updrafts
Generally weak
66
Q

Explain Orographic TS

A

Air forced up by terrain, mountains, hills

Heavy Rain on windward side

67
Q

Explain Frontal TS

A

Associated with cold fronts
Steady State TS
Embedded TS
Squall Lines form ahead of cold front

68
Q

Explain Multi Cell TS

A

Made up of multiple single cell TS at different stages in a line or cluster
Last for hours
Generally more severe

69
Q

Explain a Steady State or Super Cell TS

A 
Rain falls outside of the updraft and last for several hours
Most Severe type of TS
Up to 50,000’
Updrafts up to 9,000 fpm
	Large hail	
	Damaging winds
	Tornadoes 
Forms over large land mass in summer
Associated with cold fronts
70
Q

Explain a Squall Line TS

A

Group of storms arranged in a line
High wind and heavy rain.
Downburst and Microburst

71
Q

What is needed to create a TS

A

Moisture
Unstable Air
Air parcel is lifted and is warmer than surrounding and
continues to rise
Lift
Converging winds around lows, troughs, terrain,
fronts,
uneven heating: sea breeze, lake, land, valley
breeze

72
Q

Explain/Draw the stages of a TS

A

Cumulus
Updrafts, Cumulus clouds are growing vertically

Mature stage 
		Starts when precip. reaches the ground
		Strong Up and Down drafts, strong shear
			Virga increases downdrafts
			Gust Fronts
			Microburst
			Macroburst

Dissipating Stage approx.
Starts when anvil is fully formed
Downdrafts over take updrafts

73
Q

Hazards in and around TS

A 
Lightning
Adverse winds
Downburst 
Mod to Severe Turb
Mod to Severe Icing
Hail 
Rapid altimeter changes 
Static Electricity 
Engine water ingestion
Tornadoes
74
Q

Most lighting occurs between

A

+/- 5C
blind pilots
damage a/c, navigation, communication equipment

75
Q

Severe Icing due to TS occurs because

A

abundant Amounts of Super-cooled Large Droplets lead to severe clear icing.

76
Q

what type of adverse winds associated with TS

A

Crosswinds, gusts, variable, windshifts

77
Q

where can Hail w/ TS be found

A

In and/or around CB

Under Anvil

78
Q

Explain the dangers of pressure change associated with a TS

A

Rapid changes of pressure within 15 minutes, false readings of Altimeter

79
Q

what hazard does Static Electricity w/TS present

A

Radio static noise

80
Q

at what stage of a TS do we expect Microburst?

What are the visual signs

A

Mature

Virga, dust devils, variable winds

81
Q

Explain/Draw a Microburst

A

Lasting up to 15 min
6,000 fpm downdraft
windshear up to 90kts
diameter up to 2.5nm

82
Q

what can happen due to Engine Water Ingestion associated with heavy rain in a TS

A

Flameout

83
Q

Types of Icing

A

Rime
Clear Ice
Mixed

84
Q

Worst Type of Ice and why

A

Clear Icing

large water droplets
Runs back, doesn’t freeze on contact, distorting more of
the wing
Forms very fast
Hard to see, clear and glossy
More difficult for deicing equipment to remove
Can form horns on the upper and lower surface

85
Q

Explain Super cooled liquid droplets and why they are so dangerous

A

Water droplets which exist at temperatures below 0

large water droplets
Runs back, doesn’t freeze on contact, distorting more of
the wing
Forms very fast
Hard to see, clear and glossy
More difficult for deicing equipment to remove
Can form horns on the upper and lower surface

86
Q

what is Rime Ice

A

most forms between -20c to -40c in visible moisture
Small water droplets
Freeze instantly on leading edge and grows forward
Looks rough and milky

87
Q

what is Clear Ice

A

Most dangerous to aviation

most forms between 0 to -20 in visible moisture
large water droplets
Runs back, doesn’t freeze on contact, distorting more of
the wing
Forms very fast
Hard to see, clear and glossy
More difficult for deicing equipment to remove
Can form horns on the upper and lower surface

Freezing Drizzle and Freezing rain are types of clear ice

88
Q

what is Mixed icing

A

Clear/Rime

May form horns

89
Q

explain Freezing Rain

A

Warmer air above/temperature inversion due to cold front
Most hazardous to A/C
Abundant amount of SLD

90
Q

explain Hoar Frost

A

Only type that can develop with no clouds
Dust and particles act as nucleic for the water vapor to
turn into ice
Cold Soaked Fuel Frost
Cool, clear evenings temperatures close to freezing

91
Q

Factors affecting Severity of icing

A

Cloud Type and Vertical lift

Mountains increase vertical lift and severity of icing

Cumulus
Mod – Sev 0 to -20c
Light -20 to -40c

CBs
More vertical updrafts therefore more severe icing
SLD exist up to -40

Nimbo Stratus
Moderate to severe icing

Cloud base Temp
Warmer air holds more water therefore more SLD

92
Q

what are the Dangers of icing

A 
Changes shape of airfoil
    Reduces lift	
     Increase in parasite drag
     Increases weight
     Increase stall speed

Reduces stability

Ice no thicker than a piece of coarse sandpaper
reduces lift by as much as 30%
increases drag by 40%

93
Q

How to escape icing

A

Leave area of visible moisture
Descend below cloud base
Climb above tops

    Turn to a different course
Climb or descend to altitude where temperature is 
    above freezing
94
Q

Draw and explain an Aircraft in a Microburst

A

Headwind with increasing performanceGS Decreases, IAS increases,Decreasing headwind and a downdraft

Strong Tailwind with decreasing performance GS increases, IAS decreases

95
Q

Destination Alt is required when

A

FAR 121.619

1 hour before to 1 hour after the ceiling is less than 2,000 or less than 3sm

96
Q

weather Required at ALTERNATE airport

A

FAR 121.625
Wehater at the ETA is at or above:
1 Navaid – 1sm + 400’
2 naviadi – 1/2 sm + 200’ added to the higher of the 2

97
Q

when is a 2nd Alternate is required

A

Rule 3585
FAR 121.619(a)
Dest. + Alt wx are marginal at eta

98
Q

explain Rule 3585

A

2 Alternates required when:
Destination - 1 hour before to 1 hour after if wx is below min, not less than ½
min due to a conditional phrase(BCMG, PROB, TEMPO)

1st Alt – at ETA wx can be below planning min, not less than ½, due to
conditional phrase

2nd Alt – not less than Planning min at ETA

99
Q

Destination Airport weather at time of dispatch needs to be _________

A

FAR 121.613

Wx reports or forecast or combination must be at or above min at ETA to dispatch

100
Q

what are the Standard airport takeoff minimums

A

FAR 91.175
2 engines or less – 1SM,
3 engines or more – ½ SM

101
Q

when is Alternate Airport for departure required

A

FAR 121.617
If weather at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums unless
an alternate is listed on flight release
wx at alternate is at or above required wx at ETA
2 engines - alternate airport not more than 1 hour at normal cruising speed
in still air with one engine inoperative
3 engines or more - alternate airport not more than 2 hours at normal
cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative

102
Q

if the Weather drops below min BEFORE or AFTER FAF

A

FAR 121.651(e)
If weather drops below minimums before FAF discontinue
If weather drops below minimum after FAF continue

103
Q

what are ILC Cat 1 Mins

A

AIM 1-1-9(i)
DH 200’
RVR 2,400 or RVR 1,800 with TDZ and centerline lights or with AP, FD or HUD

104
Q

When can you continue below DA/DH

A

FAR 121.651
In a position to continue a normal descent using normal maneuvers
Land within the touchdown zone
Flight visibility is not less than required
1 of the following visual references
Approach lights, not below 100’ unless the red
terminating or red side bars are visible
Threshold, markings, lights
Runway end identifier lights
Visual glide slope indicator
Touchdown zone, markings, lights
Runway, markings, lights

105
Q

Convert RVR to SM

A 
FAR 91.175
6,000 – 1 ¼
5,000 – 1
4,500 – 7/8
4,000 – ¾
3,200 – 5/8
2,400 – ½
1,600 – 1/4
106
Q

what are the Wake turbulence aircraft weight classes

A 
FAA AC-90-23G
Super – A380, Antonov 225
	Heavy – abv 300,000 lbs
	Large – abv 41,000 lbs
	Small – blw 41,000 lbs
B757 is considered large but has additional seperation
107
Q

what is the Wake Turbulence TIME separation

A

AIM 7-3-9
Departing or landing after low/missed approach, touch-n-go, landing from the same threshold or parallel runway less than 2,500’ away and less than
500’ threshold stagger crossing runway and the projected flight paths will cross

2 min or appropriate radar separation behind larger
aircraft
3 min from intersection or in opposite direction
3 min appropriate radar separation behind super
4 min from intersection or in opposite direction

108
Q

Wake Turbulence DISTANCE separation Large a/c behind ________

A 
FAA AC-90-23G
	Behind super – 7
	Behind heavy – 5
	Behind 757 – 4
	Behind Large – MRS
	Behind small – MRS
109
Q

On Ground Steady Green Light Gun signal

A

Cleared for Takeoff

110
Q

On Ground Flashing Green Light Gun signal

A

Cleared for Taxi

111
Q

On Ground Steady Red Light Gun signal

A

Stop

112
Q

On Ground Flashing Red Light Gun signal

A

Taxi clear of runway

113
Q

On Ground Flashing white Light Gun signal

A

Return to starting point

114
Q

On Ground Alt. Red and Green Light Gun signal

A

Exercise extreme caution

115
Q

In Flight Steady Green Light Gun signal

A

Cleared to land

116
Q

In Flight Flashing Green Light Gun signal

A

Return for landing

117
Q

In Flight Steady Red Light Gun signal

A

Yield to other traffic, continue circling

118
Q

In Flight Flashing Red Light Gun signal

A

Airport unsafe, do not land

119
Q

In Flight Flashing white Light Gun signal

A

NA

120
Q

In Flight Alt. Red and Green Light Gun signal

A

Exercise extreme caution

121
Q

Lost comm procedures: Route, Alt, Clearance Limit

A

Lost comm procedures: Route, Alt, Clearance Limit
if VFR – stay VFR land ASAP

R-AVE.F
Route – Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed
MEA
Highest – MEA, Expected, Assigned

Leave Clearance limit
FAF – at EFC or flight plan ETA
If not FAF – at EFC, or proceed to IAF, at ETA descend for approach

122
Q

What is TAA

A

Terminal Aera Altitude provides 1,000 of obstacle
clearance within 30nm
Found on RNAV approaches

123
Q

TERPS

C on approach chart

A

indicates that landing minimums are based on the latest Terminal Instrument Procedures

Circle to land are based on the latest Terminal Instrument Procedures

Piedmont Techincal (1 decks)

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