Tech Questions Flashcards
How are the Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) indications selected?
Push the STATUS display switch on the display select panel, then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page
Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the AIR synoptic key from the menu page
Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page
Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key
D Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key
Which of the following represents the aeroplane performance in a VNAV descent, after the top of descent?
The FMC creates the descent path with a deceleration at the speed transition altitude VNAV plans a speed target 10 knots below the transition speed to allow for the unknown headwinds
The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV SPD through out the descent. The thrust controls speed in `VNAV SPD and pitch controls speed in VNAV PTH
Above the deceleration point if the speed falls more than 15knots below target speed the FMC changes the pitch mode annunciation from VNAV SPD to VNAV PTH and the FMC message THRUST REQUIRED displays
The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD
D The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD
How is the hydraulic system synoptic display selected?
Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the INFO synoptic key from the menu page
Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page
Push the hydraulic synoptic display switch on the display panel
Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page
D Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page
What are the first three memory items of the ‘CABIN ALTITUDE’ non-normal checklist?
Don oxygen masks Establish crew communications On passenger oxygen
Establish crew communications Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent
Don oxygen masks Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent
Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate
D Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate
What does the EICAS annunciation D-TO 2 +36C displayed in green as a thrust reference mode indicate?
Derate take off thrust, derate 2 climb thrust selected
Derate two take off thrust, derate climb thrust mode
Assumed temperature derated take off thrust
Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust
D Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust
Upon activating the CHKL OVRD key with a checklist displayed on the ECL, what happens?
All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears
A YES NO indication appears to confirm that the checklist is to be overridden
All checklist items turn cyan, CHECKLIST RESET indicator appears
All checklist items turn green, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears
A All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears
Listed below are failures or abnormal situations which will cause the flaps and slats to automatically operate in the secondary mode. Identify the one that is INCORRECT
Flap or slat load relief has occurred
Flap or slat disagree
Flap or slat primary control failure has occurred
Flap or slat primary control failure has occurred
A Flap or slat load relief has occurred
Which statement about the wing anti-ice system is true?
If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing
Wing anti -ice is inhibited when the aeroplane is on the ground by ground/air logic
Automatic wing anti-ice operation is available on the ground above 60knots and in flight
In flight, when the WING ANTI ICE selector is in Auto the wing anti ice system on each wing is powered any time TAT is below 10C
A If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing
What is the correct indication of a properly entered emergency access code in the flight deck access keypad?
Entry produces an EICAS caution message and illuminates a red light on keypad
The entry produces an EICAS advisory message and illuminates a green light on the keypad
Entry sound a flight deck chime
Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad
D Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad
Following the removal of a flight crew mask , how can the headset boom microphone system be reselected?
Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch
Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector
Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector
Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch
A Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch
Engine anti ice must be ON during all ground operations, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. What is the exception to this limitation?
When engine run up is carried out at 15 minute intervals
When aircraft de-icing is immediately planned or has recently taken place
When temperature is below -40degC
When engine anti-icing has been set to AUTO
C When temperature is below -40degC
Which of the following is the correct answer regarding the EEC Alternate mode?
Automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode is indicated by the EICAS advisory message ENG LIMIT PROT (L, R)
Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward
The Auto throttles disconnect whenever the EEC automatically switches to the alternate mode
The alternate mode schedule (N1 schedule ) provides somewhat less thrust than the normal mode for the same thrust lever position.
B Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward
What precautions should be observed by the crew members if a halon fire extinguisher is to be discharged in the flight deck area?
Wear smoke goggles to prevent any liquefied spray entering the eyes
No precautions necessary - its and inert gas
Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected
Wear oxygen mask set to 100%
C Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected
In which lateral mode(s) of the AFDS does the BANK LIMIT selector on the mode control panel (MCP) operate?
All modes
LNAV
HDG HOLD
HDG SEL or TRK SEL
D HDG SEL or TRK SEL
Which of the following messages in a particular non-normal checklist, indicates that additional, related checklist items requiring completion will be found elsewhere?
CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
CHECKLIST COMPLETE
CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN
CHECKLIST INCOMPLETE
A CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
At what IAS does the auto-throttle annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff?
V1
100 Kts
80 Kts
64 Kts
C 80 Kts
The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following solid round symbol (display in Amber) indicate- O +02 ↓
Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm
Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 200 feet below descending >_500fpm
Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm
Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm
D Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm
What is the memory item of the ‘Aborted Engine Start’ non-normal checklist?
Engine fire switch (affected side) ———-Override and Pull
ENG START Lever (affected side) —————-OFF
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———CUTOFF
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———-RUN
C FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———CUTOFF
Which statement about the APU fire extinguishing system is correct?
In normal operation on the ground with both engines off, an APU overheat signal from either APU detection loop causes an automatic APU shutdown
There are two APU fire extinguisher bottles. When APU fire switch is pulled rotating the switch in either direction discharges one of the bottles
On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge
The only APU fire bottle discharge mechanism available for in flight and ground use is located on the cockpit overhead panel
C On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge
What pressurises the centre hydraulic system?
Two air driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps
Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2
Two electrically driven primary pumps and two air-driven demand pumps (AMPs)
Two engine driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps
B Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2
On a go around when a valid missed approach path exists, and with Autopilot Engaged when does LNAV activate?
LNAV automatically activates at 400 feet radio altitude
LNAV activates at 200 feet barometric altitude.
It does not engage until ARMEd and above 50 feet radio altitude
LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude
D LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude
When will Fuel Balance operations be inhibited?
When one or both centre pumps are ON
When the centre tanks are empty
When both centre pumps are OFF
When the aircraft is on the ground with the APU running
A When one or both centre pumps are ON
Identify the limitations that applies to the use of VNAV and/ or LNAV?
LNAV will not sequence waypoints if more than 18nm off the active route and not on an offset route
When operating the autopilot in the polar region in LNAV the TRUE position on the heading reference switch must be used
VNAV use prohibited with MAG heading selected North or South of 70 degrees Latitude
Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected
D Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected
With WX-T selected, the weather radar will detect turbulence within precipitation at all ND display ranges. Within what range of the aeroplane will it display such turbulence?
40 NM
60 NM
100 NM
20 NM
A 40 NM
How are the cabin air compressors (CACs) regulated during normal engine start?
All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated.
CAC operation is inhibited initial two minutes after the first engine is running using the APU and 3 minutes after when using external power for engine start
During start using the APU, only one CAC on each side runs to maximize the system efficiency during the start cycle
Only one CAC runs for an engine start using three external power sources in order to maximize the power available to start the first engine
A All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated.
Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed?
Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears
Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay
No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start
Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
D Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
????
Which electrical mode (bus) if any , is energized when a single forward external power source is illuminates an AVAIL light?
Ground Service
Ground Handling
Towing Power
Standby Power
B Ground Handling
How can the status of the aircraft doors be illustrated?
Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page
Push the info display switch on the Display select panel and select the Door synoptic
Push door synoptic display switch on the display select panel
Use the display select switch to transfer to the synoptic from lower display unit to either outboard display unit
A Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page
Where is the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel located
Inside the left forward fuselage external power receptacles
In the right main gear well
In the main gear well left hand side looking forward
In the nose wheel well
D In the nose wheel well
How many smoke detection zones exist in each cargo compartment and what level of smoke detection is required to initiate a fire warning on the flight deck?
3 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning
3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning
4 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning
4 detection zones, smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning
B 3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning
What are the memory items of the ‘Dual Eng Fail/Stall’ non-normal checklist?
RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run
Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH AIRSPEED…..Above 280 knots
Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second
RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run AIRSPEED…..Above 270 knots
C Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second
Above approximately what altitude are the flap maneuvering speeds (for flap retraction or extension) not displayed?
15000 feet
10000 feet
20000 feet
8000 feet
C 20000 feet
The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following square symbol (displayed in RED) indicate? [] -03 ↑
Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm
Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm
Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm
Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm
A Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm
With heading reference switch in NORM when the aircraft enters the polar regions True North is automatically referenced for which of the following?
HDG HOLD and TRACK HOLD Only
LNAV Only
HDG HOLD, HDG SEL, TRK HOLD, TRK SEL
All AFDS cruise roll modes
D All AFDS cruise roll modes
Which statement correctly describes a function of the VHF Communication System?
When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio
In the event of an electrical power loss, the right VHF radio and the left TCP continue to operate on standby power
Only two VHF radios can operate in the DATA mode at one time
Each VHF radio is controlled only through its respective TCP
A When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio
On which Display Units (DU’s) can the Control Display Unit (CDU) be displayed?
Only the Lower MFD
The F/O’s Right inboard DU and the lower Centre DU
Any of the MFDs
The Captains Left inboard DU and the Lower Center DU
C Any of the MFDs
How is low engine oil quantity displayed on the secondary engine display?
Quantity displayed in white, LO shown in black on a white background
LO displayed in amber, quantity shown in amber inside amber box
LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground
OIL LO displayed in Amber
C LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground
Following an engine fire, the first extinguisher bottle has been discharged. This did not extinguish the fire. When should the second bottle be discharged?
Immediately
After 10 seconds
After 30 seconds
After 20 seconds
C After 30 seconds
During takeoff with VNAV armed, when will VNAV activate?
400 feet AGL
50 feet RA
200 feet AFE
At acceleration height
A 400 feet AGL
On a 3 degree approach, WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height?
15 feet AGL
50 feet AGL
100 feet AGL
200 feet AGL
C 100 feet AGL
What is the turbulent air penetration speed (Severe Turbulence) below 25,000’ feet?
260 Kts
280 Kts
300 Kts
290 Kts
D 290 Kts
How is the landing gear held in the UP position after retraction?
Uplocks
Hydraulic pressure
Over-centre struts
A locked door structure
A Uplocks
During a cruise descent, the auto-throttle sets a calculated thrust value to achieve approximately what rate of descent?
1250 fpm
750 fpm
1500 fpm
1000 fpm
A 1250 fpm
What is ‘shoring’ when used in relation to cargo loading?
Locking containers together in a hold so that they fill the space available and support each other
Using a cargo net to restrain miscellaneous cargo items
Method of restraining cargo in Forward, Aft, Vertical and Lateral directions
Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load
D Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load
Which of the following is a correct statement about alternate pitch trim switches?
They should not be used with the autopilot engaged or during stall or overspeed protection maneuvers
They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer
They are linked to the stabilizer trim control modules (STOM) via control cables and then mechanically to the stabilizer
They do not disconnect the autopilot when the levers are moved with the autopilot engaged, but do move the horizontal stabilizer
B They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer
On a 900 mile route, which page is displayed if the DEP/ARR key is pressed in flight at less than 400 miles from the ORIGIN airfield ?
DEP/ARR INDEX
ARRIVALS for the origin airport
ARRIVALS for the destination airfield
DEPARTURES for the origin airfield
B ARRIVALS for the origin airport
The density of the fuel being loaded must be between 0.7549 KG/L (6.3LB/GAL) and 0.8507 KG/L (7.1LB/GAL) Why?
It could cause the fuel scavenge system to operate improperly
It will be outside the limits for the loadsheet calculation
It affects the maximum permitted main tanks lateral fuel imbalance of 680KG (1500LB)
It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads
D It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads
Which of the following is a characteristic of an Alternate Action switch?
It may have a number of alternate positions - ON; AUTO; OFF
A flow bar will be visible when ON
It is spring loaded to the extend position
When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON
D When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON
Anytime the passenger oxygen deploys. Which one of the following actions also occurs automatically?
The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position
The aircraft transmits emergency squawk
The passenger seatbelts signs are Armed regardless of switch position.
The non smoking signs are illuminated regardless of switch position
A The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position
Which EICAS annunciation indicates that the engine anti-ice system is powered (ON)?
TAI displayed in green
WAI displayed in green
EAI displayed in green
TAI displayed in amber (orange)
C EAI displayed in green
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Momentary Action switch?
It is sprung-loaded to the extend position
When pushed in flush with the panel it is ON
A flow bar may be visible when ON
Bottom half of the switch may indicate systems state PRESS FAIL OFF
A It is sprung-loaded to the extend position
The Hydraulic Centre Demand Pump will operate under which one of the following conditions?
When flaps or slats are in motion
From commencing the take off run until the gear is up and the gear doors closed
In the descent below 2,000 feet until gear is locked down, trucks tilted and gear doors closed
On the ground for five minutes after an engine has been started
A When flaps or slats are in motion
Which of the following will cause the speed brake lever to be driven aft from the ARMED position and spoiler extension to occur on landing?
On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are in reverse
Both thrust levers are not in the take-off range regardless of main gear position
On the ground and both thrust levers at idle regardless of main gear truck position
On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range
D On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range
From which source does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) receive its attitude information?
Left IRS
Standby ADRS
Right IRS
Internal Inertial sensors
D internal inertial
sensors
What does moving the control wheel pitch trim switch do in normal mode when airborne?
Resets the elevators to relieve any control loads
Changes the trim reference airspeed
Resets the stabilizer to cruise speed
Directly move the stabilizer
B Changes the trim reference airspeed
Upon completion of a non normal checklist, certain items have been removed to a later referenced normal checklist. How is this illustrated on the non-normal check list?
CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR TRANSFERRED ITEMS
CHECKLIST ITEMS HAVE BEEN DEFERRED
CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN
CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
D CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
What does placing the BATTERY switch to the ON position in an unpowered aeroplane do?
Initiates the right (R) CCR start up sequence and after the R CCR start up is complete, energizes the Ground Handling Mode
Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode
Allows the APU to be started and some annunciator lights are illuminated
Initiates the start up sequence for both CCRs and after the start up sequence is complete, energizes the On Ground Mode
B Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode
What is the function of the Flight Deck Overhead Door Vent?
It opens to protect the fuselage against excessive negative pressure differential
Its is used for the emergency egress when the aircraft is on the ground
It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions
It opens to protect the fuselage against an excessive positive differential
C It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Audio control Panel ACP?
The BOOM only switch selects either the oxygen mask or headset boom mike
The minimum number of audio receiver switches in use at one time on any single ACP is limited to 3
The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position
Pushing the CAB transmitter selects switch twice within one second places a priority call to all cabins stations
C The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position
What is the first memory item of the ‘Airspeed Unreliable’ non-normal checklist?
A/P Disconnect Switch….Push
Disconnect Autothrottle switch
F/D Switches (both)…..OFF
Check pitch attitude and thrust for phase of flight
A A/P Disconnect Switch….Push
How does the EXIT HOLD facility direct the aircraft to leave the hold when executed?
Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned
Direct to the next waypoint
On selected aircraft heading
On the current aircraft heading
A Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned
What is the stated minimum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing?
- 75 degrees
- 25 degrees
- 5 degrees
- 0 degrees
C 2.5 degrees
During Take Off with LNAV armed when will it activate?
Above 400 feet radio altitude and at course intercept
LNAV engages immediately on lift off
Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route
Above 400 feet barometric altitude and with 2.5 nm of an active leg
C Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route
Which is the most applicable limitation that applies to the aircraft altimeters?
Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Captain or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet
The standby altimeter meets the accuracy requirement for RVSM
Capt and F/Os altimeter must agree within 50 feet with Standard pressure set, at all stages of flight
Altimeter are subject to position error
A Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Captain or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet
What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component limitation for the aeroplane?
20 Kts
25 Kts
15 Kts
10 Kts
C 15 Kts
With out LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated and a glide path angle of 2.5 degree, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height?
50 feet agl
100 feet agl
15 feet agl
200 feet agl
B 100 feet agl
Which colour is used to display the most intense weather radar returns?
Red
White
Magenta
Green
A Red
What is the BARO minimums indicator in the HUD?
It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale always on view
It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed
Its is a green pointer line, left of the altitude scale, when BARO minimums are displayed
It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when RA Minimums are displayed
B It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed
The Left and Right hydraulic systems are virtually identical. What does the Left system power?
Left Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right Wing Spoiler
Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Left Wing Spoiler
Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers
Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Landing Gear Actuation
C Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers
The MENU key on the tuning control panel (TCP) shows that a SYS POWER selection key is available. Pressing this key shows a SYS POWER page for which system?
For the GPWS
For the L, R and Center TCPs
For the L and R HF radios
For the Transponder and Weather Radars
D For the Transponder and Weather Radars
What is the stated maximum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing?
- 0 Degrees
- 25 Degrees
- 75 Degrees
- 5 Degrees
B 3.25 Degrees
The engines can only be started by the auto-start system. Under what circumstance does load shed occur during engine start?
Load shed only occurs if the AC Packs are left on
Load shed may occur with low output from the APU generator
Load shed occurs with only two GPUs available for starting. (Ground Power Units)
Load shed always occurs during start
D Load shed always occurs during start
What is the procedure for the use of the Flight Deck Overhead Door as an emergency exit?
Remove protective cover, pull vent handle down, open panel inwards, throw rope out
Remove protective cover, rotate door handle, push door outwards, access and deploy descent devise
Remove cover, push vent handle up, push panel outwards, through descent devise
Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise
D Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise
What is the primary and backup power source for the brakes?
Large Motor Controller and APU Battery
The 115V AC System and Standby Battery
Primary 235V AC System and Emergency Battery
28V DC bus system and main battery
D 28V DC bus system and main battery
How many attempts will the auto-start system make for an in-flight start?
3 Attempts, 30 secs apart
2 Full cycles
Continuous start attempts
Maximum allowed by the Duty Cycle
C Continuous start attempts
What is the minimum permitted oil temperature for engine start?
- 25 degC
- 30 degC
- 10 degC
- 40 degC
D -40 degC
The APU can be started on the ground with no fuel pumps operating, and in flight up to what altitude?
14000 feet
12000 feet
22000 feet
10000 feet
A 14000 feet
The approach Reference and Navigation sources annunciation in the top left hand corner of the PFD consists of 3 lines of data. It displays approach data on the first two lines What information is displayed on the third line?
Identifies the source that is programmed into the FMC
Identifies the source used for LNAV
Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale
Is used only for instrument lading system (ILS) approaches
C Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale
Following a complete loss of FMC electrical power, what information requires re-entry?
POS INIT.
PERF INIT DATA
RTE
DEPARTURE
B PERF INIT DATA
The Ground handling Mode is already active with the aeroplane parked. The Ground Service mode is then activated. What additional significant electrical loads become available?
Cargo heat and limited hydraulics
Limited cabin systems and lighting
Flight Deck equipment, controls and indications
PECs (both loops)
B Limited cabin systems and lighting
During the exterior inspection, what is the maximum permitted light coating of frost on the lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel?
1 mm
0 mm
2 mm
3 mm
D 3 mm
During a ground start, which one of the following malfunctions will cause the autostart to abort the start?
Hung Start
Hot Start
No EGT rise
The Loss of both starters
D The Loss of both starters
What determines the pack outlet temperature?
The master cabin temperature controller
The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature
The temperature zone requiring the warmest temperature
The average demand of all temperature zones
B The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature
Name a method that uses beams under dense cargo in order to provide a larger effective cargo foot print?
Shoring
Load support and restrain
Palletising
Linear loading
A Shoring
The fuel balance system is used to correct a lateral fuel imbalance between main fuel tanks. Which of the following best describes its operation?
It automatically operates the fuel crossfeed valve to transfer fuel between the main tanks
It makes use of the higher pressure generated by the centre tank fuel pump to transfer between the main tanks
It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks
Operation is automatic and requires no pilot imput
C It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks
What are the maximum Headwind, Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on HUD takeoff operations?
20, 20 and 25 knots respectively
20, 15 and 25 knots respectively
15, 15 and 20 knots respectively
25, 15 and 20 knots respectively
D 25, 15 and 20 knots respectively
Which statement about Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) is true?
TAP continuously monitors engine data to determine the thrust level from each engine
TAP is only available in the normal and secondary flight control modes
TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine
TAP automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw associated with an engine failure at high thrust settings
C TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine
Ground service personnel are unfamiliar with the aircraft and require the aeroplane to be powered to enable operation of the wing fueling panel. Which minimum level electrical mode will be necessary?
Ground handling mode
On-ground battery only mode
Towing mode
Ground Service mode
A Ground handling mode
How is the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) TOO LOW GEAR alert inhibited?
Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the landing gear panel
Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel
Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD
Press the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the GPWS key from the menu, then select gear override (GEAR OVRD)
C Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD
What is the electrical backup power source with loss of all electrical power to the captain’s and first officers flight instruments in flight?
RPDUs
Hot Battery Bus
Emergency bus (Direct service)
Ram Air Turbine(RAT)
D Ram Air Turbine(RAT)
The AFDS provides autopilot guidance using Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) which statement about IAN procedures is true?
Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC
IAN approaches can be used only in GP and LOC modes
IAN supports automatic approaches and landings to CAT11 approach minimums for approaches with FMC generated glide path
The LOC or the FAC mode cannot capture selected lateral flight path if the intercept angle exceeds 60 degrees
A Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC
A list of equipment faults that require Minimum Equipment List (MEL) reference for dispatch can be displayed how?
Select the SYSTEMS page of the EFB to view the equipment faults
Check the Ground database via the EFB
Select STATUS message page in an MFD
Check the CDU datalink status display
C Select STATUS message page in an MFD
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding requirement for Route Mode to be automatically selected on the VSD whist on the ground?
VNAV armed
A departure runway has been selected
An active flight plan has been entered
LNAV is armed
A VNAV armed
What is the nose wheel steering range (in either direction from neutral) when using the tiller?
90 degrees
70 degrees
80 degrees
40 degrees
B 70 degrees
The weather radar should not be operated in a hangar or within what distance of any fuel spill?
15.25 metres
100 metres
75 feet
125 feet
A 15.25 metres
During ground starts the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start when?
Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation
Loss of one starter, or no oil pressure rise
Hung start, no EGT rise or no oil pressure rise
Loss of both starters, compressor stall, or no N1 rotation
A Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation
What is the first memory item of the Engine Limit Exceed L or R non normal checklist?
Fuel control switch affected side…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..RETARD
Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side)…..Confirm…..OFF
Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..IDLE
C Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side…..Confirm…..OFF
Icing idle is selected when engine anti-ice is ON. Why does the EEC select approach idle when flaps are commanded to 25 or greater, OR the landing gear is selected DOWN?
To decrease acceleration time for go-around
So the engines will produce maximum anti-icing bleed air
To prevent idle thrust asymmetry
To prevent the engine Thrust Ramping
A To decrease acceleration time for go-around
The engine auto-relight function is activated on the ground and in-flight under which of the following circumstances?
Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN
For in-flight starts, auto-relight makes continuous start attempts until either the engine either starts or the pilot aborts the start attempt.
Operates continuously whenever flaps are out of up and when engine anti-icing is ON or AUTO
Both systems are activated for in-flight starts
A Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN
What is the primary source of power for the Flight Control Electronic’s?
Directly from the Mains Battery
The Main 235v AC System
28v DC distribution system
Three PMGs
D Three PMGs
Which statement is correct concerning ATC route modification clearances received via datalink?
ATC datalink logon is automatic to participating ATC facilities, as is the transfer to adjacent ATC facilities
The FMC receives route modification clearances which can be transferred to the EFB for the confirmation and return to the FMC for acceptance
When a clearance is of a type that can be
loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and
the CDU help window
Uplink messages which contain route modifications are loaded into the FMC using the LOAD FMC function on the MFD ATC page
C When a clearance is of a type that can be
loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and
the CDU help window.
When using the oxygen mask and goggles in a non normal situation, which of the following is a correct statement?
100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed
EMErGENCY position is selected when positive pressure is not needed
100%oxygen will provide a positive pressure in the mask and goggles to remove contaminates
Normal position is sufficient to keep flight deck air concentrates out of the mask and goggles
A 100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed
How many electric cabin air compressors (CACs) supply and regulate outside air to the aeroplane?
2
4
6
8
B 4
The VSD can display a FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line for approaches that have a designated approach angle. Choose the relevant correct answer?
It has a 3 degree green reference during the final approach that extends to 15nm
It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point
It has a solid magenta line that extends 10nm for situational awareness that is anchored to the runway thresshold
It indicates current flight path angle as a function of vertical speed and ground speed
B It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point
MFD communications functions are used to control datalink features. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding a datalink feature?
The MFD L or R button on the Glareshield panel and the MCP controls the COMM display
Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by EICAS ATC
A digital departure ATIS request can be made by selecting MANAGER, confirm the Airport code, select DEPARTURE, Then select SEND
Datalink messages not used by the FMC can be displayed on the MFDs but not printed
B Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by an EICAS •ATC
How is the top-of-climb identified on the navigation display (ND)?
Green circle labeled T/C
Cyan (blue) Circle labeled TOC
Green circle labeled TOC
Cyan (blue) Circle labeled T/C
A Green circle labeled T/C
In normal mode, during high speed flight which control surfaces provide roll control?
Ailerons
Some spoilers
Flaperons and Spoilers
Flaperons and Ailerons
C Flaperons and Spoilers
What happens when the Alternate Gear switch is selected to Down?
C2 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.
A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks
C1 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.
Electric motors mechanically release the doors, the gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.
B A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks
When will the PITCH LIMIT INDICATION be displayed on the PFD?
Below 1500”RA and the gear is down
Only when the gear is down
Below 20,000’
When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up
D When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up
Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed?
Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears
Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start
Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay
B Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
With WINDOW HEAT switches ON, what surface protection is provided to the forward flight deck window?
Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing
Both interior and exterior surface anti fogging
Interior surface anti icing, exterior surface anti fogging
Both interior and exterior surface anti- icing.
A Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing
What flap settings can be used for automatic landings with one engine inoperative?
Flaps 15,20 or 30
Flaps 20 or 25 Only
Flaps 25 or 30 Only
Flaps 20, 25 or 30
D Flaps 20, 25 or 30
During an approach in VNAV with VNAV PATH annunciated and at command speed, when does the reference thrust limit change from CRZ to GA?
Selecting flaps 20
Extending the Landing Gear
1500’ RA
Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1
D Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1
Navigation Performance scale (NPS) Indicators are displayed on the PFD. Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning when the NPS is displayed?
When TO/GA Roll Mode is ACTIVE
When VNAV is ACTIVE
When LNAV is armed or ACTIVE
All of the above
D All of the above
What are the first three memory items of the FIRE ENG L,R non-normal checklist?
Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF
Fuel control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..ROTATE
A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF ThrustLever…..Confirm…..IDLE Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL
A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
D A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF
Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE
Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
Which of the following braking actions provide the greatest aircraft deceleration rate on a dry runway in the landing mode?
Auto brakes selection 4
Auto brakes selection 1
Full pedal braking
Auto brakes selection MAX AUTO
C Full pedal braking
What is the minimum height for engaging the autopilot after takeoff?
50 feet AGL
200 feet AGL
100 feet AGL
400 feet AGL
B 200 feet AGL
During an external inspection a warning horn is heard from the nose wheel well area. What does this indicate?
The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally
The IRS have been left ON with the aeroplane unmanned for more than 30 minutes
The APU fire waring has been set off
It is a low battery aural warning for ground crew
A The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally
Whilst on the ground during the take off run an RTO is initiated. Above what groundspeed will the RTO auto braking setting command maximum braking pressure?
90 Kts
85 Kts
80 Kts
75 Kts
B 85 Kts
Which of the following is a correct statement concerning weather radar operation?
Turbulence due precipitation and Clear Air turbulence are both sensed by the weather radar
The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude
The system self tests only on initial start up
Weather radar returns on the ND and mini map will show out to 640 nm range
B The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude
On the ground with both engines shutdown, what will cause the APU to shutdown and the extinguisher bottle to discharge?
Can only be manually shutdown from the flight deck or nose wheel well
An overheat detected in both loops
A fire detected in both loops
A fire detected in either loop
D A fire detected in either loop
What is the maximum time that Wing Anti-ice may be load shed during high electrical loads?
It is never load shed at any time
One Minute
Ninety Seconds
Thirty Seconds
D Thirty Seconds
On the PFD, what condition is indicated by an amber line through a FMA mode annunciator and a flight director bar removed? Is the Autopilot still engaged?
The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data
The applicable mode has reverted to CWS and autopilot remains engaged
Autopilot disengages.
Applicable mode has disengaged, but the autopilot remains engaged.
A The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data
How is an item identified as an open loop item on the electronic checklist (ECL)?
Gray box to the left of the item
Item appears in green text
Black square box to the left of the item
Green tick in the box to the left of item
A Gray box to the left of the item
There are a number of situations that will cause the speed brake lever to be automatically operated regardless of its initial position. Identify the one which is INCORRECTLY described
Driven UP on take off with ground speed above 60 kts when either thrust lever is retarded to idle
Driven to the DOWN position when in the air when eith thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel
Driven UP on landing when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take off range
Driven to the DOWN position when on the ground and either thrust lever is moved to the take off range
C Driven UP on landing when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take off range
How is a closed loop item identified on the electronic checklist (ECL)?
When the control is in the required position, the line item displays a green ‘complete’ indicator left of the line item.
Closed loop line items can be distinguished from open loop line items by display of the closed loop indicator, a grey box located to the left of the line item.
When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item.
Closed loop conditional line items are followed by selections labelled YES and NO. The cursor is placed adjacent to the YES - NO line, requiring the pilot to use the cursor to select the appropriate answer.
C When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item.
How is the TCAS airspace display mode selected?
To set airspace above , normal or below press menu on the TCP, then select TCAS, then press the line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW
To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW
To set airspace above, normal or below press the systems(SYS) display switch on the DSP, select TCAS, then choose the desired setting from menu
Airspace above, normal or below is selected with the TCAS rotary selector on the transponder panel
B To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW
Where is the list of aircraft systems which are affected by load shedding shown?
Individual equipment Caution messages
The ECL Non Normal CL
The Electric synoptic
Individual “Load Shed” EICAS Message
C The Electric synoptic
What is the correct method for entering an along track waypoint 25 miles after MWH on the present route?
MWH25
MWH/25
MWH/-25
MWH-25
B MWH/25
With the APU providing electrical power on the ground and both pack switches in Auto, how many Cabin Air Compressors (CACs) will be operating?
3
1
2
4
C 2
Which of the following is correct concerning the landing gear and brakes?
The normal nose wheel hydraulic system is powered by the right hydraulic system
The alternate brake system is powered by the backup electrical power source
The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units
The aft axle of each main gear pivot in order to improve turning radius
C The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units
Which hydraulic system(s) provides power to the main landing gear actuation and nose gear steering?
Right
Left
Either Left or Right via Nose Gear and Steering Isolation valves
Centre
D Centre
What is the action required following an alert by cabin staff of smoke forming in the rear cabin?
Immediately don oxygen masks, IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF
Confirm by EICAS message Smokes Fire or Fumes Open ECL
Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist, select Smoke Fire or Fumes removal
Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes
D Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes
What is the maximum duration for which a fully charged remote battery will provide power to emergency lighting system?
20 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
10 minutes
D 10 minutes
How is low hydraulic reservoir quantity shown on the status display?
QTY is displayed in white
LO is displayed in white
LO is displayed in amber (orange)
QTY is displayed in amber (orange)
C LO is displayed in amber (orange)
With the Cargo Fire Arm switch selected to ARM during a non normal procedure where are the outflow positioned?
Both valves Close to reduce through flow of air
Out flow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air stability
Forward Valve opens, Aft motors Closed to vent smoke via forward valve
Forward Valve Closes, Aft motors Open to vent smoke via the rear valve
B outflow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air flow stability
The ram air turbine (RAT), when deployed, provides hydraulic power to the primary fight controls connected to which of the hydraulic system(s)?
Centre
Right
Left
Left, centre and right
A Centre
What cools the large motor power distribution?
Conditioned air ducted from the passenger cabin
The Integrated Cooling System (ICS)
The Miscellaneous Cooling System
The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)
D The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)
What is the function of the Nitrogen Generation system on board?
To slightly pressurize the main, surge and centre fuel tanks to add fuel feed
To overpressure the centre fuel tanks to empty first and also assist any fuel jettison rate
To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability
To maintain stable fuel temperatures to avoid ice crystals forming or fuel overheating
C To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability
Thrust control malfunction Accommodation is an EEC function that provides thrust asymmetry protection under what circumstances?
At any time a thrust asymmetry is detected by the EEC
In the event of of an engine failure on take off below 1000 feet AGL
Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground
During a go-around at light weights and aft center of gravity
C Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground
What is the stated maximum allowable runway slope limitation?
+/- 3 deg
+/- 1.5 deg
+/- 1.5%
+/- 2%
D +/- 2%
Inflight, the FMC gives priority to which of these systems to determine present position?
Global Positioning System and Inerial Reference System
Global Positioning System, navigation radios and ADIRU
ADIRU and the co-located VOR/DME
Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data
D Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data
In a VNAV descent the vertical path to the first altitude constrain is based on off idle thrust , speedbrake retracted and what else?
Economy descent target speed, distance to the first constraint, no anti ice
FMC cruise wind applicable target speed wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page and the predicted use of anti-ice
FMC wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed
FMC cruise wind, the predicted use of anti-ice, and economy target speed of VMO/MMo-16knots
B • FMC cruise wind
• applicable target speed
• wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page
• predicted use of anti-ice
What are the memory items of the ‘Engine Severe Damage/Sep L,R’ non-normal check list?
A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL
A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL and rotate
Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF
A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
A A/T ARM switch (affected side) . . . . . . Confirm . . . . OFF Thrust lever (affected side) . . ……………. . Confirm . . Idle FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) . Confirm .CUTOFF Engine fire switch (affected side) . ….. . Confirm . . . Pull
In case of a minor fuel imbalance, how may manual fuel cross-feed be initiated?
Open the cross-feed valve switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side
Switch OFF pumps on the low quantity side and open the both cross-valve
Switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side and open the cross-feed valve
Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side
D Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side
Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the Alternate Navigation Page?
It displays data about each leg of the entered route when using alternate navigation
It is where navigation radios are tuned and related parameters display when utilizing the alternate navigation system
It is access through the CDU and is used as an alternate navigation system operatng with the alternate navigation radio pages
It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability
D It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability
What are the maximum Headwind Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?
20, 20 and 25 knots respectively
15, 15 and 25 knots respectively
20, 15 and 20 knots respectively
25, 15 and 25 knots respectively
D 25, 15 and 25 knots respectively
Which statement is true about the VHF page display function?
Scratchpad frequencies, can only be entered into the standby windows. The previously active frequency is deleted from the page display
New frequencies are entered into scratchpad. the decimal and or following zeros for this frequency are required
VHF pages 2,3 and 4 can contain up to 4 stored frequencies for each radio
For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency
D For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency
Which of the following is correct regarding the automatic ice detection system?
It is never inhibited at any time
It causes bleed air to be directed to the engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems
It consists of two electrically heated engine inlet mounted ice detectors
It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems
D It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems
Which of the following GPWS voice annunciations indicate an atltitude loss with flaps and /or gear UP, after Take off or go around?
SINK RATE
DON’T SINK
TOO LOW, FLAPS
TOO LOW, GEAR
B DON’T SINK
With AC power available and the APU selector in the ON position, which fuel pump is commanded on regardless of flight deck switch position?
Left forward Fuel pump
Left center fuel pump
Right Aft Fuel Pump
Left Aft Fuel Pump
D Left Aft Fuel Pump
What is indicated by the ALIGN HUD message in Head Up Display?
The pilot must adjust his,her seat to ensure correct eye position relative to the display
The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector
The system is awaiting IRS alignment to supply data to the HUD
The system is awaiting ADRS alignment to supply data to the HUD
B The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector
The stabiliser takeoff trim greenband indicates the allowable takeoff trim limits based on data from the FMC. What other source provides sets of validation limits to confirm that the computed green band is correct?
Information from two nose gear pressure transducers
Main and nose gear pressure data
Information from main gear and nose gear oleo proximity switches
Main gear truck tilt sensor data
A Information from two nose gear pressure transducers
Which of the following is correct concerning the use of MEL performance penalty data?
Added MEL items are automatically applied to enroute landing performance selections
Performance penalty data can only be added by reference to MEL handbook
There is no indication of confirming MEL performance adjustments have been made
Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data
D Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data
Which of the following is a true statement when the PFD is operating in Reversion Mode?
VNAV speed band and minimum maneuvering speed indications fail
The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window
The flight Mode Annunciators and Navigation Source References are inhibited
Instrument approaches with FMC computed glide path paths are not displayed
B The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window
Which of the following best describes the probe heats?
Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated
Wing mounted pitot probes are heated in flight to protect against ice accretion
The angle of attack probe will operate once both engines have been started
Three TAT (Total Air Temperature) probes are electrically heated for ice protection
A Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated
Following the initial memory items of the CABIN ALTITUDE non normal checklist What is the correct sequence of actions to commence the descent?
Move thrust levers to idle Extend speedbrakes Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO
Disengage the autopilot Move thrust levers to idle Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO
Extend speedbrakes Move thrust levers to idle Descend at VMO/MMO Accomplish Rapid Descent checklist
Move thrust levers to idle Disengage the autopilot Extend speedbrakes Descend at VMO/MMO
A •Move the thrust levers to idle
•Extend the speedbrakes
•If structural integrity is in doubt, limit
airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads
•Descend at Vmo/Mmo
Where can the Flight Crew oxygen pressure be checked?
Bottom of the left EICAS display
EICAS maintenance page
Accessory panel
Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT
D Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT
Whats does the TAMS display on the PDF indicate?
The Auto Throttle has reverted to Thrust Alternate Mode due to asymmetry
The Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed system is controlling thrust
The Thrust Asymmetry Monitoring System has failed (Red)
The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry
D The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry
How many temperature zones is the aeroplane divided into?
7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones
3, Flight Deck and 2 passenger zones
2 Flight Deck and Passenger
4, Flight deck and 3 passenger zones
A 7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones
What EICAS annunciation indicates that a thrust reverser is in transit?
REV display in green
RVSR display in green
REV displayed in amber (orange)
RVSR displayed in amber (orange)
C REV displayed in amber (orange)
Below what airspeed is wing anti-ice inhibited on the ground?
75 Kts
60 Kts
Vr
100 Kts
A 75 Kts
Which FMC page can be used to calculate/display clean and drag descent pages?
DESCENT FORECAST
OFFPATH DES
APPROACH REF
ARRIVALS
B OFFPATH DESCENT
