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Limitations OMA > Tech Questions > Flashcards

Tech Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How are the Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) indications selected?

Push the STATUS display switch on the display select panel, then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page

Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the AIR synoptic key from the menu page

Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page

Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key

A

D Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key

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2
Q

Which of the following represents the aeroplane performance in a VNAV descent, after the top of descent?

The FMC creates the descent path with a deceleration at the speed transition altitude VNAV plans a speed target 10 knots below the transition speed to allow for the unknown headwinds

The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV SPD through out the descent. The thrust controls speed in `VNAV SPD and pitch controls speed in VNAV PTH

Above the deceleration point if the speed falls more than 15knots below target speed the FMC changes the pitch mode annunciation from VNAV SPD to VNAV PTH and the FMC message THRUST REQUIRED displays

The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD

A

D The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD

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3
Q

How is the hydraulic system synoptic display selected?

Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the INFO synoptic key from the menu page

Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page

Push the hydraulic synoptic display switch on the display panel

Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page

A

D Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page

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4
Q

What are the first three memory items of the ‘CABIN ALTITUDE’ non-normal checklist?

Don oxygen masks Establish crew communications On passenger oxygen

Establish crew communications Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent

Don oxygen masks Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent

Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate

A

D Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate

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5
Q

What does the EICAS annunciation D-TO 2 +36C displayed in green as a thrust reference mode indicate?

Derate take off thrust, derate 2 climb thrust selected

Derate two take off thrust, derate climb thrust mode

Assumed temperature derated take off thrust

Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust

A

D Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust

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6
Q

Upon activating the CHKL OVRD key with a checklist displayed on the ECL, what happens?

All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears

A YES NO indication appears to confirm that the checklist is to be overridden

All checklist items turn cyan, CHECKLIST RESET indicator appears

All checklist items turn green, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears

A

A All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears

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7
Q

Listed below are failures or abnormal situations which will cause the flaps and slats to automatically operate in the secondary mode. Identify the one that is INCORRECT

Flap or slat load relief has occurred

Flap or slat disagree

Flap or slat primary control failure has occurred

Flap or slat primary control failure has occurred

A

A Flap or slat load relief has occurred

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8
Q

Which statement about the wing anti-ice system is true?

If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing

Wing anti -ice is inhibited when the aeroplane is on the ground by ground/air logic

Automatic wing anti-ice operation is available on the ground above 60knots and in flight

In flight, when the WING ANTI ICE selector is in Auto the wing anti ice system on each wing is powered any time TAT is below 10C

A

A If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing

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9
Q

What is the correct indication of a properly entered emergency access code in the flight deck access keypad?

Entry produces an EICAS caution message and illuminates a red light on keypad

The entry produces an EICAS advisory message and illuminates a green light on the keypad

Entry sound a flight deck chime

Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad

A

D Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad

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10
Q

Following the removal of a flight crew mask , how can the headset boom microphone system be reselected?

Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch

Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector

Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector

Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch

A

A Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch

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11
Q

Engine anti ice must be ON during all ground operations, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. What is the exception to this limitation?

When engine run up is carried out at 15 minute intervals

When aircraft de-icing is immediately planned or has recently taken place

When temperature is below -40degC

When engine anti-icing has been set to AUTO

A

C When temperature is below -40degC

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12
Q

Which of the following is the correct answer regarding the EEC Alternate mode?

Automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode is indicated by the EICAS advisory message ENG LIMIT PROT (L, R)

Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward

The Auto throttles disconnect whenever the EEC automatically switches to the alternate mode

The alternate mode schedule (N1 schedule ) provides somewhat less thrust than the normal mode for the same thrust lever position.

A

B Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward

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13
Q

What precautions should be observed by the crew members if a halon fire extinguisher is to be discharged in the flight deck area?

Wear smoke goggles to prevent any liquefied spray entering the eyes

No precautions necessary - its and inert gas

Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected

Wear oxygen mask set to 100%

A

C Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected

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14
Q

In which lateral mode(s) of the AFDS does the BANK LIMIT selector on the mode control panel (MCP) operate?

All modes

LNAV

HDG HOLD

HDG SEL or TRK SEL

A

D HDG SEL or TRK SEL

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15
Q

Which of the following messages in a particular non-normal checklist, indicates that additional, related checklist items requiring completion will be found elsewhere?

CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

CHECKLIST COMPLETE

CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN

CHECKLIST INCOMPLETE

A

A CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

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16
Q

At what IAS does the auto-throttle annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff?

V1

100 Kts

80 Kts

64 Kts

A

C 80 Kts

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17
Q

The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following solid round symbol (display in Amber) indicate- O +02 ↓

Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm

Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 200 feet below descending >_500fpm

Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm

Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm

A

D Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm

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18
Q

What is the memory item of the ‘Aborted Engine Start’ non-normal checklist?

Engine fire switch (affected side) ———-Override and Pull

ENG START Lever (affected side) —————-OFF

FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———CUTOFF

FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———-RUN

A

C FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ———CUTOFF

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19
Q

Which statement about the APU fire extinguishing system is correct?

In normal operation on the ground with both engines off, an APU overheat signal from either APU detection loop causes an automatic APU shutdown

There are two APU fire extinguisher bottles. When APU fire switch is pulled rotating the switch in either direction discharges one of the bottles

On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge

The only APU fire bottle discharge mechanism available for in flight and ground use is located on the cockpit overhead panel

A

C On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge

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20
Q

What pressurises the centre hydraulic system?

Two air driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps

Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2

Two electrically driven primary pumps and two air-driven demand pumps (AMPs)

Two engine driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps

A

B Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2

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21
Q

On a go around when a valid missed approach path exists, and with Autopilot Engaged when does LNAV activate?

LNAV automatically activates at 400 feet radio altitude

LNAV activates at 200 feet barometric altitude.

It does not engage until ARMEd and above 50 feet radio altitude

LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude

A

D LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude

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22
Q

When will Fuel Balance operations be inhibited?

When one or both centre pumps are ON

When the centre tanks are empty

When both centre pumps are OFF

When the aircraft is on the ground with the APU running

A

A When one or both centre pumps are ON

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23
Q

Identify the limitations that applies to the use of VNAV and/ or LNAV?

LNAV will not sequence waypoints if more than 18nm off the active route and not on an offset route

When operating the autopilot in the polar region in LNAV the TRUE position on the heading reference switch must be used

VNAV use prohibited with MAG heading selected North or South of 70 degrees Latitude

Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected

A

D Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected

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24
Q

With WX-T selected, the weather radar will detect turbulence within precipitation at all ND display ranges. Within what range of the aeroplane will it display such turbulence?

40 NM

60 NM

100 NM

20 NM

A

A 40 NM

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25
Q

How are the cabin air compressors (CACs) regulated during normal engine start?

All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated.

CAC operation is inhibited initial two minutes after the first engine is running using the APU and 3 minutes after when using external power for engine start

During start using the APU, only one CAC on each side runs to maximize the system efficiency during the start cycle

Only one CAC runs for an engine start using three external power sources in order to maximize the power available to start the first engine

A

A All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated.

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26
Q

Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed?

Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears

Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay

No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start

Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED

A

D Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED

????

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27
Q

Which electrical mode (bus) if any , is energized when a single forward external power source is illuminates an AVAIL light?

Ground Service

Ground Handling

Towing Power

Standby Power

A

B Ground Handling

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28
Q

How can the status of the aircraft doors be illustrated?

Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page

Push the info display switch on the Display select panel and select the Door synoptic

Push door synoptic display switch on the display select panel

Use the display select switch to transfer to the synoptic from lower display unit to either outboard display unit

A

A Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page

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29
Q

Where is the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel located

Inside the left forward fuselage external power receptacles

In the right main gear well

In the main gear well left hand side looking forward

In the nose wheel well

A

D In the nose wheel well

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30
Q

How many smoke detection zones exist in each cargo compartment and what level of smoke detection is required to initiate a fire warning on the flight deck?

3 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning

3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning

4 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning

4 detection zones, smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning

A

B 3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning

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31
Q

What are the memory items of the ‘Dual Eng Fail/Stall’ non-normal checklist?

RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run

Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH AIRSPEED…..Above 280 knots

Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second

RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run AIRSPEED…..Above 270 knots

A

C Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second

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32
Q

Above approximately what altitude are the flap maneuvering speeds (for flap retraction or extension) not displayed?

15000 feet

10000 feet

20000 feet

8000 feet

A

C 20000 feet

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33
Q

The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following square symbol (displayed in RED) indicate? [] -03 ↑

Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm

Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm

Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm

Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm

A

A Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm

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34
Q

With heading reference switch in NORM when the aircraft enters the polar regions True North is automatically referenced for which of the following?

HDG HOLD and TRACK HOLD Only

LNAV Only

HDG HOLD, HDG SEL, TRK HOLD, TRK SEL

All AFDS cruise roll modes

A

D All AFDS cruise roll modes

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35
Q

Which statement correctly describes a function of the VHF Communication System?

When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio

In the event of an electrical power loss, the right VHF radio and the left TCP continue to operate on standby power

Only two VHF radios can operate in the DATA mode at one time

Each VHF radio is controlled only through its respective TCP

A

A When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio

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36
Q

On which Display Units (DU’s) can the Control Display Unit (CDU) be displayed?

Only the Lower MFD

The F/O’s Right inboard DU and the lower Centre DU

Any of the MFDs

The Captains Left inboard DU and the Lower Center DU

A

C Any of the MFDs

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37
Q

How is low engine oil quantity displayed on the secondary engine display?

Quantity displayed in white, LO shown in black on a white background

LO displayed in amber, quantity shown in amber inside amber box

LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground

OIL LO displayed in Amber

A

C LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground

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38
Q

Following an engine fire, the first extinguisher bottle has been discharged. This did not extinguish the fire. When should the second bottle be discharged?

Immediately

After 10 seconds

After 30 seconds

After 20 seconds

A

C After 30 seconds

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39
Q

During takeoff with VNAV armed, when will VNAV activate?

400 feet AGL

50 feet RA

200 feet AFE

At acceleration height

A

A 400 feet AGL

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40
Q

On a 3 degree approach, WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height?

15 feet AGL

50 feet AGL

100 feet AGL

200 feet AGL

A

C 100 feet AGL

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41
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed (Severe Turbulence) below 25,000’ feet?

260 Kts

280 Kts

300 Kts

290 Kts

A

D 290 Kts

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42
Q

How is the landing gear held in the UP position after retraction?

Uplocks

Hydraulic pressure

Over-centre struts

A locked door structure

A

A Uplocks

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43
Q

During a cruise descent, the auto-throttle sets a calculated thrust value to achieve approximately what rate of descent?

1250 fpm

750 fpm

1500 fpm

1000 fpm

A

A 1250 fpm

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44
Q

What is ‘shoring’ when used in relation to cargo loading?

Locking containers together in a hold so that they fill the space available and support each other

Using a cargo net to restrain miscellaneous cargo items

Method of restraining cargo in Forward, Aft, Vertical and Lateral directions

Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load

A

D Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load

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45
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement about alternate pitch trim switches?

They should not be used with the autopilot engaged or during stall or overspeed protection maneuvers

They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer

They are linked to the stabilizer trim control modules (STOM) via control cables and then mechanically to the stabilizer

They do not disconnect the autopilot when the levers are moved with the autopilot engaged, but do move the horizontal stabilizer

A

B They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer

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46
Q

On a 900 mile route, which page is displayed if the DEP/ARR key is pressed in flight at less than 400 miles from the ORIGIN airfield ?

DEP/ARR INDEX

ARRIVALS for the origin airport

ARRIVALS for the destination airfield

DEPARTURES for the origin airfield

A

B ARRIVALS for the origin airport

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47
Q

The density of the fuel being loaded must be between 0.7549 KG/L (6.3LB/GAL) and 0.8507 KG/L (7.1LB/GAL) Why?

It could cause the fuel scavenge system to operate improperly

It will be outside the limits for the loadsheet calculation

It affects the maximum permitted main tanks lateral fuel imbalance of 680KG (1500LB)

It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads

A

D It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads

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48
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of an Alternate Action switch?

It may have a number of alternate positions - ON; AUTO; OFF

A flow bar will be visible when ON

It is spring loaded to the extend position

When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON

A

D When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON

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49
Q

Anytime the passenger oxygen deploys. Which one of the following actions also occurs automatically?

The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position

The aircraft transmits emergency squawk

The passenger seatbelts signs are Armed regardless of switch position.

The non smoking signs are illuminated regardless of switch position

A

A The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position

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50
Q

Which EICAS annunciation indicates that the engine anti-ice system is powered (ON)?

TAI displayed in green

WAI displayed in green

EAI displayed in green

TAI displayed in amber (orange)

A

C EAI displayed in green

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51
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Momentary Action switch?

It is sprung-loaded to the extend position

When pushed in flush with the panel it is ON

A flow bar may be visible when ON

Bottom half of the switch may indicate systems state PRESS FAIL OFF

A

A It is sprung-loaded to the extend position

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52
Q

The Hydraulic Centre Demand Pump will operate under which one of the following conditions?

When flaps or slats are in motion

From commencing the take off run until the gear is up and the gear doors closed

In the descent below 2,000 feet until gear is locked down, trucks tilted and gear doors closed

On the ground for five minutes after an engine has been started

A

A When flaps or slats are in motion

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53
Q

Which of the following will cause the speed brake lever to be driven aft from the ARMED position and spoiler extension to occur on landing?

On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are in reverse

Both thrust levers are not in the take-off range regardless of main gear position

On the ground and both thrust levers at idle regardless of main gear truck position

On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range

A

D On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range

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54
Q

From which source does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) receive its attitude information?

Left IRS

Standby ADRS

Right IRS

Internal Inertial sensors

A

D internal inertial

sensors

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55
Q

What does moving the control wheel pitch trim switch do in normal mode when airborne?

Resets the elevators to relieve any control loads

Changes the trim reference airspeed

Resets the stabilizer to cruise speed

Directly move the stabilizer

A

B Changes the trim reference airspeed

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56
Q

Upon completion of a non normal checklist, certain items have been removed to a later referenced normal checklist. How is this illustrated on the non-normal check list?

CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR TRANSFERRED ITEMS

CHECKLIST ITEMS HAVE BEEN DEFERRED

CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN

CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

A

D CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS

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57
Q

What does placing the BATTERY switch to the ON position in an unpowered aeroplane do?

Initiates the right (R) CCR start up sequence and after the R CCR start up is complete, energizes the Ground Handling Mode

Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode

Allows the APU to be started and some annunciator lights are illuminated

Initiates the start up sequence for both CCRs and after the start up sequence is complete, energizes the On Ground Mode

A

B Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode

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58
Q

What is the function of the Flight Deck Overhead Door Vent?

It opens to protect the fuselage against excessive negative pressure differential

Its is used for the emergency egress when the aircraft is on the ground

It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions

It opens to protect the fuselage against an excessive positive differential

A

C It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions

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59
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Audio control Panel ACP?

The BOOM only switch selects either the oxygen mask or headset boom mike

The minimum number of audio receiver switches in use at one time on any single ACP is limited to 3

The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position

Pushing the CAB transmitter selects switch twice within one second places a priority call to all cabins stations

A

C The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position

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60
Q

What is the first memory item of the ‘Airspeed Unreliable’ non-normal checklist?

A/P Disconnect Switch….Push

Disconnect Autothrottle switch

F/D Switches (both)…..OFF

Check pitch attitude and thrust for phase of flight

A

A A/P Disconnect Switch….Push

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61
Q

How does the EXIT HOLD facility direct the aircraft to leave the hold when executed?

Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned

Direct to the next waypoint

On selected aircraft heading

On the current aircraft heading

A

A Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned

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62
Q

What is the stated minimum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing?

  1. 75 degrees
  2. 25 degrees
  3. 5 degrees
  4. 0 degrees
A

C 2.5 degrees

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63
Q

During Take Off with LNAV armed when will it activate?

Above 400 feet radio altitude and at course intercept

LNAV engages immediately on lift off

Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route

Above 400 feet barometric altitude and with 2.5 nm of an active leg

A

C Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route

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64
Q

Which is the most applicable limitation that applies to the aircraft altimeters?

Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Captain or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet

The standby altimeter meets the accuracy requirement for RVSM

Capt and F/Os altimeter must agree within 50 feet with Standard pressure set, at all stages of flight

Altimeter are subject to position error

A

A Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Captain or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet

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65
Q

What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component limitation for the aeroplane?

20 Kts

25 Kts

15 Kts

10 Kts

A

C 15 Kts

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66
Q

With out LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated and a glide path angle of 2.5 degree, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height?

50 feet agl

100 feet agl

15 feet agl

200 feet agl

A

B 100 feet agl

67
Q

Which colour is used to display the most intense weather radar returns?

Red

White

Magenta

Green

A

A Red

68
Q

What is the BARO minimums indicator in the HUD?

It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale always on view

It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed

Its is a green pointer line, left of the altitude scale, when BARO minimums are displayed

It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when RA Minimums are displayed

A

B It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed

69
Q

The Left and Right hydraulic systems are virtually identical. What does the Left system power?

Left Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right Wing Spoiler

Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Left Wing Spoiler

Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers

Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Landing Gear Actuation

A

C Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers

70
Q

The MENU key on the tuning control panel (TCP) shows that a SYS POWER selection key is available. Pressing this key shows a SYS POWER page for which system?

For the GPWS

For the L, R and Center TCPs

For the L and R HF radios

For the Transponder and Weather Radars

A

D For the Transponder and Weather Radars

71
Q

What is the stated maximum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing?

  1. 0 Degrees
  2. 25 Degrees
  3. 75 Degrees
  4. 5 Degrees
A

B 3.25 Degrees

72
Q

The engines can only be started by the auto-start system. Under what circumstance does load shed occur during engine start?

Load shed only occurs if the AC Packs are left on

Load shed may occur with low output from the APU generator

Load shed occurs with only two GPUs available for starting. (Ground Power Units)

Load shed always occurs during start

A

D Load shed always occurs during start

73
Q

What is the procedure for the use of the Flight Deck Overhead Door as an emergency exit?

Remove protective cover, pull vent handle down, open panel inwards, throw rope out

Remove protective cover, rotate door handle, push door outwards, access and deploy descent devise

Remove cover, push vent handle up, push panel outwards, through descent devise

Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise

A

D Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise

74
Q

What is the primary and backup power source for the brakes?

Large Motor Controller and APU Battery

The 115V AC System and Standby Battery

Primary 235V AC System and Emergency Battery

28V DC bus system and main battery

A

D 28V DC bus system and main battery

75
Q

How many attempts will the auto-start system make for an in-flight start?

3 Attempts, 30 secs apart

2 Full cycles

Continuous start attempts

Maximum allowed by the Duty Cycle

A

C Continuous start attempts

76
Q

What is the minimum permitted oil temperature for engine start?

  • 25 degC
  • 30 degC
  • 10 degC
  • 40 degC
A

D -40 degC

77
Q

The APU can be started on the ground with no fuel pumps operating, and in flight up to what altitude?

14000 feet

12000 feet

22000 feet

10000 feet

A

A 14000 feet

78
Q

The approach Reference and Navigation sources annunciation in the top left hand corner of the PFD consists of 3 lines of data. It displays approach data on the first two lines What information is displayed on the third line?

Identifies the source that is programmed into the FMC

Identifies the source used for LNAV

Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale

Is used only for instrument lading system (ILS) approaches

A

C Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale

79
Q

Following a complete loss of FMC electrical power, what information requires re-entry?

POS INIT.

PERF INIT DATA

RTE

DEPARTURE

A

B PERF INIT DATA

80
Q

The Ground handling Mode is already active with the aeroplane parked. The Ground Service mode is then activated. What additional significant electrical loads become available?

Cargo heat and limited hydraulics

Limited cabin systems and lighting

Flight Deck equipment, controls and indications

PECs (both loops)

A

B Limited cabin systems and lighting

81
Q

During the exterior inspection, what is the maximum permitted light coating of frost on the lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel?

1 mm

0 mm

2 mm

3 mm

A

D 3 mm

82
Q

During a ground start, which one of the following malfunctions will cause the autostart to abort the start?

Hung Start

Hot Start

No EGT rise

The Loss of both starters

A

D The Loss of both starters

83
Q

What determines the pack outlet temperature?

The master cabin temperature controller

The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature

The temperature zone requiring the warmest temperature

The average demand of all temperature zones

A

B The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature

84
Q

Name a method that uses beams under dense cargo in order to provide a larger effective cargo foot print?

Shoring

Load support and restrain

Palletising

Linear loading

A

A Shoring

85
Q

The fuel balance system is used to correct a lateral fuel imbalance between main fuel tanks. Which of the following best describes its operation?

It automatically operates the fuel crossfeed valve to transfer fuel between the main tanks

It makes use of the higher pressure generated by the centre tank fuel pump to transfer between the main tanks

It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks

Operation is automatic and requires no pilot imput

A

C It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks

86
Q

What are the maximum Headwind, Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on HUD takeoff operations?

20, 20 and 25 knots respectively

20, 15 and 25 knots respectively

15, 15 and 20 knots respectively

25, 15 and 20 knots respectively

A

D 25, 15 and 20 knots respectively

87
Q

Which statement about Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) is true?

TAP continuously monitors engine data to determine the thrust level from each engine

TAP is only available in the normal and secondary flight control modes

TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine

TAP automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw associated with an engine failure at high thrust settings

A

C TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine

88
Q

Ground service personnel are unfamiliar with the aircraft and require the aeroplane to be powered to enable operation of the wing fueling panel. Which minimum level electrical mode will be necessary?

Ground handling mode

On-ground battery only mode

Towing mode

Ground Service mode

A

A Ground handling mode

89
Q

How is the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) TOO LOW GEAR alert inhibited?

Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the landing gear panel

Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel

Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD

Press the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the GPWS key from the menu, then select gear override (GEAR OVRD)

A

C Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD

90
Q

What is the electrical backup power source with loss of all electrical power to the captain’s and first officers flight instruments in flight?

RPDUs

Hot Battery Bus

Emergency bus (Direct service)

Ram Air Turbine(RAT)

A

D Ram Air Turbine(RAT)

91
Q

The AFDS provides autopilot guidance using Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) which statement about IAN procedures is true?

Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC

IAN approaches can be used only in GP and LOC modes

IAN supports automatic approaches and landings to CAT11 approach minimums for approaches with FMC generated glide path

The LOC or the FAC mode cannot capture selected lateral flight path if the intercept angle exceeds 60 degrees

A

A Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC

92
Q

A list of equipment faults that require Minimum Equipment List (MEL) reference for dispatch can be displayed how?

Select the SYSTEMS page of the EFB to view the equipment faults

Check the Ground database via the EFB

Select STATUS message page in an MFD

Check the CDU datalink status display

A

C Select STATUS message page in an MFD

93
Q

Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding requirement for Route Mode to be automatically selected on the VSD whist on the ground?

VNAV armed

A departure runway has been selected

An active flight plan has been entered

LNAV is armed

A

A VNAV armed

94
Q

What is the nose wheel steering range (in either direction from neutral) when using the tiller?

90 degrees

70 degrees

80 degrees

40 degrees

A

B 70 degrees

95
Q

The weather radar should not be operated in a hangar or within what distance of any fuel spill?

15.25 metres

100 metres

75 feet

125 feet

A

A 15.25 metres

96
Q

During ground starts the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start when?

Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation

Loss of one starter, or no oil pressure rise

Hung start, no EGT rise or no oil pressure rise

Loss of both starters, compressor stall, or no N1 rotation

A

A Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation

97
Q

What is the first memory item of the Engine Limit Exceed L or R non normal checklist?

Fuel control switch affected side…..Confirm…..CUTOFF

Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..RETARD

Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side)…..Confirm…..OFF

Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..IDLE

A

C Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side…..Confirm…..OFF

98
Q

Icing idle is selected when engine anti-ice is ON. Why does the EEC select approach idle when flaps are commanded to 25 or greater, OR the landing gear is selected DOWN?

To decrease acceleration time for go-around

So the engines will produce maximum anti-icing bleed air

To prevent idle thrust asymmetry

To prevent the engine Thrust Ramping

A

A To decrease acceleration time for go-around

99
Q

The engine auto-relight function is activated on the ground and in-flight under which of the following circumstances?

Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN

For in-flight starts, auto-relight makes continuous start attempts until either the engine either starts or the pilot aborts the start attempt.

Operates continuously whenever flaps are out of up and when engine anti-icing is ON or AUTO

Both systems are activated for in-flight starts

A

A Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN

100
Q

What is the primary source of power for the Flight Control Electronic’s?

Directly from the Mains Battery

The Main 235v AC System

28v DC distribution system

Three PMGs

A

D Three PMGs

101
Q

Which statement is correct concerning ATC route modification clearances received via datalink?

ATC datalink logon is automatic to participating ATC facilities, as is the transfer to adjacent ATC facilities

The FMC receives route modification clearances which can be transferred to the EFB for the confirmation and return to the FMC for acceptance

When a clearance is of a type that can be
loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and
the CDU help window

Uplink messages which contain route modifications are loaded into the FMC using the LOAD FMC function on the MFD ATC page

A

C When a clearance is of a type that can be
loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and
the CDU help window.

102
Q

When using the oxygen mask and goggles in a non normal situation, which of the following is a correct statement?

100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed

EMErGENCY position is selected when positive pressure is not needed

100%oxygen will provide a positive pressure in the mask and goggles to remove contaminates

Normal position is sufficient to keep flight deck air concentrates out of the mask and goggles

A

A 100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed

103
Q

How many electric cabin air compressors (CACs) supply and regulate outside air to the aeroplane?

2

4

6

8

A

B 4

104
Q

The VSD can display a FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line for approaches that have a designated approach angle. Choose the relevant correct answer?

It has a 3 degree green reference during the final approach that extends to 15nm

It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point

It has a solid magenta line that extends 10nm for situational awareness that is anchored to the runway thresshold

It indicates current flight path angle as a function of vertical speed and ground speed

A

B It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point

105
Q

MFD communications functions are used to control datalink features. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding a datalink feature?

The MFD L or R button on the Glareshield panel and the MCP controls the COMM display

Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by EICAS ATC

A digital departure ATIS request can be made by selecting MANAGER, confirm the Airport code, select DEPARTURE, Then select SEND

Datalink messages not used by the FMC can be displayed on the MFDs but not printed

A

B Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by an EICAS •ATC

106
Q

How is the top-of-climb identified on the navigation display (ND)?

Green circle labeled T/C

Cyan (blue) Circle labeled TOC

Green circle labeled TOC

Cyan (blue) Circle labeled T/C

A

A Green circle labeled T/C

107
Q

In normal mode, during high speed flight which control surfaces provide roll control?

Ailerons

Some spoilers

Flaperons and Spoilers

Flaperons and Ailerons

A

C Flaperons and Spoilers

108
Q

What happens when the Alternate Gear switch is selected to Down?

C2 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.

A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks

C1 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.

Electric motors mechanically release the doors, the gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.

A

B A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks

109
Q

When will the PITCH LIMIT INDICATION be displayed on the PFD?

Below 1500”RA and the gear is down

Only when the gear is down

Below 20,000’

When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up

A

D When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up

110
Q

Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed?

Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears

Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED

No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start

Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay

A

B Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED

111
Q

With WINDOW HEAT switches ON, what surface protection is provided to the forward flight deck window?

Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing

Both interior and exterior surface anti fogging

Interior surface anti icing, exterior surface anti fogging

Both interior and exterior surface anti- icing.

A

A Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing

112
Q

What flap settings can be used for automatic landings with one engine inoperative?

Flaps 15,20 or 30

Flaps 20 or 25 Only

Flaps 25 or 30 Only

Flaps 20, 25 or 30

A

D Flaps 20, 25 or 30

113
Q

During an approach in VNAV with VNAV PATH annunciated and at command speed, when does the reference thrust limit change from CRZ to GA?

Selecting flaps 20

Extending the Landing Gear

1500’ RA

Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1

A

D Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1

114
Q

Navigation Performance scale (NPS) Indicators are displayed on the PFD. Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning when the NPS is displayed?

When TO/GA Roll Mode is ACTIVE

When VNAV is ACTIVE

When LNAV is armed or ACTIVE

All of the above

A

D All of the above

115
Q

What are the first three memory items of the FIRE ENG L,R non-normal checklist?

Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF

Fuel control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..ROTATE

A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF ThrustLever…..Confirm…..IDLE Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL

A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF

A

D A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF
Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE
Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF

116
Q

Which of the following braking actions provide the greatest aircraft deceleration rate on a dry runway in the landing mode?

Auto brakes selection 4

Auto brakes selection 1

Full pedal braking

Auto brakes selection MAX AUTO

A

C Full pedal braking

117
Q

What is the minimum height for engaging the autopilot after takeoff?

50 feet AGL

200 feet AGL

100 feet AGL

400 feet AGL

A

B 200 feet AGL

118
Q

During an external inspection a warning horn is heard from the nose wheel well area. What does this indicate?

The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally

The IRS have been left ON with the aeroplane unmanned for more than 30 minutes

The APU fire waring has been set off

It is a low battery aural warning for ground crew

A

A The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally

119
Q

Whilst on the ground during the take off run an RTO is initiated. Above what groundspeed will the RTO auto braking setting command maximum braking pressure?

90 Kts

85 Kts

80 Kts

75 Kts

A

B 85 Kts

120
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning weather radar operation?

Turbulence due precipitation and Clear Air turbulence are both sensed by the weather radar

The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude

The system self tests only on initial start up

Weather radar returns on the ND and mini map will show out to 640 nm range

A

B The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude

121
Q

On the ground with both engines shutdown, what will cause the APU to shutdown and the extinguisher bottle to discharge?

Can only be manually shutdown from the flight deck or nose wheel well

An overheat detected in both loops

A fire detected in both loops

A fire detected in either loop

A

D A fire detected in either loop

122
Q

What is the maximum time that Wing Anti-ice may be load shed during high electrical loads?

It is never load shed at any time

One Minute

Ninety Seconds

Thirty Seconds

A

D Thirty Seconds

123
Q

On the PFD, what condition is indicated by an amber line through a FMA mode annunciator and a flight director bar removed? Is the Autopilot still engaged?

The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data

The applicable mode has reverted to CWS and autopilot remains engaged

Autopilot disengages.

Applicable mode has disengaged, but the autopilot remains engaged.

A

A The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data

124
Q

How is an item identified as an open loop item on the electronic checklist (ECL)?

Gray box to the left of the item

Item appears in green text

Black square box to the left of the item

Green tick in the box to the left of item

A

A Gray box to the left of the item

125
Q

There are a number of situations that will cause the speed brake lever to be automatically operated regardless of its initial position. Identify the one which is INCORRECTLY described

Driven UP on take off with ground speed above 60 kts when either thrust lever is retarded to idle

Driven to the DOWN position when in the air when eith thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel

Driven UP on landing when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take off range

Driven to the DOWN position when on the ground and either thrust lever is moved to the take off range

A

C Driven UP on landing when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take off range

126
Q

How is a closed loop item identified on the electronic checklist (ECL)?

When the control is in the required position, the line item displays a green ‘complete’ indicator left of the line item.

Closed loop line items can be distinguished from open loop line items by display of the closed loop indicator, a grey box located to the left of the line item.

When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item.

Closed loop conditional line items are followed by selections labelled YES and NO. The cursor is placed adjacent to the YES - NO line, requiring the pilot to use the cursor to select the appropriate answer.

A

C When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item.

127
Q

How is the TCAS airspace display mode selected?

To set airspace above , normal or below press menu on the TCP, then select TCAS, then press the line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW

To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW

To set airspace above, normal or below press the systems(SYS) display switch on the DSP, select TCAS, then choose the desired setting from menu

Airspace above, normal or below is selected with the TCAS rotary selector on the transponder panel

A

B To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW

128
Q

Where is the list of aircraft systems which are affected by load shedding shown?

Individual equipment Caution messages

The ECL Non Normal CL

The Electric synoptic

Individual “Load Shed” EICAS Message

A

C The Electric synoptic

129
Q

What is the correct method for entering an along track waypoint 25 miles after MWH on the present route?

MWH25

MWH/25

MWH/-25

MWH-25

A

B MWH/25

130
Q

With the APU providing electrical power on the ground and both pack switches in Auto, how many Cabin Air Compressors (CACs) will be operating?

3

1

2

4

A

C 2

131
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning the landing gear and brakes?

The normal nose wheel hydraulic system is powered by the right hydraulic system

The alternate brake system is powered by the backup electrical power source

The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units

The aft axle of each main gear pivot in order to improve turning radius

A

C The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units

132
Q

Which hydraulic system(s) provides power to the main landing gear actuation and nose gear steering?

Right

Left

Either Left or Right via Nose Gear and Steering Isolation valves

Centre

A

D Centre

133
Q

What is the action required following an alert by cabin staff of smoke forming in the rear cabin?

Immediately don oxygen masks, IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF

Confirm by EICAS message Smokes Fire or Fumes Open ECL

Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist, select Smoke Fire or Fumes removal

Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes

A

D Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes

134
Q

What is the maximum duration for which a fully charged remote battery will provide power to emergency lighting system?

20 minutes

15 minutes

30 minutes

10 minutes

A

D 10 minutes

135
Q

How is low hydraulic reservoir quantity shown on the status display?

QTY is displayed in white

LO is displayed in white

LO is displayed in amber (orange)

QTY is displayed in amber (orange)

A

C LO is displayed in amber (orange)

136
Q

With the Cargo Fire Arm switch selected to ARM during a non normal procedure where are the outflow positioned?

Both valves Close to reduce through flow of air

Out flow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air stability

Forward Valve opens, Aft motors Closed to vent smoke via forward valve

Forward Valve Closes, Aft motors Open to vent smoke via the rear valve

A

B outflow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air flow stability

137
Q

The ram air turbine (RAT), when deployed, provides hydraulic power to the primary fight controls connected to which of the hydraulic system(s)?

Centre

Right

Left

Left, centre and right

A

A Centre

138
Q

What cools the large motor power distribution?

Conditioned air ducted from the passenger cabin

The Integrated Cooling System (ICS)

The Miscellaneous Cooling System

The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)

A

D The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS)

139
Q

What is the function of the Nitrogen Generation system on board?

To slightly pressurize the main, surge and centre fuel tanks to add fuel feed

To overpressure the centre fuel tanks to empty first and also assist any fuel jettison rate

To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability

To maintain stable fuel temperatures to avoid ice crystals forming or fuel overheating

A

C To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability

140
Q

Thrust control malfunction Accommodation is an EEC function that provides thrust asymmetry protection under what circumstances?

At any time a thrust asymmetry is detected by the EEC

In the event of of an engine failure on take off below 1000 feet AGL

Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground

During a go-around at light weights and aft center of gravity

A

C Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground

141
Q

What is the stated maximum allowable runway slope limitation?

+/- 3 deg

+/- 1.5 deg

+/- 1.5%

+/- 2%

A

D +/- 2%

142
Q

Inflight, the FMC gives priority to which of these systems to determine present position?

Global Positioning System and Inerial Reference System

Global Positioning System, navigation radios and ADIRU

ADIRU and the co-located VOR/DME

Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data

A

D Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data

143
Q

In a VNAV descent the vertical path to the first altitude constrain is based on off idle thrust , speedbrake retracted and what else?

Economy descent target speed, distance to the first constraint, no anti ice

FMC cruise wind applicable target speed wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page and the predicted use of anti-ice

FMC wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed

FMC cruise wind, the predicted use of anti-ice, and economy target speed of VMO/MMo-16knots

A

B • FMC cruise wind
• applicable target speed
• wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page
• predicted use of anti-ice

144
Q

What are the memory items of the ‘Engine Severe Damage/Sep L,R’ non-normal check list?

A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL

A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL and rotate

Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF

A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF

A 
A A/T ARM switch (affected side) . . . . . . Confirm . . . . OFF
Thrust lever (affected side) . . ……………. . Confirm .  . Idle
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) . Confirm .CUTOFF
Engine fire switch (affected side) . ….. .   Confirm . . . Pull
145
Q

In case of a minor fuel imbalance, how may manual fuel cross-feed be initiated?

Open the cross-feed valve switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side

Switch OFF pumps on the low quantity side and open the both cross-valve

Switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side and open the cross-feed valve

Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side

A

D Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side

146
Q

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the Alternate Navigation Page?

It displays data about each leg of the entered route when using alternate navigation

It is where navigation radios are tuned and related parameters display when utilizing the alternate navigation system

It is access through the CDU and is used as an alternate navigation system operatng with the alternate navigation radio pages

It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability

A

D It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability

147
Q

What are the maximum Headwind Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?

20, 20 and 25 knots respectively

15, 15 and 25 knots respectively

20, 15 and 20 knots respectively

25, 15 and 25 knots respectively

A

D 25, 15 and 25 knots respectively

148
Q

Which statement is true about the VHF page display function?

Scratchpad frequencies, can only be entered into the standby windows. The previously active frequency is deleted from the page display

New frequencies are entered into scratchpad. the decimal and or following zeros for this frequency are required

VHF pages 2,3 and 4 can contain up to 4 stored frequencies for each radio

For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency

A

D For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency

149
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the automatic ice detection system?

It is never inhibited at any time

It causes bleed air to be directed to the engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems

It consists of two electrically heated engine inlet mounted ice detectors

It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems

A

D It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems

150
Q

Which of the following GPWS voice annunciations indicate an atltitude loss with flaps and /or gear UP, after Take off or go around?

SINK RATE

DON’T SINK

TOO LOW, FLAPS

TOO LOW, GEAR

A

B DON’T SINK

151
Q

With AC power available and the APU selector in the ON position, which fuel pump is commanded on regardless of flight deck switch position?

Left forward Fuel pump

Left center fuel pump

Right Aft Fuel Pump

Left Aft Fuel Pump

A

D Left Aft Fuel Pump

152
Q

What is indicated by the ALIGN HUD message in Head Up Display?

The pilot must adjust his,her seat to ensure correct eye position relative to the display

The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector

The system is awaiting IRS alignment to supply data to the HUD

The system is awaiting ADRS alignment to supply data to the HUD

A

B The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector

153
Q

The stabiliser takeoff trim greenband indicates the allowable takeoff trim limits based on data from the FMC. What other source provides sets of validation limits to confirm that the computed green band is correct?

Information from two nose gear pressure transducers

Main and nose gear pressure data

Information from main gear and nose gear oleo proximity switches

Main gear truck tilt sensor data

A

A Information from two nose gear pressure transducers

154
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning the use of MEL performance penalty data?

Added MEL items are automatically applied to enroute landing performance selections

Performance penalty data can only be added by reference to MEL handbook

There is no indication of confirming MEL performance adjustments have been made

Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data

A

D Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data

155
Q

Which of the following is a true statement when the PFD is operating in Reversion Mode?

VNAV speed band and minimum maneuvering speed indications fail

The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window

The flight Mode Annunciators and Navigation Source References are inhibited

Instrument approaches with FMC computed glide path paths are not displayed

A

B The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window

156
Q

Which of the following best describes the probe heats?

Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated

Wing mounted pitot probes are heated in flight to protect against ice accretion

The angle of attack probe will operate once both engines have been started

Three TAT (Total Air Temperature) probes are electrically heated for ice protection

A

A Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated

157
Q

Following the initial memory items of the CABIN ALTITUDE non normal checklist What is the correct sequence of actions to commence the descent?

Move thrust levers to idle Extend speedbrakes Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO

Disengage the autopilot Move thrust levers to idle Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO

Extend speedbrakes Move thrust levers to idle Descend at VMO/MMO Accomplish Rapid Descent checklist

Move thrust levers to idle Disengage the autopilot Extend speedbrakes Descend at VMO/MMO

A

A •Move the thrust levers to idle
•Extend the speedbrakes
•If structural integrity is in doubt, limit
airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads
•Descend at Vmo/Mmo

158
Q

Where can the Flight Crew oxygen pressure be checked?

Bottom of the left EICAS display

EICAS maintenance page

Accessory panel

Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT

A

D Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT

159
Q

Whats does the TAMS display on the PDF indicate?

The Auto Throttle has reverted to Thrust Alternate Mode due to asymmetry

The Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed system is controlling thrust

The Thrust Asymmetry Monitoring System has failed (Red)

The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry

A

D The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry

160
Q

How many temperature zones is the aeroplane divided into?

7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones

3, Flight Deck and 2 passenger zones

2 Flight Deck and Passenger

4, Flight deck and 3 passenger zones

A

A 7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones

161
Q

What EICAS annunciation indicates that a thrust reverser is in transit?

REV display in green

RVSR display in green

REV displayed in amber (orange)

RVSR displayed in amber (orange)

A

C REV displayed in amber (orange)

162
Q

Below what airspeed is wing anti-ice inhibited on the ground?

75 Kts

60 Kts

Vr

100 Kts

A

A 75 Kts

163
Q

Which FMC page can be used to calculate/display clean and drag descent pages?

DESCENT FORECAST

OFFPATH DES

APPROACH REF

ARRIVALS

A

B OFFPATH DESCENT

Limitations OMA (3 decks)

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