Tech Questions

Question 1

Approach speeds are based on what?

Answer 1

Based on Aircraft Category.

Vat= Vso x 1.3   or    Vs1g x 1.23
Category A: Speed 90 knots or less.
Category B: Between 91 and 120 knots.
Category C: Between 121 and 140 knots.
Category D: Between 141 knots and 165 knots.
Category E: Speed 166 knots or more.

Question 2

You fly what based aircraft?

What IFR category do you fly under?

Answer 2

Cat B Aircraft

2.66NM (300ft obst. clearance)

Question 3

The max cat b speeds?

Answer 3

Vat 91-120
FAF 85-130
IAF 120-180
Circling 135
Missed approach 150
Reversal procedure 140kts

Question 4

Tell us the missed approach climb gradient?

What is the obstacle clearance provided by the missed approach?

Answer 4

2.5%

provides min 100ft clearance

Question 5

Descent below circling MDA?

Answer 5

Circling:
1. Remain within the circling area
2. Maintain visibility along the flight path not less than specified on the chart
3. Maintain visual contact with the landing runway environment
and:
a. By Day not less than the minimum obstacle clearance for the aircraft category
b. By day and night only from a position on downwind base or final that allows for normal rates of descent for the aircraft type.

Question 6

How do you conduct a missed approach if circling and lose visual?

Answer 6

Climb
Turn towards the landing Runway
Intercept missed approach track
Communicate

Question 7

Define the Cat C Circling area.

+ speeds

Answer 7

Vat 121-140
IAF 160-240
FAF 115-160
Circling 180
missed approach 240
4.2NM (400ft obst. clearance)

Question 8

Does the circling area change if you have more than one runway?

Answer 8

Yes as long as the runway is a usable runway.

Question 9

What about if one of the runways was 800m and grass?
How do they work out the circling area?
(Asked about a crossing runway that wasn’t suitable, can it be used?)

Answer 9

-

Question 10

What are the requirements for visual circling?

Answer 10

Circling:
1. Remain within the circling area
2. Maintain visibility along the flight path not less than specified on the chart
3. Maintain visual contact with the landing runway environment
and:
a. By Day not less than the minimum obstacle clearance for the aircraft category
b. By day and night only from a position on downwind base or final that allows for normal rates of descent for the aircraft type.

Question 11

How do you circle to land at night if your MDA approach is higher than your
circuit altitude?

Answer 11

Continue with normal circling procedures. you may conduct descent from downwind base or final as required to maintain on a normal descent profile

Question 12

How would you take a climb gradient less than 2.5% into account for a missed approach.

Answer 12

Raise the MDA or DA to allow for the reduced climb performance.

Missed approach altitude - ((Altitude to climb in the MAP x Climb angle) / 2.5%)

Question 13

Define a Visual Approach by Day and Night.

Answer 13

Day:
Within 30nm 
Not bellow: MSA, LSALT ,dme gps arival, control step +500ft. 
clear of cloud
Insight of ground or water 
5k vis

Night:
Not bellow: MSA, LSALT ,dme gps arival, control step +500ft. 
clear of cloud
Insight of ground or water 
5k vis

until the aircraft is:
established in the circling area
or within 3nm of the aerodrome reference point.
or
within 5nm on centerline or 7nm ILS equipped with papi tvasi lights not below slope
or
10nm on glide slope or 14nm YSYN

Question 14

What are the requirements for circling day/ and night?

Answer 14

Obstacle clearance descent below MDA only by day.

Question 15

Unexplained discrepancy on the ILS at the OM check, what do you do?

Answer 15

Go around

Question 16

Standard take off minima? Is this what you use?

Answer 16

300ft and 2k vis.
or

The take-off minima mentioned in this section apply to a take-off that:
(a) is not a low-visibility take-off; and
(b) is conducted using a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane.
(2) The take-off minima are:
(a) visibility of:
(i) 800 m, or
(ii) 550 m, but only if:
(A) the runway has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60 m; and
(B) the runway has centreline lighting or centreline markings; and
(C) all lighting mentioned in sub-subparagraphs (A) and (B) is supported by a secondary power supply with a switchover capability of 1 second or less; and
(D) if the aerodrome is a non-controlled aerodrome or a controlled aerodrome where ATC is not in operation — the take-off is conducted by day and the aerodrome is one at which the carriage of radio is mandatory.

qualifying multi-engine aeroplane means an IFR multi-engine aeroplane, whether powered by piston or turboprop engines, that is:

(a) operated by:
(i) at least 2 pilots; or
(ii) if fitted with operative autofeather — 1 pilot; and
(b) in the event of an engine failure — capable of maintaining terrain clearance until reaching the minimum height for IFR flight.

Question 17

What is blue line for your aircraft? What is the definition of blue line?
Does it
change with weight?

Answer 17

Blue line is best rate of climb single engine.

No it does not change with weight.
Although the performance eg. climb rate it self will be better with a reduced weight the speed however does not change.

Question 18

Tell us what red line is?

Answer 18

Vmca
Minimum control speed single engine
The speed is assessed under specific conditions:

maximum permissible power on all operating engines
critical engine wind milling
full rudder deflection or some nominated amount of pedal force, whichever occurs first
5 degrees of bank away from failed engine
flaps in take-off position
landing gear retracted
the most unfavourable centre of gravity (full aft)

Question 19

Speed and time limitations on holding

Answer 19

Below FL140:
230IAS (170kts CAT A&B) (1min hold)

ABV FL140: 240IAS (1.5min hold)

ABV FL200: 265IAS

Above the highest MSA in turbulence and with ATC permission the lesser or 280kts or M0.8

Question 20

Qualifying aircraft requirements to use reduced take off minima?
What are the take off minima?
Not qualifying?
limitations to the take-off requirements?

Answer 20

Chapter 15 Part 91 MOS

Qualifying multi-engine aeroplane means an IFR aeroplane that is:
(a) either:
(i) a multi-engine jet-powered aeroplane with an MTOW of more than 2 722 kg;
or
(ii) a multi-engine turboprop-powered aeroplane with an MTOW of more than
5 700 kg that is:
(A) operated by at least 2 pilots; or
(B) operated by 1 pilot and fitted with operative auto-feather; and
(b) in the event of an engine failure — capable of maintaining terrain clearance until
reaching the minimum height for IFR flight.

Able to meet climb gradient requirements
min 800m vis
or 550m if edge lighting is Max 60m intervals and centreline lighting or markings. If no ATC, must be day and at an airport that requires radios

The take-off minima mentioned in this section apply to a take-off that:

(a) is not a low-visibility take-off; and
(b) is not conducted using a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane.
(2) The take-off minima are:
(a) a cloud ceiling of 300 ft; and
(b) visibility of 2 000 m.

A pilot in command must not commence a take-off if, at the time of take-off:
(a) the meteorological conditions are less than the take-off minima for the aircraft; or
(b) the meteorological conditions that would exist if it were necessary to return to
land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, are not:
(i) at or above the landing minima for any IAP that the pilot in command is able
to conduct at the aerodrome; or
(ii) such as to allow a visual approach for the return to land.

Question 21

What are the minima and requirements for approaches?

NPA
PA
Vis

Answer 21

Part 91 MOS
15.09
Landing minima requirements
(1) Landing minima obtained from an instrument approach chart must be selected in
accordance with:
(a) the specified aircraft performance category; and
(b) aircraft LNAV and VNAV capabilities.
(2) Landing minima must meet the requirements of section 15.10.

Selected minima must never be blow the chart value, AFM or company document(exposition/ops-manual)

15.10
Precision Approach Procedure:
800 m — (ii) the approach lighting system normally available beyond 420 m from the runway threshold is inoperative;
runway threshold is inoperative;
1 200 m — (iv) the approach lighting system normally available beyond 210 m from the runway threshold is inoperative;
1 500 m — but only if the approach lighting system normally available for the
runway is inoperative;

1.5x times either the RVR or the visibility specified on the instrument approach
chart for the IAP being conducted — but only if:
(i) a lighting failure has occurred on a runway at a controlled aerodrome; and
(ii) doubled spacing of runway edge lights results.

Question 22

When can we use the 0.8km visibility criteria?

Answer 22

Minima for cat 1 can be used except
1.5km required if HIAL NA
1.2KM required unless:
Aircraft manually flown with FD to DA or with AP to DA coupled to LOC and GS or GLS
Aircraft has warning system for primary attitude and heading reference system failure
High intensity runway edge lighting available
800m required If RVR information in threshold NA

Question 23

When can you use the special alternate weather minima at certain aerodromes around Australia?

Answer 23

Double asterisk **
Only at some airports as stated on the chart.
Not available if:
Local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available
or
Airport control services are not available.

Must have dual ILS/VOR approach capability.
1. duplicated LOC and
2. duplicated GP and
3. duplicated VOR and
either:
a. dup. DME or 
b. dup. GNSS or 
c. single DME + single GNSS

Question 24

What is the wake turbulence separation required on your aircraft?

Answer 24

Light following either Medium or Heavy:
Arrival : 3min
Displaced Landing Threshold: 2min
Opposite direction: 2min
Departure Full length: 2min
Departure Intermediate: 3min 

Light separation to Super add +1min.

*Distance can not be used in lieu of time for intermediate departures.

Distance separation standards light aircraft:

to Medium : 5nm
to Heavy: 6nm
to Super: 8nm

Question 25

What would be your actions, if any, if you received a RAIM Warning message after passing the initial approach fix?

Answer 25

Missed approach requirements:

1. Not visual at DA/MDA/MAPT
2. RAIM warning or loss of RAIM after the IAF
3. outside tolerance
4. Failure of an aid or suspect aid and bellow MSA
5. Lost visual reference during circling.

Question 26

What is the take off separation required on your aircraft?

Answer 26

1. Crossed the upwind threshold
2. Commenced a turn
3. RWY longer than 1800m they must be airborne and at least 1800m ahead
4. <7000kg flowed by <2000kg and slower , 600m ahead of the following aircraft
5. both <2000kg airborne and 600m ahead of the point of lift off.
6. preceding landing aircraft is vacated the Runway
7. aircraft on another runway have crossed or stopped short of crossing runway.

ATC may give a clearance in anticipation that the prescribed separation will exist at the time that your take-off roll is commenced.

Question 27

When can you descend below the MDA/DA of an instrument approach?

Descent below circling MDA?

Answer 27

1. Visual reference can be maintained
2. Minima requirements adhered to (vis)
3. Continuously in a position where landing can be made with normal rates of descent and manoeuvres to the touchdown zone.

Circling:
1. Remain within the circling area
2. Maintain visibility along the flight path not less than specified on the chart
3. Maintain visual contact with the landing runway environment
and:
a. By Day not less than the minimum obstacle clearance for the aircraft category
b. By day and night only from a position on downwind base or final that allows for normal rates of descent for the aircraft type.

Question 28

At what speeds (Vat/Vref) must your aircraft cross the threshold?

Answer 28

Vat is the indicated speed at the threshold which is equal to Vso x1.3 or Vs1g x1.23 Landing config at max landing weight.
If both Vso and Vs1g are available then the higher resulting speed must be used.

Vso = landing config stall speed 
Vs = Clean stall speed

Question 29

What is the maximum error allowable for your aircraft altimeters?

Answer 29

60ft IFR or 75ft to first location for test
100ft VFR or 110ft above 3300ft.
unserviceable Alt must be placarded and MR endorsed

Question 30

Flight level QNH and standard hand over for climb and descent with change in QNH?

Answer 30

Always 1013.2hpa on the climb through 10,000ft

Set local QNH or Area QNH when descending through FL

Flight level not available for cruising
FL110 with QNH less than 1013
FL115 with QNH less than 997
FL120 with QNH less than 980
FL125 with QNH less than 963

Question 31

IFR flight Cruising levels for Flight levels?

Non RVSM aircraft (approved to fly in RVSM airspace)

Answer 31

East Odd numbers up to FL290
West even numbers up to FL280

East FL330 , FL370 , FL410
West FL310 , FL350 , FL390

Question 32

Approved non precision approach LOC HIAL out consideration?

CAT 1 ILS minimum vis required?

Answer 32

unless stated otherwise VIS must be increased by 900m

ILS
HIALS out = 1.5k vis

normal operations 1.2k vis unless:
If flying with Autopilot engaged or flight director and aircraft is equipped with failure warning systems and high intensity RWY edge lights are available

without threshold RVR 0.8k vis is required.

Question 33

Explain TAF3

Answer 33

Carry holding fuel for inter 30min or tempo 60min.

During the First 3 hrs of a TAF the following does not apply:
a. 30min buffers for FM and BECMG periods.

b. The ALTERNATE or HOLDING fuel required by:
1. Prob endorsed visibility , for reduction in visibility due to fog, mist, dust, smoke…..
or
2. for any PROB30 or PROB40 for TS or associated severe turbulence.

Question 34

Alternate requirements?

Answer 34

-

Question 35

Special alternate weather minima limitations?

Answer 35

Special alternate weather minima are available for specified approaches at some
airports for use by aircraft with dual ILS/VOR approach capability.
 Dual ILS/VOR
approach capability must include:
a. duplicated LOC; and
b. duplicated GP; and
c. duplicated VOR; and
d. either:
(i) duplicated DME; or
(ii) duplicated GNSS; or
(iii) single DME and single GNSS.

Special alternate weather minima are identified on applicable instrument
approach charts by a double asterisk adjacent to the ALTERNATE title and a note detailing the special minima.

These special alternate minima will not be available
(minima will revert to the standard alternate minima) during periods when:
a. local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available; or
b. an airport control service is not provided

Question 36

How do you calculate descent profile?

Answer 36

standard 3deg profile
height loss x3

eg. 10,000ft descent requires 30nm + add some buffer to start the descent (3nm)
so the answer should be roughly 33nm

Question 37

Stable approach criteria

Answer 37

1. Aircraft on correct flight path
2. Small changes in heading / pitch only to maintain correct flight path
3. Airspeed is not more than Vref +10kts (Vref +20 IAS for DA42 Instrument approaches) and not less than Vref
4. Aircraft in correct landing configuration
5. Sink rate is not greater than 1000fpm (glide approach excluded)
6. Briefing and checklist is completed
   7.ILS approach must be within 1/2 scale deflection of glide slope and localiser.
   During Circling approach or low level circuits wings should be level in final approach when the aircraft reaches 300ft above airport elevation.

• Unique approach procedures or abnormal conditions require a special briefing in multi crew or single crew req. contingency planning

A go around must be executed if the aircraft is not stable or become unstable below the following minimum heights:
VMC: 200ft above airport elevation (must be on final approach by 500ft)
IMC: 1000ft above airport elevation.