TECH EXAME Flashcards
1
Q
Which statement is correct:
Select one:
A. Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply.
B. Bleed air is provided from the 5th and 9th stage of the compressor whenever the bleed air valve is selected ON.
C. Bleed air is only supplied from the 5th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 9th stage alone can supply.
D. Bleed air is constantly provided from stage 5 and stage 9 of the compressor.
A
A. Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply.
2
Q
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
Select one:
A. The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.
B. The packs will automatically switch off, and cabin temperature is controlled by the mix manifold and the recirculation fans.
C. The remaining pack will not operate in HIGH flow.
D. The remaining pack when selected to AUTO will be capable of maintaining pressurisation up to aircraft ceiling, only if all Zone Temperature Controllers are selected to OFF.
A
A. The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.
3
Q
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
Select one:
A. The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.
B. The last settings before the failure will be maintained until the packs are selected OFF.
C. The cabin temperatures cannot be controlled in this situation.
D. A fixed cabin temperature will be produced in this situation - 24 degrees C from the left pack, and 18 degrees C from the right pack.
A
A. The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.
4
Q
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
Select one:
A. The trim air modulating valves close so no pack air is provided to the two cabin zones, only re-circulated air is provided.
B. The flight deck required temperature will also be provided to the passenger cabin.
C. An average temperature for the two cabin zones.
D. Left pack produces 18 degrees C, right pack produces 22 degrees C.
A
C. An average temperature for the two cabin zones.
5
Q
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Select one:
A. Engine struts, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU duct, keel beam.
B. Engine cowl lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, electronic equipment bay, APU bleed duct.
C. Engine cowling lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU compartment, keel beam.
D. Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.
A
D. Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.
6
Q
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
Select one:
A. The right pack will produce a fixed temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit, and the left pack will produce a fixed temperature of 65 degrees Fahrenheit.
B. Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade.
C. The packs will attempt to maintain an average temperature across all zones.
A
B. Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade.
7
Q
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
Select one:
True
False
A
False
8
Q
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
Select one:
True
False
A
True
9
Q
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
Select one:
True
False
A
True
10
Q
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.
Select one:
True
False
A
True
11
Q
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
Select one:
True
False
A
False
11
Q
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
Select one:
A. Up to 60 seconds.
B. Up to 30 seconds
C. Immediately.
D. 195 minutes.
A
B. Up to 30 seconds
11
Q
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
Select one:
A. Detecting heat above a pre-set value only.
B. Forward cargo compartment set to detect smoke only, due to hot air from cabin conditioning system being discharged into forward cargo hold, aft cargo compartment set to detect both smoke and heat.
C. Detecting either smoke or heat above a pre-set value.
D. Detecting smoke only
A
D. Detecting smoke only
11
Q
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
Select one:
A. 1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.
B. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, one for forward cargo hold, and one for rear cargo hold.
C. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, 1 rapid discharge bottle and one smaller slow discharge bottle.
D. 1 fire extinguisher bottle that can only be discharged into forward cargo hold.
A
A. 1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.
12
Q
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
Select one:
A. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.
B. Extinguishes Master Caution and Fire Warning lights, silences Fire Warning Bell, shuts down No1 engine, and discharges No1 Fire Bottle into No1 engine.
C. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes inlet valve to both Air Conditioning Packs, trips IDG control relay, arms both Squibs on both on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.
D. Closes engine fuel shutoff valve, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure warning light, disables thrust reverser, arms Squib on No1 engine fire bottle, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated to the left to discharge bottle into N01 engine.
A
A. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.
13
Q
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
Select one:
a. The fire warning bell is only silenced once the condition causing the Overheat or Fire warning has been removed.
b. Only by pushing the Master FIRE WARN light
c. Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.
d. Pushing the Master FIRE WARN light, or pushing the bell mute button located next to the speaker on the flight deck ceiling.
A
c. Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.
14
Q
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
Flight Deck Fire Panel
Select one:
A. All fire extinguisher bottles are at the required pressure
B. Fire warning system test completed satisfactorily.
C. Fire Switch unlock test satisfactory.
D. Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal
A
Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal
15
Q
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
Select one:
A. Carry out the test again with the switch selected to FAULT/INOP testing each loop individually with the OVHT DET switch at A then B.
B. Move to FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE switch to the central TEST position, then test one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected first to A and then B.
C. Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B.
D. This indication only occurs when BOTH loops have failed.
A
C. Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B.
16
Q
How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?
Select one:
A. Lavatory Fire warning illuminated on flight deck.
B. Extinguisher discharge nozzle will have changed colour
C. Pressure gauge on fire bottle in the green zone.
D. Fire bottle will have it’s “pop-out” indicator exposed.
E. Discharge indicator panel above lavatory door illuminated.
F. Steady red light remains illuminated on Lavatory ceiling smoke detector panel after alarm tone has silenced.
A
B. Extinguisher discharge nozzle will have changed colour
17
Q
True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.
APU Ground Control Panel
Select one:
True
False
A
True
18
Q
Ryanair’s B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
Select one:
True
False
A
True
19
Q
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.
Select one:
True
False
A
False
20
Q
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).
Select one:
True
False
A
True
21
Q
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
Select one:
True
False
A
False
22
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
A. There is an outflow valve which opens when cabin pressure reaches 9.1 psi above ambient.
B. There are two negative pressure relief valves, which limit the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient.
C. There is a negative pressure relief valve, which limits the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient.
D. There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi.
D. There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi.
23
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
Select one:
A. The galley busses are not automatically shed in this situation.
B. Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed.
C. Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed.
D. All galley busses are automatically shed.
All galley busses are automatically shed.
24
When will the APU GEN OFF BUS illuminate?
Select one:
a. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No 2.
b. Whenever the APU is not running.
c. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No l.
d. When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus.
D. When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus.
25
During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be
Select one:
A. Usually more than 28 Volts
B. Equal to 28 Volts
C. Over 32 volts.
D. Less than 28 Volts
A. Usually more than 28 Volts
26
Which statement is correct when operating on standby power only?
Select one:
A. The First Officer's PFD and ND will operate continuously.
B. Both the Captain's and First Officer's PFD and ND will operate continuously.
C. The Captain's PFD and ND will operate.
D. The Captain's PFD and the First Officer's ND will operate.
The Captain's PFD and ND will operate.
26
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
Select one:
a. If any TR has failed.
b. When TR1 has failed.
c. The TR UNIT light only illuminates when the aircraft is on the ground.
d. When TR1 and TR2 have failed.
b. When TR1 has failed.
27
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
Select one:
On the Aft Overhead panel on the Flight Deck
In the external AC power receptacle located on the lower right side of the fuselage.
On the Aft Attendant´s panel
On the Forward Attendant´s panel
On the Forward Attendant´s panel
27
What does illumination of the ELEC light indicate whilst on the ground?
Select one:
A. DC power system fault.
B. Standby power system fault.
C. A fault in the AC power system
D. A fault exists in the DC Power System or Standby Power System
D. A fault exists in the DC Power System or Standby Power System
28
When the battery is being charged approximately what can battery voltage reach?
Select one:
24 volts.
More than 28 Volts
28 volts.
115 volts.
More than 28 Volts
29
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
Select one:
a. Depressurises hydraulic system B.
b. Depressurises the nose wheel braking system, to prevent damage to the tow bar.
c. Isolates Rudder Pedal nose wheel steering, limiting nose wheel steering to the Tiller only.
d. Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.
d. Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.
30
What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching the speed when the RTO system fully armed (88 knots) with the AUTO BRAKES switch set to RTO?
Select one:
Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
Automatic braking when reverse thrust is selected.
Maximum braking occurs when speed brake is deployed.
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate.
Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
31
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
Select one:
a. Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots.
b. Maintain 235 knots for 20 minutes.
c. Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.
d. Extend limit speed, 280k/.72M maximum.
c. Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.
32
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
Select one:
a. Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
b. Maximum pressure of 2800 psi.
c. Normal pre charge of 1200 psi.
d. Normal pre charge of 2800 psi.
a. Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
33
In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?
Select one:
Yes, the hydraulic power will be supplied by the Brake System Accumulator
No, as the brakes are supplied by Hydraulic system A.
No, unless the Ram Air Turbine has been deployed
No, as the brakes are supplied by Hydraulic System B
Yes, the hydraulic power will be supplied by the Brake System Accumulator
34
With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
Hydraulic System B pressure is bypassed with the lockout pin installed in the steering depressurization valve.
Rudder pedal steering overrides the nose wheel steering Tiller inputs.
Rudder pedal steering is deactivated once the nosewheel lifts off from the ground.
Rudder pedal steering allows 78 degrees of steering in either direction.
Rudder pedal steering is deactivated once the nosewheel lifts off from the ground.
35
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Select one:
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur.
Autobrakes will arm immediately at any groundspeed.
Autobrake action will occur only when thrust reverse is selected.
Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.
Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.
36
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
Select one:
Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level.
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, but normal automatic braking action still occurs.
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, and no automatic braking action occurs.
Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level.
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, and no automatic braking action occurs.
37
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
Select one:
a. Protection from uncommanded motion, for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position.
b. LE skew detection for slats 1 through 8.
c. Slat and skew protection during auto-slat operation
d. Skew detection for LE flaps
a. Protection from uncommanded motion, for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position.
38
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
Select one:
a. Only System A hydraulic pressure
b. Airspeed and stabilizer position.
c. Altitude and elevator position.
d. Elevator balance tabs position
b. Airspeed and stabilizer position.
39
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
Select one:
a. Fully extends the LE devices using electric motors.
b. Activates the standby hydraulic pump and pressurizes the standby rudder control unit.
c. Closes the flight spoilers shut off valve.
d. Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve.
d. Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve.
40
In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, how else can the rudder be powered?
Select one:
System B powering the Standby Rudder PCU.
Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU.
System A powering the Standby Rudder PCU.
Standby hydraulic system through the Main Rudder PCU.
Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU.
41
What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
Select one:
a. Captain's pitot system fails.
b. Flaps are up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System A and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed.
c. Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.
d. Flaps are not up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System B and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed.
c. Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.
42
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
Select one:
a. It repositions the ailerons by using aileron balance tabs.
b. Caution! If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim applied may NOT always be indicated on the scale on the control column.
c. The amount of trim applied is indicated on the scale on top of control column with or without autopilot engaged.
d. Aileron trim is electrically disconnected with the autopilot engaged.
b. Caution! If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim applied may NOT always be indicated on the scale on the control column
43
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
Select one:
a. 15 degrees
b. 10 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 5 degrees
b. 10 degrees
44
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
Select one:
a. 17,000 feet
b. 23,000 feet
c. 10,000 feet
d. 20,000 feet
d. 20,000 feet
45
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
Select one:
a. Flaps 30 and 40 only.
b. All flap settings
c. All flap settings except UP.
d. Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40.
d. Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40.
46
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
Select one:
800 feet.
2000 feet.
500 feet.
1500 feet.
800 feet.
47
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
Select one:
LNAV is manually selected once above 3000 feet with flaps up no lights.
Passing 400 feet AGL.
800 feet RA.
50 feet RA.
50 feet RA.
48
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
Select one:
VOR/LOC
APP
VNAV
LNAV
APP
49
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
Select one:
GA : LNAV armed (white) : TO/GA
MCP SPD : (blank) : GA
N1 : VOR/LOC : TO/GA
GA : LNAV : MCP SPD
GA : LNAV armed (white) : TO/GA
50
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
Select one:
V2 plus 20kts.
V2.
V2 to V2 plus 15kts.
V2 to V2 plus 20kts.
V2 plus 20kts.
51
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
Select one:
An A/P Go-around will automatically engage.
The A/P Go-around is only available after the second push of the TO/GA switch.
Automatic A/P Go-around occurs after FLARE armed annunciates.
A manual F/D Go-around is available
A manual F/D Go-around is available
52
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
Select one:
300 feet.
50 feet.
200 feet.
150 feet.
50 feet.
53
How can VNAV be terminated?
Select one:
selecting LNAV.
Selecting a different pitch mode
Selecting HDG SEL
LOC capture.
Selecting a different pitch mode
54
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
Select one:
When VNAV is engaged.
Upon glideslope capture.
When HDG SEL is disengaged.
Reaching a route discontinuity.
Reaching a route discontinuity.
55
Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate?
Select one:
Rapid decrease in fuel flow.
Rapid decrease in N1, or N1 below idle RPM.
Rapid decrease in EGT.
Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM.
Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM.
56
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
Select one:
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT.
Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either engine.
The aircraft descends below 15,000 feet MSL
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.
57
Which of the following statements would cause the EEC to automatically turn off ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when the EGT display box and dial turn red?
Select one:
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts.
An impending wet start is detected during ground starts.
An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts.
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts.
58
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
The APU may be used to feed two air conditioning packs up to 41,000 feet
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet
The APU may only be used as a bleed air source up to 10,000 feet
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 17,000 feet
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet
59
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
Only N1, N2, oil quantity indications are available until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than 15% N2.
Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
Only oil pressure and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
60
If the EGT exceeds the starting limit during an engine start, in what circumstances would the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
Select one:
on the ground only
in flight only
on the ground and in flight
never
on the ground only
61
Which of the following conditions would allow the Thrust Reversers to deploy if selected?
Select one:
Always in flight with throttles at idle, and the Reverse Thrust Levers have been selected beyond the Interlock position.
When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode.
In flight when either radio altimeter senses less than 30 feet RA
In flight, below 50 feet, when the thrust lever is at idle, and Reverse Thrust Levers are selected to the Interlock position.
When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode.
62
Up to what altitude may the APU be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously?
Select one:
25,000 ft.
17,000 ft.
30,000 ft.
10,000 ft.
10,000 ft.
63
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
Select one:
When the Electric Motor Driven pumps are running.
Whenever the engines are shut down.
Normally when the respective engine has been started.
When the switch is positioned to OFF.
Normally when the respective engine has been started.
64
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
Select one:
453 Kgs in the related main tank.
760 Kgs in the related main tank.
There is no minimum fuel quantity limitation on the ground
363 Kgs in the related main tank.
760 Kgs in the related main tank.
65
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
Select one:
When hydraulic quantity is less than 72% in either system A or B at any time.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down.
Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B in flight or on the ground.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down.
66
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located?
Select one:
In the System A hydraulic tank.
In main fuel tank No.1.
In the standby hydraulic tank.
In the centre fuel tank.
In main fuel tank No.1.
67
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
Select one:
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and System A pressure is maintained.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero but system pressure is maintained by the Landing Gear Transfer Unit.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and alternate brakes and steering must be used.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
68
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
Select one:
Rudder, Ailerons, Autoslats, Trailing Edge Flaps
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Landing Gear
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Brakes, Autopilot B
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
69
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
Select one:
No change in System B quantity
System B quantity would decrease to Zero.
A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.
An overheat indication for System B
A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.
70
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
Select one:
When System A pressure is zero and the landing lever is positioned UP.
Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up.
When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON.
After a failure of the number 1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned UP
Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up.
71
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
Select one:
The autopilot will only disengage below 2000ft
The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed
The autopilot will remain engaged
The heading and pitch modes will change to HDG SEL and V/S
The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed
72
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
Select one:
350 feet RA.
50 feet RA.
500 feet RA.
They will not disengage.
350 feet RA.
73
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?
Select one:
The autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture.
The autopilot will continue as normal.
The autopilot will continue to command the aircraft down to minimums.
The autopilot will disconnect as soon as the failure is detected.
The autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture.
73
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
Select one:
400 feet Radio Altitude.
800 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off.
400 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off.
800 feet above Field Elevation.
800 feet above Field Elevation.
74
Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?
Select one:
12 degrees.
10 degrees.
6 degrees.
8 degrees.
6 degrees.
75
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
Select one:
FMC speed or selected speed cannot be reached.
When the speed is equal to or less than 1.3 VS for current flap setting.
Minimum speed for current flap setting cannot be reached.
The highest of the other three answers
The highest of the other three answers
76
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
Select one:
MCP SPD
V/S
CWS P
VNAV
MCP SPD
76
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
Select one:
The display becomes blank
The display opens up and shows dashes.
The display opens up and shows 100 kts.
The display opens up and shows FMC target speed.
The display opens up and shows FMC target speed.
77
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
Select one:
THR HLD and ARM.
THR HLD Only.
GA and ARM.
N1 and ARM.
THR HLD and ARM.
78
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
The isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position.
The green REV indication on the aft overhead panel illuminates.
The translating sleeve is hydraulically locked in the deployed position.
Thrust reverse levers must be cycled to reset the system.
The isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position.
79
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
Select one:
On the ground only.
In flight only.
On the ground or in flight.
Never.
On the ground or in flight.
80
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
Select one:
30 seconds
60 seconds
120 seconds
135 seconds
60 seconds
81
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
Select one:
System B
System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2
System A
Standby system
System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2
82
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
Select one:
After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.
Before the fuel reaches the HMU.
Before passing through the second stage engine fuel pump.
After passing through the fuel filter.
After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.
83
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
Select one:
When the start lever is moved to CUTOFF or the engine reaches idle N2.
When the engine reaches idle N1.
At starter cutout.
When the EGT is stabilized.
When the start lever is moved to CUTOFF or the engine reaches idle N2.
84
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
Select one:
Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
Do not take-off
Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil pressure
Acceptable, no action is necessary
Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
Do not take-off
85
The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?
Select one:
Low pressure (N1)
High pressure (N2)
Both (N1 and N2)
The fan driveshaft
High pressure (N2)
86
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
Select one:
Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.
Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.
Alternate brakes, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.
Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.
Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.
87
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
Select one:
The electric motor driven pump supplies a much greater pressure than the engine driven pump
They both should supply the same pressure
The engine driven pump output pressure increases with an increase in N1 during the cruise, whereas the electrically driven pump output pressure remains constant
The engine driven pump supplies a much greater pressure than the electrically driven pump
They both should supply the same pressure
88
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
Select one:
Master Caution and FLT CONT light only.
Illumination of the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights.
STBY RUD ON with no Master Caution.
No indications of automatic operation.
Illumination of the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights.
89
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
Select one:
a. Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 and System A engine-driven hydraulic pump pressure drops below limits.
b. Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and engine No.1 RPM drops below a limit value
c. Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine-driven hydraulic pump output pressure drops below limits.
d. Airborne, Flaps not up and engine No.2 RPM drops below a limit value
c. Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine-driven hydraulic pump output pressure drops below limits.
90
When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?
Select one:
At all times.
Only when both FLT CONTROL switches are selected to STBY RUD
Only when the Yaw Damper is selected on
Only in the event of the loss of System A or System B
At all times.
91
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Select one:
Pump continues to run and output is diverted to Electric hydraulic pump.
Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.
Pump drive is disconnected.
Transfers system to ENG 2 pump output.
Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.
92
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
Select one:
Hydraulic Standby System.
Hydraulic System A.
Hydraulic System B.
Hydraulic System A.
93
Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?
Select one:
Normally powered by Hydraulic System B.
Neither. They are electrically powered
Hydraulic System A
The Standby Hydraulic System
Normally powered by Hydraulic System B.
94
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
Select one:
They will not disengage.
500 feet RA.
50 feet RA.
350 feet RA.
350 feet RA.
95
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
Select one:
ADIRU's.
Autothrottle computer.
FMC.
AFDS.
FMC.
96
Prior to returning to the oil tank, what does engine oil pass through?
Select one:
The oil cooler then the scavenge pump.
The scavenge filter and then main engine oil cooler.
The IDG oil cooler.
The IDG then the Main oil coolers.
The scavenge filter and then main engine oil cooler.
97
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
Select one:
The display opens up and shows 100 kts.
The display opens up and shows dashes.
The display becomes blank
The display opens up and shows FMC target speed.
The display opens up and shows FMC target speed.
98
The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions will be used for the engine parameters.
b. The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters.
c. You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel.
d. The EEC's automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost.
b. The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters.
99
What is the result of the APU GEN OFF BUS light failing to illuminate by the end of the APU start cycle?
Select one:
This is normal, as the APU GEN OFF BUS light will not illuminate until the APU GEN switches are cycled.
The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate.
The MAINT light illuminates.
The FAULT light illuminates.
The FAULT light illuminates.
100
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
Select one:
Closes engine fuel shutoff valve only.
Closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves.
Closes Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and resets ignition system through EEC.
Shuts the spar fuel shutoff valve only.
Closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves.
101
During engine start, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?
Select one:
When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only
On the ground or in the air in the event of a wet start 10 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle
When EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground or in flight for more than 10 degrees for more than 10 seconds.
All of the other answers are correct.
When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only
102
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
Select one:
After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.
Before the fuel reaches the HMU.
After passing through the fuel filter.
Before passing through the second stage engine fuel pump.
After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.
103
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
Select one:
a. a white "X" above the EGT dial.
b. a white arrow above the N1 dial.
c. a magenta "X-BLD" above the N2 dial.
d. No indication is provided
c. a magenta "X-BLD" above the N2 dial.
104
During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE?
Select one:
15 seconds.
20 seconds.
Until starter cut out.
10 seconds.
15 seconds.
105
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which items?
Select one:
Landing gear.
Autoslats.
Outboard spoilers.
Trailing edge flaps.
Autoslats.
106
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
Select one:
Rudder, Ailerons, Autoslats, Trailing Edge Flaps
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Brakes, Autopilot B
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Landing Gear
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
107
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
Select one:
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero but system pressure is maintained by the Landing Gear Transfer Unit.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and System A pressure is maintained.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and alternate brakes and steering must be used.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
108
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
Select one:
Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.
When hydraulic quantity is less than 72% in either system A or B at any time.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B in flight or on the ground.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down.
109
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
Select one:
Systems A and B
System A
System B
Standby system
System A
110
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located?
Select one:
In main fuel tank No.1.
In the standby hydraulic tank.
In the centre fuel tank.
In the System A hydraulic tank.
In main fuel tank No.1.
111
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
Select one:
The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips.
System B fails and wheel speed > 50kts.
System B fails and flaps are up.
Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD.
The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips.
112
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose?
Select one:
a. 7.1 Meters of the wing tip
b. 4.6 Meters of the nose
c. 7.4 Meters of the nose
d. 4.6 Meters of the tail
c. 7.4 Meters of the nose
113
Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?
Select one:
a. Engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power.
b. Engine speed, start lever position, air/ground mode status.
c. Engine speed, thrust lever position, right hand main undercarriage leg compressed, door open/closed status.
d. Engine N1 speed, start lever position.
a. Engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power.
114
Which statement is correct when the passenger oxygen system activates at a cabin altitude of 14,000 feet and the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage?
Select one:
a. Pulling one mask down will only activate one mask in the unit.
b. Pulling one mask down will cause all masks to come down and generate 100% oxygen throughout the airplane.
c. Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.
d. All masks start generating oxygen.
c. Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.
115
Which statement is correct if a fire extinguisher is to be discharged on the flight deck?
Select one:
a. Only the pilot flying must wear oxygen mask with 100% selected.
b. Only the pilot flying must wear oxygen mask with NORM selected.
c. All flight deck crewmembers must wear oxygen masks with 100% selected.
d. All flight deck crewmembers must wear oxygen masks with EMER selected.
d. All flight deck crewmembers must wear oxygen masks with EMER selected.
116
What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?
Select one:
a. The amber OXY annunciation illuminates on the FWD Overhead Panel.
b. The Green oxygen pressure relief disc will be found to be missing from the forward right fuselage during then Exterior Inspection.
c. The flight deck oxy pressure gauge will drop to read 500 psi.
d. The amber OXY annunciation illuminates on the Aft Overhead Panel.
b. The Green oxygen pressure relief disc will be found to be missing from the forward right fuselage during then Exterior Inspection.
117
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
Select one:
a. 24.3 Meters
b. 20.4 Meters
c. 25.9 Meters
d. 18.6 Meters
a. 24.3 Meters
118
Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?
Select one:
a. The gauge on the oxygen cylinder.
b. At the flight crew oxygen shut-off valve.
c. On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel.
d. On panel P18 behind the Captain's seat.
c. On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel.
119
Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?
Select one:
a. The fuel quantity digits for main tank No.2 turn amber.
b. This will cause an amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber.
c. This will cause an amber IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by MASTER CAUTION lights and a System Annunciation Light for FUEL
d. This will cause an amber LOW alert below main tank No.1 accompanied by MASTER CAUTION lights and a System Annunciation light for FUEL.
b. This will cause an amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber.
120
When will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?
Select one:
a. When the fuel tank quantity is less than 726 kgs in related main tank
b. When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank
c. When the total amount of fuel, including centre tank, is below 950kgs
d. When the fuel tank quantity is less than 567 kgs in related main tank
b. When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank
121
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
Select one:
a. 16
b. 6
c. 12
d. 20
A. 16
122
When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?
Select one:
a. The center fuel tank is about 3/4 full and all AC fuel pump switches are selected to ON.
b. Both Center Tank Fuel Pump Switches are turned OFF
c. When either engine is operating.
d. The No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full and the No. 1 tank FWD pump switch is selected to ON.
d. The No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full and the No. 1 tank FWD pump switch is selected to ON.
123
During the cruise, both centre tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. Will you see any other indication?
Select one:
a. A CONFIG indication on the CDS.
b. A LOW indication on the CDS.
c. There will be no indication on the CDS, but the Master Caution will illuminate
d. a pump LOW PRESSURE indication on the CDS
c. There will be no indication on the CDS, but the Master Caution will illuminate
124
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
Select one:
When on STBY power the HMU will be unreliable, therefore thrust deterioration might occur at high altitude.
When on STBY power the fuel pumps run a little slower.
The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict fuel flow in the suction feed line.
Loss of AC power will affect the ignition system and therefore create a potential risk of flameout.
The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict fuel flow in the suction feed line.
125
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
Select one:
Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes.
Transitions from extinguished to dim.
Transitions from extinguished to bright.
Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim.
Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim.
126
When ALL of the AC fuel pumps are switched on and operating and there is fuel in each tank, which tank would fuel for the APU normally be supplied from?
Select one:
Main tank No.2
The right hand side of the fuel manifold.
Main tank No.1
The Centre tank.
Main tank No.1
127
What does the RA aural alert "CLIMB, CLIMB NOW" mean?
Select one:
a. Climb at displayed pitch. Airplane climbs through traffic's altitude.
b. Climb at the displayed pitch.
c. Increase climb rate from initial pitch attitude.
d. Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA.
d. Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA.
128
On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
Select one:
a. Trailing edge flaps set to 2
b. Takeoff power not set on both engines
c. Stabilizer set in the takeoff range
d. Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
d. Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
129
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?
Select one:
a. A voice message "speed".
b. A clacker.
c. An intermittent horn.
d. A siren.
b. A clacker.
130
When are Predictive Windshear alerts issued?
Select one:
a. Below 1,200 feet RA.
b. Below 1,500 feet RA.
c. Below 2,300 feet RA.
d. Below 1,000 feet RA.
a. Below 1,200 feet RA.
131
What GPWS callout is given at 100ft above DH/MDA?
Select one:
a. DECIDE.
b. PLUS HUNDRED.
c. The actual RA.
d. MINIMUMS.
b. PLUS HUNDRED.
132
Which statement is correct for TCAS, proximate traffic?
Select one:
a. It is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically.
b. It is not indicated.
c. It is always a TA.
d. It is only shown as 'OFFSCALE.'
a. It is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically.
133
An OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the Navigation Display (ND). What would be an appropriate action to view the TA or RA?
Select one:
a. Select TFC on the EFIS Control Panel.
b. Reduce ND display range on the EFIS Control selector.
c. Select TA only on the transponder panel.
d. Increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel.
b. Reduce ND display range on the EFIS Control selector.
134
Which statement is correct when the FO does not correctly set the baro minima, but the Captain sets the minima correctly?
Select one:
There will be a GPWS 'minimums' callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector.
There will be no GPWS 'minimums' callouts.
It is impossible to omit to set the minima before any approach because the GPWS will remind you in time.
None of the answers are correct.
There will be a GPWS 'minimums' callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector.
135
When can you expect the EGPWS 'five hundred' call?
Select one:
a. If descending through 500ft RA on a CAT III approach for the FLARE ARM check
b. When descending through the 500ft amber band on the ALT tape on a stable ILS approach
c. On an ILS approach descending through the amber band and the GS is 1 dot from the glideslope beam
d. When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
d. When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
136
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
Select one:
a. Passenger oxygen system pressure is low
b. Oxygen shutoff valve is ON
c. Passenger oxygen system is activated
d. Passenger oxygen quantity is low
c. Passenger oxygen system is activated
137
What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?
Select one:
a. 7.4 Meters.
b. 8.42 Meters.
c. 6.42 Meters.
d. 12.5 Meters.
c. 6.42 Meters.
138
Above what windspeed should Entry or Cargo Doors not be opened?
Select one:
30 knots.
40 knots.
60 knots.
20 knots steady, gusting to 30 knots.
40 knots.
139
When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?
Select one:
a. The NO SMOKING Signs are permanently illuminated.
b. The NO SMOKING Signs illuminate when the landing gear is retracted.
c. The NO SMOKING Signs illuminate when the flaps are extended.
d. The NO SMOKING Signs extinguish when the flaps are retracted.
a. The NO SMOKING Signs are permanently illuminated.
140
Where are the Logo lights installed?
Select one:
a. Both sides of the fin.
b. On top of each horizontal stabilizer.
c. On both wingtips.
d. On the left wingtip.
b. On top of each horizontal stabilizer.
141
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
Select one:
a. 50 feet.
b. 200 feet.
c. 60 feet.
d. 75 feet.
50 ft
142
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
Select one:
NORM at high cabin altitudes
EMER
100%
NORM
EMER
143
With the FASTEN BELTS switch selected to AUTO, when will the FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs illuminate?
Select one:
a. Illuminate when flaps or gear are retracted.
b. Remain illuminated throughout the flight.
c. Only illuminate when the flaps are extended.
d. Illuminate when flaps or gear are extended.
d. Illuminate when flaps or gear are extended.
144
What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?
Select one:
a. The spar fuel shutoff valve, engine fuel shutoff valve and engine bypass valve all close.
b. Only the spar fuel shutoff valve closes.
c. Only the engine fuel shutoff valve closes.
d. The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close.
d. The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close.
145
In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
Select one:
a. A CONFIG alert under the centre fuel contents gauge.
b. A CONFIG alert indication under the left and right fuel contents gauges.
c. The centre tank pump LOW PRESSURE lights will be illuminated.
d. A fuel LOW alert indication below the centre tank contents gauge.
a. A CONFIG alert under the centre fuel contents gauge.
146
During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim to extinguished.
The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright, and then extinguished.
The related SPAR VALVE CLOSED light is unaffected by the engine start lever position.
The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from extinguished, to bright, and then dim.
The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright, and then extinguished.
147
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
Select one:
a. 726 Kgs.
b. 553 Kgs.
c. 653 Kgs.
d. 453 Kgs.
d. 453 Kgs.
148
In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
Select one:
It will shut down due to fuel starvation
It receives fuel from main tank No. 2 automatically.
It continues to operate due to the Cross Feed valve automatically opening.
It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
149
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
Select one:
a. DC motor from Hot Battery Bus
b. Pushrods and cranks
c. Cables and pulleys
d. AC motor from Standby Bus
a. DC motor from Hot Battery Bus
150
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
Select one:
Transitions from extinguished to dim.
Transitions from extinguished to bright.
Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim.
Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes.
Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes.
151
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
Select one:
a. The AC Standby Bus.
b. The Battery Bus.
c. The Hot Battery Bus.
d. The DC Standby Bus.
b. The Battery Bus.
152
Which of the following does the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitor?
Select one:
Takeoff and landing configuration warnings and landing gear only.
Takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors.
Takeoff configuration warnings, landing gear, and air/ground sensors only.
Takeoff and landing configuration warnings and air/ground sensors only.
Takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors.
152
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
Select one:
a. Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the DOWN position.
b. Speed brake lever in the DOWN position.
c. LE flaps in the Full Extended position and TE edge flaps at flaps 5.
d. LE flaps in the Full Extended position and TE flaps at flaps 15.
a. Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the DOWN position.
153
What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?
Select one:
a. Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's current altitude.
b. Terrain more than 2,000 feet above Radio altitude.
c. Terrain 500 feet below (250 feet with gear down) to 2,000 feet above airplane altitude.
d. Terrain 2,000 feet below to 500 feet above (250 feet with gear down) airplane altitude.
a. Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's current altitude.
154
Which is the ND symbol for a traffic advisory?
Select one:
a. Outline white diamond.
b. Solid red square.
c. Outline blue square.
d. Solid amber circle.
d. Solid amber circle.
155
From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?
Select one:
a. Common Display System
b. Aural Warning Module
c. EGPWS
d. Weather Radar System
d. Weather Radar System
156
Where is the terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system generated from?
Select one:
FMC navigation data base correlated to GPS position.
NAV data base
EGPWS data base
Weather Radar
EGPWS data base
157
With reference to the Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings; which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Both use steady tone when activated
b. Cabin Altitude uses steady warning horn, whilst Takeoff Config uses intermittent warning horn.
c. Both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated.
d. Both use steady warning horn when activated
c. Both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated.
158
Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
Select one:
a. Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active
b. Dotted red - terrain more than 5000ft above the aircraft's current altitude
c. Dotted green - terrain from 2500ft below to 500ft below the aircraft's current altitude
d. Dotted amber - terrain 250ft below to 2500ft above the aircraft's current altitude
a. Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active
159
Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
Select one:
Anti-ice controls only.
FMC, Thrust reverser lever position.
Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration,
air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs.
ADIRU's only.
Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration,
air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs.
160
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
Select one:
a. VHF-2 is the only useable radio.
b. The flight interphone remains useable, the PA is lost.
c. Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.
d. All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost.
c. Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.
161
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right hand side of the digital display on the IRS panel?
Select one:
Ground speed.
True track.
Minutes remaining until alignment is complete.
Wind speed.
Minutes remaining until alignment is complete.
162
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
Select one:
a. Always use the VHF-1 radio.
b. Always use the VHF-2 radio.
c. Monitor the VHF radio connected to the lower antenna.
d. Use the VHF-1 radio for outbound and the VHF-2 radio for inbound flights.
a. Always use the VHF-1 radio.
163
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
Select one:
a. Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
b. Powers the CVR until first engine start and then trips the switch to ON.
c. Powers both the CVR and the Flight Data Recorder from first engine start.
d. Ensures the CVR is always powered.
a. Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
164
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
Select one:
Unchanged, no action required.
Route discontinuity will be gone, everything else remains the same.
The navigation database never expires.
The route will need to be reloaded.
The route will need to be reloaded.
165
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Select one:
a. Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is in flight and parking brake is set.
b. Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set.
c. Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground with parking brake is released.
d. Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is in flight.
b. Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set.
166
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
Select one:
GROSS WT will display dashes.
GROSS WT will be blank
GROSS WT will be flashing
GROSS WT will display box prompts.
GROSS WT will display box prompts.
167
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
Select one:
The switched hot battery bus.
The hot battery bus.
DC bus1.
The battery bus.
The switched hot battery bus.
167
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
Select one:
Both the origin and destination airport are available.
Only the origin airport is available until passing 60 NM from the origin airport.
Only the origin airport is available until passing 120 NM from origin airport.
Only the destination airport is available.
Both the origin and destination airport are available.
168
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
Select one:
a. The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on any radios.
b. The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and interphone.
c. The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
d. The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the crewmember can communicate on all radios.
c. The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
169
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
Select one:
To reduce noise on the offside VHF receiver.
To tune the Data signal when using VHF3 for Data transmissions.
To increase the range of the VHF receiver.
To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver.
To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver.
169
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Select one:
a. Captain - VHF-2; F/O - VHF-1; Observer VHF-2
b. All stations will use VHF 1.
c. Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer - VHF-1
d. Captain - VHF-1; F/O - VHF-2; Observer - VHF-2
c. Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer - VHF-1
170
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
Select one:
The aircraft is excessively off the flight planned course.
In the cruise only.
If the entered position is above 72 degrees North or below 72 degrees South
On the ground only, if the position information is sensed as being Incorret
On the ground only, if the position information is sensed as being Incorret
170
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
Select one:
a. Switches on squelch.
b. Plays an audio test track through the flightdeck speaker.
c. Improves reception of weak signals.
d. Begins RCP self-test sequence.
c. Improves reception of weak signals.
171
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
Select one:
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes.
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the hot battery bus.
Normally AC Transfer Bus 1- if AC power is not normal DC power from the switched hot battery bus.
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the battery bus.
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes.
171
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
Select one:
A single GPS sensor unit has failed.
This is normal for this phase of flight.
Both GPS sensor units have failed.
Both GPS sensor units and IRS Left have failed.
A single GPS sensor unit has failed.
172
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
Select one:
Attitude and heading information.
Heading information only.
Attitude, heading and position.
Attitude information only.
Attitude and heading information.
172
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Select one:
a. A green call light illuminates and a two-tone chime is heard.
b. A blue call light flashes and a two-tone chime is heard.
c. Blue call light illuminates and single chime is heard.
d. The blue master call lights flash and a single chime is heard.
c. Blue call light illuminates and single chime is heard.
173
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Select one:
a. Set the ALT-NORM Switch to ALT.
b. Set the MASK-BOOM Switch to BOOM.
c. Push the VHF and NAV selector switches.
d. Set the Filter Switch to B (Both).
d. Set the Filter Switch to B (Both).
174
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
Select one:
The aircraft is within 10 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Climb ( TOC ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.
The aircraft is within 2.5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.
The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.
The aircraft is within 15 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.
The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.
175
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
Select one:
VNAV disengages.
The flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid.
VNAV operation is not possible.
The scratchpad message: CHECK FMC FUEL QUANTITY is displayed.
The flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid.
176
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
Select one:
a. No standby frequency has been set.
b. The light has been pushed for 2 seconds, and the RTP is switched off.
c. The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP.
d. The RTP is being used to tune a HF radio.
c. The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP.
177
If you push both thrust levers fully forward whilst using a 22K Thrust is selected in the FMC, the engines will produce
Select one:
Manually advancing the thrust levers with Autothrottle engaged will have no effect on N1.
VMCG limited thrust
22K thrust
Full 26K thrust
Full 26K thrust
177
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
Select one:
All LNAV information is lost and waypoints have to be created manually in the temporary navigation database.
The alerting message UNABLE REQD NAV PERF - RNP will appear in the CDU scratchpad.
The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing.
Both LNAV and VNAV will disengage.
The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing.
178
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
Select one:
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
30 seconds.
1 minute.
30 seconds.
