TECH EXAME Flashcards
Which statement is correct:
Select one:
A. Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply.
B. Bleed air is provided from the 5th and 9th stage of the compressor whenever the bleed air valve is selected ON.
C. Bleed air is only supplied from the 5th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 9th stage alone can supply.
D. Bleed air is constantly provided from stage 5 and stage 9 of the compressor.
A. Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply.
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
Select one:
A. The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.
B. The packs will automatically switch off, and cabin temperature is controlled by the mix manifold and the recirculation fans.
C. The remaining pack will not operate in HIGH flow.
D. The remaining pack when selected to AUTO will be capable of maintaining pressurisation up to aircraft ceiling, only if all Zone Temperature Controllers are selected to OFF.
A. The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
Select one:
A. The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.
B. The last settings before the failure will be maintained until the packs are selected OFF.
C. The cabin temperatures cannot be controlled in this situation.
D. A fixed cabin temperature will be produced in this situation - 24 degrees C from the left pack, and 18 degrees C from the right pack.
A. The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
Select one:
A. The trim air modulating valves close so no pack air is provided to the two cabin zones, only re-circulated air is provided.
B. The flight deck required temperature will also be provided to the passenger cabin.
C. An average temperature for the two cabin zones.
D. Left pack produces 18 degrees C, right pack produces 22 degrees C.
C. An average temperature for the two cabin zones.
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Select one:
A. Engine struts, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU duct, keel beam.
B. Engine cowl lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, electronic equipment bay, APU bleed duct.
C. Engine cowling lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU compartment, keel beam.
D. Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.
D. Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
Select one:
A. The right pack will produce a fixed temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit, and the left pack will produce a fixed temperature of 65 degrees Fahrenheit.
B. Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade.
C. The packs will attempt to maintain an average temperature across all zones.
B. Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade.
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
Select one:
True
False
False
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
Select one:
True
False
True
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
Select one:
True
False
True
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.
Select one:
True
False
True
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
Select one:
True
False
False
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
Select one:
A. Up to 60 seconds.
B. Up to 30 seconds
C. Immediately.
D. 195 minutes.
B. Up to 30 seconds
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
Select one:
A. Detecting heat above a pre-set value only.
B. Forward cargo compartment set to detect smoke only, due to hot air from cabin conditioning system being discharged into forward cargo hold, aft cargo compartment set to detect both smoke and heat.
C. Detecting either smoke or heat above a pre-set value.
D. Detecting smoke only
D. Detecting smoke only
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
Select one:
A. 1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.
B. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, one for forward cargo hold, and one for rear cargo hold.
C. 2 fire extinguisher bottles, 1 rapid discharge bottle and one smaller slow discharge bottle.
D. 1 fire extinguisher bottle that can only be discharged into forward cargo hold.
A. 1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
Select one:
A. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.
B. Extinguishes Master Caution and Fire Warning lights, silences Fire Warning Bell, shuts down No1 engine, and discharges No1 Fire Bottle into No1 engine.
C. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes inlet valve to both Air Conditioning Packs, trips IDG control relay, arms both Squibs on both on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.
D. Closes engine fuel shutoff valve, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure warning light, disables thrust reverser, arms Squib on No1 engine fire bottle, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated to the left to discharge bottle into N01 engine.
A. Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
Select one:
a. The fire warning bell is only silenced once the condition causing the Overheat or Fire warning has been removed.
b. Only by pushing the Master FIRE WARN light
c. Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.
d. Pushing the Master FIRE WARN light, or pushing the bell mute button located next to the speaker on the flight deck ceiling.
c. Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
Flight Deck Fire Panel
Select one:
A. All fire extinguisher bottles are at the required pressure
B. Fire warning system test completed satisfactorily.
C. Fire Switch unlock test satisfactory.
D. Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal
Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
Select one:
A. Carry out the test again with the switch selected to FAULT/INOP testing each loop individually with the OVHT DET switch at A then B.
B. Move to FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE switch to the central TEST position, then test one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected first to A and then B.
C. Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B.
D. This indication only occurs when BOTH loops have failed.
C. Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B.
How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?
Select one:
A. Lavatory Fire warning illuminated on flight deck.
B. Extinguisher discharge nozzle will have changed colour
C. Pressure gauge on fire bottle in the green zone.
D. Fire bottle will have it’s “pop-out” indicator exposed.
E. Discharge indicator panel above lavatory door illuminated.
F. Steady red light remains illuminated on Lavatory ceiling smoke detector panel after alarm tone has silenced.
B. Extinguisher discharge nozzle will have changed colour
True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.
APU Ground Control Panel
Select one:
True
False
True
Ryanair’s B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
Select one:
True
False
True
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.
Select one:
True
False
False
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).
Select one:
True
False
True
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
Select one:
True
False
False
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
A. There is an outflow valve which opens when cabin pressure reaches 9.1 psi above ambient.
B. There are two negative pressure relief valves, which limit the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient.
C. There is a negative pressure relief valve, which limits the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient.
D. There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi.
D. There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi.
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
Select one:
A. The galley busses are not automatically shed in this situation.
B. Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed.
C. Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed.
D. All galley busses are automatically shed.
All galley busses are automatically shed.
When will the APU GEN OFF BUS illuminate?
Select one:
a. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No 2.
b. Whenever the APU is not running.
c. Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No l.
d. When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus.
D. When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus.
During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be
Select one:
A. Usually more than 28 Volts
B. Equal to 28 Volts
C. Over 32 volts.
D. Less than 28 Volts
A. Usually more than 28 Volts
Which statement is correct when operating on standby power only?
Select one:
A. The First Officer’s PFD and ND will operate continuously.
B. Both the Captain’s and First Officer’s PFD and ND will operate continuously.
C. The Captain’s PFD and ND will operate.
D. The Captain’s PFD and the First Officer’s ND will operate.
The Captain’s PFD and ND will operate.
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
Select one:
a. If any TR has failed.
b. When TR1 has failed.
c. The TR UNIT light only illuminates when the aircraft is on the ground.
d. When TR1 and TR2 have failed.
b. When TR1 has failed.
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
Select one:
On the Aft Overhead panel on the Flight Deck
In the external AC power receptacle located on the lower right side of the fuselage.
On the Aft Attendant´s panel
On the Forward Attendant´s panel
On the Forward Attendant´s panel
What does illumination of the ELEC light indicate whilst on the ground?
Select one:
A. DC power system fault.
B. Standby power system fault.
C. A fault in the AC power system
D. A fault exists in the DC Power System or Standby Power System
D. A fault exists in the DC Power System or Standby Power System
When the battery is being charged approximately what can battery voltage reach?
Select one:
24 volts.
More than 28 Volts
28 volts.
115 volts.
More than 28 Volts
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
Select one:
a. Depressurises hydraulic system B.
b. Depressurises the nose wheel braking system, to prevent damage to the tow bar.
c. Isolates Rudder Pedal nose wheel steering, limiting nose wheel steering to the Tiller only.
d. Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.
d. Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.
What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching the speed when the RTO system fully armed (88 knots) with the AUTO BRAKES switch set to RTO?
Select one:
Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
Automatic braking when reverse thrust is selected.
Maximum braking occurs when speed brake is deployed.
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate.
Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
Select one:
a. Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots.
b. Maintain 235 knots for 20 minutes.
c. Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.
d. Extend limit speed, 280k/.72M maximum.
c. Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
Select one:
a. Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
b. Maximum pressure of 2800 psi.
c. Normal pre charge of 1200 psi.
d. Normal pre charge of 2800 psi.
a. Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?
Select one:
Yes, the hydraulic power will be supplied by the Brake System Accumulator
No, as the brakes are supplied by Hydraulic system A.
No, unless the Ram Air Turbine has been deployed
No, as the brakes are supplied by Hydraulic System B
Yes, the hydraulic power will be supplied by the Brake System Accumulator
With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
Hydraulic System B pressure is bypassed with the lockout pin installed in the steering depressurization valve.
Rudder pedal steering overrides the nose wheel steering Tiller inputs.
Rudder pedal steering is deactivated once the nosewheel lifts off from the ground.
Rudder pedal steering allows 78 degrees of steering in either direction.
Rudder pedal steering is deactivated once the nosewheel lifts off from the ground.
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Select one:
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur.
Autobrakes will arm immediately at any groundspeed.
Autobrake action will occur only when thrust reverse is selected.
Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.
Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
Select one:
Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level.
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, but normal automatic braking action still occurs.
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, and no automatic braking action occurs.
Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level.
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, and no automatic braking action occurs.
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
Select one:
a. Protection from uncommanded motion, for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position.
b. LE skew detection for slats 1 through 8.
c. Slat and skew protection during auto-slat operation
d. Skew detection for LE flaps
a. Protection from uncommanded motion, for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position.
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
Select one:
a. Only System A hydraulic pressure
b. Airspeed and stabilizer position.
c. Altitude and elevator position.
d. Elevator balance tabs position
b. Airspeed and stabilizer position.
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
Select one:
a. Fully extends the LE devices using electric motors.
b. Activates the standby hydraulic pump and pressurizes the standby rudder control unit.
c. Closes the flight spoilers shut off valve.
d. Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve.
d. Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve.
In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, how else can the rudder be powered?
Select one:
System B powering the Standby Rudder PCU.
Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU.
System A powering the Standby Rudder PCU.
Standby hydraulic system through the Main Rudder PCU.
Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU.
What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
Select one:
a. Captain’s pitot system fails.
b. Flaps are up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System A and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed.
c. Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.
d. Flaps are not up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System B and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed.
c. Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
Select one:
a. It repositions the ailerons by using aileron balance tabs.
b. Caution! If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim applied may NOT always be indicated on the scale on the control column.
c. The amount of trim applied is indicated on the scale on top of control column with or without autopilot engaged.
d. Aileron trim is electrically disconnected with the autopilot engaged.
b. Caution! If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim applied may NOT always be indicated on the scale on the control column
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
Select one:
a. 15 degrees
b. 10 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 5 degrees
b. 10 degrees
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
Select one:
a. 17,000 feet
b. 23,000 feet
c. 10,000 feet
d. 20,000 feet
d. 20,000 feet
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
Select one:
a. Flaps 30 and 40 only.
b. All flap settings
c. All flap settings except UP.
d. Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40.
d. Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40.
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
Select one:
800 feet.
2000 feet.
500 feet.
1500 feet.
800 feet.
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
Select one:
LNAV is manually selected once above 3000 feet with flaps up no lights.
Passing 400 feet AGL.
800 feet RA.
50 feet RA.
50 feet RA.
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
Select one:
VOR/LOC
APP
VNAV
LNAV
APP
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
Select one:
GA : LNAV armed (white) : TO/GA
MCP SPD : (blank) : GA
N1 : VOR/LOC : TO/GA
GA : LNAV : MCP SPD
GA : LNAV armed (white) : TO/GA
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
Select one:
V2 plus 20kts.
V2.
V2 to V2 plus 15kts.
V2 to V2 plus 20kts.
V2 plus 20kts.
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
Select one:
An A/P Go-around will automatically engage.
The A/P Go-around is only available after the second push of the TO/GA switch.
Automatic A/P Go-around occurs after FLARE armed annunciates.
A manual F/D Go-around is available
A manual F/D Go-around is available
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
Select one:
300 feet.
50 feet.
200 feet.
150 feet.
50 feet.
How can VNAV be terminated?
Select one:
selecting LNAV.
Selecting a different pitch mode
Selecting HDG SEL
LOC capture.
Selecting a different pitch mode
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
Select one:
When VNAV is engaged.
Upon glideslope capture.
When HDG SEL is disengaged.
Reaching a route discontinuity.
Reaching a route discontinuity.
Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate?
Select one:
Rapid decrease in fuel flow.
Rapid decrease in N1, or N1 below idle RPM.
Rapid decrease in EGT.
Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM.
Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM.
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
Select one:
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT.
Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either engine.
The aircraft descends below 15,000 feet MSL
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.
Which of the following statements would cause the EEC to automatically turn off ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when the EGT display box and dial turn red?
Select one:
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts.
An impending wet start is detected during ground starts.
An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts.
The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts.
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
The APU may be used to feed two air conditioning packs up to 41,000 feet
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet
The APU may only be used as a bleed air source up to 10,000 feet
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 17,000 feet
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
Only N1, N2, oil quantity indications are available until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than 15% N2.
Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
Only oil pressure and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.
If the EGT exceeds the starting limit during an engine start, in what circumstances would the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
Select one:
on the ground only
in flight only
on the ground and in flight
never
on the ground only
Which of the following conditions would allow the Thrust Reversers to deploy if selected?
Select one:
Always in flight with throttles at idle, and the Reverse Thrust Levers have been selected beyond the Interlock position.
When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode.
In flight when either radio altimeter senses less than 30 feet RA
In flight, below 50 feet, when the thrust lever is at idle, and Reverse Thrust Levers are selected to the Interlock position.
When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode.
Up to what altitude may the APU be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously?
Select one:
25,000 ft.
17,000 ft.
30,000 ft.
10,000 ft.
10,000 ft.
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
Select one:
When the Electric Motor Driven pumps are running.
Whenever the engines are shut down.
Normally when the respective engine has been started.
When the switch is positioned to OFF.
Normally when the respective engine has been started.
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
Select one:
453 Kgs in the related main tank.
760 Kgs in the related main tank.
There is no minimum fuel quantity limitation on the ground
363 Kgs in the related main tank.
760 Kgs in the related main tank.
When is the “RF” Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
Select one:
When hydraulic quantity is less than 72% in either system A or B at any time.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down.
Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B in flight or on the ground.
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down.
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located?
Select one:
In the System A hydraulic tank.
In main fuel tank No.1.
In the standby hydraulic tank.
In the centre fuel tank.
In main fuel tank No.1.
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
Select one:
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and System A pressure is maintained.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero but system pressure is maintained by the Landing Gear Transfer Unit.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and alternate brakes and steering must be used.
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
Select one:
Rudder, Ailerons, Autoslats, Trailing Edge Flaps
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Landing Gear
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Brakes, Autopilot B
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
Select one:
No change in System B quantity
System B quantity would decrease to Zero.
A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.
An overheat indication for System B
A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
Select one:
When System A pressure is zero and the landing lever is positioned UP.
Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up.
When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON.
After a failure of the number 1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned UP
Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up.
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
Select one:
The autopilot will only disengage below 2000ft
The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed
The autopilot will remain engaged
The heading and pitch modes will change to HDG SEL and V/S
The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed