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A320 Technical Exam > Tech Exam > Flashcards

Tech Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum ALT for APU assisted start?

A

20,000ft

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2
Q

ATT/HDG set to CAP3 and the ADS set to norm, what computers are supplying what on the PFD

A

IR3 supplying ATT, HDG and V/S, ADS1 supplying airspeed, ALT and backup V/S.

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3
Q

What do the wing tip breaks do?

A

Lock the slats or flaps in case of uncommanded movement, overspeed, asymmetry or runaway.

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4
Q

If the ND fails can it be transferred?

A

Yes, using the PFD/ND transfer button.

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5
Q

IF an SD button fails can you still view the system page?

A

Yes, using the ALL button.

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6
Q

What are the red CB’s for?

A

Wing tip breaks and can not be reset by the flight crew.

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7
Q

How is an armed mode shown?

A

In blue.

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8
Q

How is a managed mode shown?

A

In magenta.

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9
Q

How is an active mode shown?

A

In green.

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10
Q

How many times can you attempt to start the APU?

A

Three times, then a period of 60 minutes is required before attempting another start.

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11
Q

What does the APU low oil level message mean?

A

The APU can be used for another 10 hours of continuous operation.

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12
Q

What is the GEN 1 line used for?

A

Smoke configuration.

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13
Q

How many channels does a slat/flap computer have?

A

Two, slat and flap.

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14
Q

What does a half-box over the oxygen indication mean?

A

The pressure is at 1500PSI or less.

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15
Q

What does the EXTRACT override button do?

A

Puts the avionics ventilation system into a closed circuit.

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16
Q

Below what temperature will the avionics run in a closed circuit?

A

9 degrees on the ground and 35 degrees in the air.

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17
Q

When would you set the BLOWER and EXTRACT fans to override?

A

When smoke configuration is required.

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18
Q

When do we activate the approach by?

A

The deceleration point.

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19
Q

Is dry cranking available during an automatic engine start?

A

Yes, on the ground only.

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20
Q

What can be powered by the emergency GEN?

A

AC ESS BUS, AC ESS SHED BUS, DC ESS BUS, DC ESS SHED BUS.

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21
Q

Can AC BUS 2 be powered by the emergency GEN?

A

No.

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22
Q

When does the PTU operate?

A

When there is a pressure differential of 500PSI between the two systems, and there is integrity in the receiving system. The PTU is inhibited during first engine start and when the cargo doors are operated.

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23
Q

What does the FWC generate?

A

Level 3 and 2 warnings and cautions.

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24
Q

What do the FACs and ELACs do?

A

The FACs generate the flight envelope, the ELACs keep the aircraft inside the flight envelope.

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25
Q

What does the emergency button on the oxygen mask do?

A

Provides 100% oxygen with positive pressure.

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26
Q

What happens if both FWCs fail?

A

You lose all warnings and cautions. Overspeed and stall warnings may still be operational.

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27
Q

IN EMER ELEC, which RMP is available?

A

RMP1.

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28
Q

What will you see on the DU in case of a DMC failure?

A

INVALID DATA in amber.

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29
Q

When is the flow set to 120% automatically?

A

When using APU bleed or single pack operation.

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30
Q

What speed will the flaps auto retract?

A

210kt and airspeed is limited to 250kt.

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31
Q

What computer controls the cabin outflow valve?

A

Cabin pressure controller.

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32
Q

Where is the TAS displayed?

A

Top left of the ND.

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33
Q

Which AP or FMGC is the master?

A

Number 1.

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34
Q

What computer generates reactive windshear?

A

The FACs.

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35
Q

What computer generates predicted windshear?

A

The weather radar.

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36
Q

When do the ground spoilers deploy on a RTO?

A

At or above 72kt and they will activate the autobrakes.

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37
Q

Will the auto-brakes activate without ground spoilers?

A

Yes, when thrust reversers are deployed.

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38
Q

When is the windshear active?

A

Below 2300t. Predicted W/S cautions are given below 1500ft up to 3nm, reactive W/S warnings given below 1200ft up to 1.5nm.

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39
Q

What is the maximum bank angle?

A

67 Degrees.

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40
Q

What is the maximum protected bank angle?

A

40 Degrees. If the sidestick is released the aircraft will roll level.

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41
Q

What does the landing gear safety valve do?

A

Inhibits landing gear operation above 260kt.

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42
Q

How many engine fire loops are there?

A

2 Sets on the nacelles, pylon and core.

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43
Q

When is direct law most common?

A

When in ALT law and the landing gear goes down.

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44
Q

Do you need autothrust for Alpha Floor?

A

No.

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45
Q

When is landing inhibit active?

A

800ft and below.

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46
Q

When is TO inhibit active?

A

1500ft and below.

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47
Q

What does the red light on the cabin door mean?

A

Residual pressure with the engines stopped.

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48
Q

How many shut off valves are in the lavatories?

A

1 per lavatory.

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49
Q

How long do the center tanks run after being empty?

A

5 minutes.

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50
Q

What different KVA’s are there?

A

Normal operation is 90KVA, the RAT provides 5KVA and the batteries provide 1KVA.

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51
Q

What hydraulic systems have fire shut-off valves?

A

Green and Yellow.

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52
Q

What is the runway slope limit for the A320?

A

2% (0.02% for the exam).

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53
Q

Certified flap positions for TO?

A

1+F, 2 and 3.

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54
Q

WHat is the maximum thrust reduction when using flex?

A

25%.

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55
Q

When can you not use flex for TO?

A

On a contaminated runway.

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56
Q

Can the OAT be higher than flex temp?

A

No.

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57
Q

Are ECAM procedures in the QRH?

A

No.

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58
Q

When do we apply a normal or emergency procedure?

A

Above 400ft and aircraft stable.

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59
Q

What items have summaries in the QRH?

A

EMER ELEC or dual hydraulic failure.

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60
Q

What should you do if you receive a stall warning at TO?

A

TOGA thrust and pitch for 15 degrees with wings level.

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61
Q

Memory items for TCAS?

A

AP off, FD off, pitch for the green.

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62
Q

Memory item for emergency descent?

A

GAs masks, announce, ALT turn and pull, HDG pull, pull speed and speed brake full.

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63
Q

On the overhead panel what colour indicates normal operation?

A

Green.

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64
Q

What happens if you reach destination and your nav database is out of date?

A

Refer to the MEL.

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65
Q

What happens if you do not insert V2?

A

You will get a caution and will not be allowed to take off.

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66
Q

When does LAND FMA appear?

A

At 400ft with autoland selected.

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67
Q

How is an ALT restraint that is not achievable shown?

A

In AMBER with a star.

68
Q

What V/S is managed descent?

A

1000fpm.

69
Q

What modes does the FMGC have?

A

Dual, Independent and Single. (Also backup).

70
Q

What is the maximum NSW angle?

A

75 degrees. (90 degrees when tow).

71
Q

Is Alpha Floor available with auto-thrust off?

A

Yes.

72
Q

Can you use wing anti-ice with OEI?

A

Yes, with one pack only and no leak/fire or damage.

73
Q

What valve does the start switch open?

A

HP fuel valve.

74
Q

What is the normal position of the fuel cross feed valve?

A

Closed.

75
Q

Fuel burn sequence?

A

Center tank, Inner tank, Outer tank.

76
Q

How long does it take for the APU to automatically discharge in the event of a fire?

A

3 seconds.

77
Q

What percentage N2 do we get ignition?

A

16%, stops at 50%.

78
Q

Where is the MAINT bus?

A

In the ceiling in the foreward galley.

79
Q

What does the UNLOCKED light mean on the landing gear indication?

A

Landing gear is not locked in the selected position.

80
Q

When do the transfer valves close again?

A

Upon refuelling.

81
Q

What type of AC power is used?

A

3 phase AC.

82
Q

How do you manually select the alternate brakes?

A

Turn off the N/W anti-skid switch.

83
Q

How much time to detect an engine fire?

A

When you lose both fire detection loops within 5 seconds.

84
Q

What do the two ACSC’s control?

A

ACSC1 controls the pack 1, hot air valve and cockpit trim valve. ACSC2 controls pack 2 and the two cabin trim valves.

85
Q

When does ESS TR run?

A

When one TR is lost or you are in EMER ELEC.

86
Q

How is the portable water tank pressurised?

A

With engine bleed air.

87
Q

What protections are available in ALT law?

A

None. High and low speed stability may be available.

88
Q

Which computers take inputs from the sidesticks?

A

ELACs and SECs.

89
Q

When is the mechanical backup used?

A

When you lose the flight control computers. (2 ELACs and 3 SECs).

90
Q

During a manual start, does the FADEC control the start valve?

A

Yes, it closes at 50%.

91
Q

What is closed with the ditching button?

A

Valves below the water line (Inlet and outlet valve, 2 packs, ram air valve and outflow valve).

92
Q

If cabin pressure controller 1 fails what will happen?

A

CPC2 takes over and a level 1caution appears on ECAM.

93
Q

What does a half box around the fuel quantity mean?

A

Some of the fuel may be unuseable.

94
Q

What do the three turns of the manual gear extension handle represent?

A

1 - Hydraulic shut off, 2 - landing gear doors opening, 3 - gear locked down.

95
Q

When does the flare mode activate?

A

50ft agl.

96
Q

What does the expedite button do in descent?

A

Commands speed 340kts and thrust idle.

97
Q

What does CPDLC use?

A

VHF, HF and satcom.

98
Q

What is the maximum deflection of the rudder pedals?

A

6 degrees.

99
Q

When would the safety valve open?

A

8.6PSI.

100
Q

What is the normal pitch law?

A

Load factor.

101
Q

What is the normal roll law?

A

Roll rate.

102
Q

What condition is required to check the voltage?

A

No load.

103
Q

What is the maximum pitch?

A

30 degrees nose up in clean config. With flaps 25 degrees (and then 20 with reducing speed).

104
Q

If the engine interface fails, what indications does the FADEC lose?

A

Master switch and mode selector position.

105
Q

Which spoilers are controlled by which SECs?

A

From inboard to outboard: 33112. (GYBYG).

106
Q

What hydraulic systems control the ailerons?

A

Green and Blue.

107
Q

What hydraulic systems control the elevator?

A

Left elevator Green and Blue, Right elevator Blue and Yellow.

108
Q

What hydraulic systems control the rudder?

A

Green, Blue and Yellow.

109
Q

What supplies data to the FWC?

A

SDACS.

110
Q

What is the mixer unit connected to?

A

Packs and cabin fans. (Can also be connected to ram air and LP air).

111
Q

Where does the air data for the ISIS come from?

A

ADIR1 and ADIR3, standby pitot and static ports.

112
Q

How many flight phases are there?

A

10.

113
Q

What does a pulsing green indication mean?

A

The associated system is close to reaching a limit.

114
Q

Which probes are not heated on the ground?

A

TAT probes.

115
Q

What do we need to see to confirm the gear is down?

A

One green triangle.

116
Q

What is the max ALT to start the APU on batteries?

A

25,000ft.

117
Q

When is gross weight available?

A

After first engine start.

118
Q

What is the maximum EGT limit for TO and GA?

A

950 degrees.

119
Q

When do the LGCIUs switch?

A

When the gear is recylced.

120
Q

What spoilers are used as speed brakes?

A

345.

121
Q

What spoilers are used as ground spoilers?

A

12345.

122
Q

What spoilers are used for roll?

A

234.

123
Q

When will a GEN load be displayed in amber?

A

Greater than 100%

124
Q

When would the FADEC select modulated idle?

A

When the flaps are retracted in flight or on the ground provided reverse is not selected.

125
Q

What happens to the cockpit door if electrical power is lost?

A

The door unlocks but remains closed.

126
Q

How much fuel does the surge tank take?

A

Up to 2%.

127
Q

Where is the ground air connector?

A

On the left side in front of the wing.

128
Q

How many comms radio can be used from each RMP?

A

All 3.

129
Q

What is the EGT limit when in MCT?

A

915 degrees.

130
Q

How can you control the brightness of the FCU?

A

COntrol knob under glareshield.

131
Q

How do you reset the oxygen mask after use?

A

Close the door and press the rest button.

132
Q

What does APPR pushbutton arm?

A

LOC, G/S and FINAL APPR.

133
Q

When the strobes are in AUTO, when do they come on?

A

When no weight on wheels.

134
Q

How many ENG start cycles can you do in a row?

A

4 (each cycles consists of 3 start attempts). The you need to wait 15 minutes.

135
Q

When does the SQUIB light illuminate?

A

When the ENG fire pushbutton is pressed.

136
Q

What does a flashing white light on the IRS mean?

A

No final position inputted or an alignment fault.

137
Q

Maximum speed with the cockpit window open?

A

200kt.

138
Q

Maximum tyre speed?

A

195kt.

139
Q

Maximum speed to lower the gear?

A

250kt.

140
Q

Maximum speed to retract the gear?

A

220kt.

141
Q

Maximum speed with the gear down?

A

280kt.

142
Q

Maximum flap speeds?

A

1 = 230kt
1+F = 215kt
2 = 200kt
3 = 185kt
FULL = 177kt

143
Q

Maximum speed to operate the wipers?

A

230kt.

144
Q

Maximum load in clean config?

A

-1g to 2.5g

145
Q

Maximum load with flap/slat?

A

0g to 2g.

146
Q

Maximum positive differential pressure?

A

9PSI.

147
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure?

A

-1PSI.

148
Q

Maximum TO ALT?

A

9200ft.

149
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind?

A

38kts.

150
Q

Maximum tailwind for TO or LDG?

A

15kts.

151
Q

Maximum wind speed for pax door operation?

A

65kts.

152
Q

Maximum APU running EGT?

A

675 degrees.

153
Q

Maximum time in TOGA?

A

5 mins (10 with OEI).

154
Q

Maximum ALT with flaps/slats?

A

20,000ft.

155
Q

Minimum oil quantity?

A

9.5 quarts plus estimated consumption.

156
Q

What is the wingspan of the A320?

A

34.09m

157
Q

What is the length of the A320?

A

37.57m

158
Q

Where is VHF1 antennae located?

A

On top of the fuselage.

159
Q

How is the flush sequence controlled?

A

A flush control unit within each toilet controls the flush.

160
Q

How are the pack flow control valves controlled during engine start?

A

Close automatically.

161
Q

How many cargo fire bottles are there?

A

One that can discharge in either compartment.

162
Q

In the air conditioning system, how is temperature control ensured?

A

A zone controller and two pack controllers, or two ACSCs.

163
Q

During a manual start, when should the mode selector be set to normal?

A

When N2 is above 50%.

164
Q

With the predicted windshear set to AUTO, below what height will indications be shown on the ND?

A

1500ft.

165
Q

Below what height do the FWC’s generate height announcements?

A

2500ft.

166
Q
A

A320 Technical Exam (2 decks)

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